ARRT Radiography Exam Review (1-200)With Correct Answers

Study guide for the ARRT exam in radiography.
Anatomy and positioning are not covered in this study guide.

What is a tort?
A violation of civil law.

Torts are also known as __.
Personal Injury Law

If a patient is apprehensive about being injured, or a radiographer causes fear in the patient, it is known as __.
Assault

Unlawful touching or touching without consent, harm resulting from physical contact with the radiographer, and imaging the wrong body part or against the patients will is known as __.
Battery

Unjustified restraint of a patient is known as __.
False Imprisonment

Exposing confidential information, improperly exposing the patients body, inappropriately touching a patients body, or photographing a patient without their permission is known as __.
Invasion of Privacy

Written information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as __.
Libel

Orally spreading false information that results in defamation of character or loss of reputation is known as __.
Slander

Respondeat Superior is a legal doctrine stating the employer is held liable for an employee’s negligent act. Respondeat Superior means __.
Let the master answer.

Res Ipsa Loquitur is a legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious. Res Ipsa Loquitur means __.
The thing speaks for itself.

The ARRT Standards of Ethics consists of the of Ethics and the of Ethics.
1) Code
2) Rules

The ARRT __ of Ethics serves as a guide for what radiographers aspire to become as professionals.
Code

The ARRT __ of Ethics are mandatory, enforceable, and carry sanctions for violations.
Rules

Attempting to copy ARRT exam materials, disclosing exam questions, impersonating a test candidate, being convicted of a crime, engaging in unprofessional conduct, injuring a patient, misrepresenting CE units earned, violating state or federal narcotics and controlled-substance laws, and attempting to circumvent the certification and registration process are examples that violate the ARRT __ of Ethics.
Rules

Acting in a professional manner, responding to patient needs, and supporting colleagues and associates in providing quality patient care, practicing technology founded upon theoretical knowledge and concepts, practicing ethical conduct appropriate to the profession and protecting the patient’s right to quality radiologic care, and striving to improve knowledge and skills by participating in continuing education and professional activities are examples covered under the ARRT __ of Ethics.
Code

In what order should radiographic exams be scheduled?
1) Fiberoptic (endoscopic) studies.
2) Radiography of the urinary tract.
3) Radiography of the biliary system.
4) Computed tomography studies.
5) Lower GI radiographic studies.
6) Upper GI radiographic studies.

Tachycardia is having a heartbeat of more than __ beats per minute.
100

Bradycardia is having a heartbeat of less than __ beats per minute.
60

Diastolic blood pressure greater than ________mm/Hg indicates an increasing level of hypertension.
90

Diastolic blood pressure less than ________mm/Hg gives some indication of shock.
50

The usual oxygen flow rate through a nasal cannula is __ L/minute.
3 to 5

Loosing large amounts of blood or plasma may result in __ shock.
Hypovolemic

When toxins are produced during massive infection causing a dramatic decrease in blood pressure, __ shock is suspected.
Septic

__ shock is when blood pools in peripheral vessels.
Neurogenic

__ shock results from cardiac failure or other interference with heart function.
Cardiogenic

shock (or ) is a reaction to foreign proteins after injections, and may follow injection of iodinated contrast media.
1) Allergic
2) Anaphylaxis

What are some symptoms of shock?
1) Restlessness and apprehension.
2) Accelerated pulse.
3) Pale skin.
4) Weakness.
5) Alteration in ability to think.
6) Cool, clammy skin.
7) Systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm/Hg.

What is the radiographer’s response to shock?
1) Stop procedure.
2) Place patient in Trendelenburg position.
3) Call for help.
4) Determine blood pressure.
5) Administer oxygen.
6) Document time and occurrence of each symptom.

Contrast media __ may occur in infants, or patients who have renal, cardiac or hepatic failure.
Overdose

What are some reactions to anaphylactic shock?
1) Flushing
2) Hives
3) Nausea

What are some reactions to cardiovascular shock?
1) Hypotension
2) Tachycardia
3) Cardiac Arrest

What are some other reactions that may be found as a result of contrast media injection?
1) Nausea/Vomiting
2) Sneezing
3) Sensation of Heat
4) Itching
5) Hoarseness of Voice
6) Coughing
7) Urticaria
8) Dyspnea
9) Loss of Consciousness
10) Convulsions
11) Cardiac Arrest
12) Paralysis
13) Change in Orientation

__ contains negatively and positively charged ions.
Iodinated Ionic Contrast Media

__ do not ionize into separate negative and positive charges.
Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media

__ has a far lower incidence of contrast agent reactions because it is not ionized.
Iodinated Nonionic Contrast Media

What is the atomic number for iodine?
53

What is the atomic number for barium?
56

What is the atomic number for tungsten?
74

What letter represents the atomic mass number?
A

What letter represents the atomic number?
Z

In what order is venipuncture performed?
1) Wash hands.
2) Put on gloves.
3) Place tourniquet in place.
4) Select vein.
5) Cleanse area.
6) Remove air from syringe/tubing.
7) Insert needle.
8) Observe blood flow into catheter.
9) Remove tourniquet.
10) Begin injection.

When handling chemicals and they are exposed to skin, the area should be washed with cool water for at least __ minutes.
5

When handling chemicals and they splash into the eyes, the eyes should be washed with cool water for at least __ minutes.
15

This is used to define radiation exposure or radiation delivered to a specific point.
Air Kerma

Air kerma is measured in __.
Gray (Gyᵃ)

This is sometimes used to measure exposure, but the preferred unit is air kerma.
Coulombs/Kilogram

This is used to define the amount of energy absorbed per unit mass of tissue.
Absorbed Dose

Absorbed dose is measured in __.
Gray (Gyᵗ)

This is used to define the product of absorbed dose (Gy) times the radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ).
Equivalent Dose

__ takes into account the biologic impact of the type and energy of the radiation being used.
Radiation weighting factor (Wᴿ).

This is used to define the estimated risk present when various tissues are irradiated.
Effective Dose

Effective dose uses the __, and takes into account the relative radiosensitivity of the irradiated organ or body part.
Tissue weighting factor (Wᵀ).

__ is the product of absorbed dose times the radiation weighting factor times the tissue weighting factor.
Effective Dose

__ is the unit of effective and equivalent dose.
Sievert (Sv)

The unit of radioactivity that is used to measure the quantity of radioactive material is the __.
Becquerel (Bq)

Radiation exiting the x-ray tube is known as __.
Primary Radiation

X-rays that emerge from the patient and strike the image receptor, and are composed of primary and scattered photons is known as __.
Exit or Remnant Radiation

X-ray beams that contain photons of many different energies are known as __.
Heterogeneous.

What are twelve properties of x-rays?
1) Highly penetrating, invisible rays.
2) Electrically neutral.
3) Liberate minute amounts of heat.
4) Polyenergetic, heterogenous.
5) Travel in straight lines.
6) Ionize matter.
7) Cause fluorescence of certain crystals.
8) Travel at the speed of light.
9) Affect photographic film.
10) Cannot be focused by a lens.
11) Produce chemical and biologic changes.
12) Produce secondary and scatter radiation.

What occurs during Coherent Scattering?
The incident x-ray interacts with an atom causing it to become excited. The atom immediately releases this excess energy as a scattered x-ray having the same energy and wavelength as the incident x-ray, but in a different direction.

What occurs during Compton Scattering?
The incident x-ray interacts with an outer-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray then continues in a different direction with less energy and a longer wavelength.

What occurs during the Photoelectric Effect?
The incident x-ray interacts with an inner-shell electron and ejects it from the atom, ionizing the atom. The x-ray is not scattered but totally absorbed, releasing all of its energy to the ejected electron. Characteristic x-rays are then produced as outer-shell electrons fill the void left by the inner-shell electron.

What is Bremsstrahlung Radiation?
Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced when a projectile electron is slowed by the electric field of a target atom nucleus.

What is Characteristic Radiation?
When projectile electrons interact with inner-shell electrons of the target atom, rather than with an outer-shell electron.

X-ray’s have diagnostic wavelengths of to , and travel as bundles of energy called photons.
1) 0.1 Å
2) 0.5 Å

The upper boundary dose that can be absorbed, either in a single exposure or annually, with a negligible risk of somatic or genetic damage to the individual, is known as __.
Effective Dose

What is the annual effective dose limit for occupational exposure?
50 mSv

What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the lens of the eye?
150 mSv

What is the annual equivalent dose limit for occupational exposure to the localized areas of the skin, hands and feet?
500 mSv

This is calculated by multiplying the radiographer’s age in years times 10 mSv.
Cumulative effective dose limit.

The annual effective dose limit for students over the age of 18 is __.
50 mSv

The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure is __.
1 mSv

The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming infrequent exposure is __.
5 mSv

The total equivalent dose to the embryo/fetus for the entire gestational period is __.
5 mSv

The equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus per month is __.
0.5 mSv

Effects that occur by chance and which may occur without a threshold level of dose, whose probability is proportional to the dose and whose severity is independent of the dose:
Stochastic Effects

Effects that have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose:
Deterministic Effects

__ is somatic cell division that comprises of four phases. When division is complete, each new cell contains 46 chromosomes.
Mitosis

What are the four phases of mitosis?
1) Prophase
2) Metaphase
3) Anaphase
4) Telophase

__ is germ (sperm or ovum) cell division that halves the number of chromosomes in each cell so that the union of two germ cells produces a new cell with 46 chromosomes.
Meiosis

This occurs when radiation transfers its energy directly to the DNA or RNA.
Direct Effect

Because a cell contains mostly water, the probability that it will be struck by radiation is greater. This interaction is known as the __ effect.
Indirect

__ of water occurs as radiation energy is deposited into the water of a cell.
Radiolysis

Cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are immature, undifferentiated, and rapidly dividing. This describes:
The law of Bergonie and Tribondeau.

If cells are more oxygenated, they are more susceptible to radiation damage. This describes:
Oxygen Enhancement Ratio (OER)

A whole-body dose of __ will depress the blood count.
0.25 Gy

Somatic effects are evident in the __ being exposed.
Organism

Doses causing somatic effects are much __ than those received in general diagnostic radiography.
Higher

What are some examples of early somatic effects (acute radiation syndrome)?
1) Hematopoietic Syndrome
2) GI Syndrome
3) Central Nervous System Syndrome

What is hematopoietic syndrome?
It decreases the total number of all blood cells, and can lead to death.

What is GI syndrome?
It causes total disruption of GI tract structure, and function, and can result in death.

What is central nervous system syndrome?
It causes complete failure of the nervous system and results in death.

What are some examples of late somatic effects?
1) Carcinogenesis
2) Cataractogenesis
3) Embryologic Effects
4) Thyroid Function
5) Shortening of Life Span

What is carcinogenesis?
It causes cancer.

What is cataractogenesis?
It causes cataracts to form, following a nonlinear-threshold dose-response curve.

When are embryologic effects most sensitive?
During the first trimester of gestation.

What are late somatic effects of the thyroid?
Being a very sensitive organ, late somatic effects may manifest as cancer or cessation of function.

Shortening of lifespan __ occur in modern radiation workers.
Does Not

A genetic effect is damage to the __ molecule, which is then passed on to the next generation.
DNA

Genetic effects follow a __ dose-response curve.
Linear-Nonthreshold

There is no such thing as a safe __ dose.
Gonadal

Any exposure amount to the gonads can represent a __ threat.
Genetic

The amount of radiation that causes the number of mutations in a population to double is the __.
Doubling Dose

The doubling dose for humans is approximately __.
1.56 Sv

Gonadal shielding may reduce female gonad dose by up to __%.
50

Gonadal shielding may reduce male gonad dose by up to __%.
95

Gonadal shielding is required when the gonads are within the primary beam, or within __ cm of the primary beam.
5

The minimum source-to-skin distance for portable radiography equipment is __ inches.
12

Source-to-tabletop distance for fixed fluoroscopes may not be less than __ inches.
15

Source-to-tabletop distance for portable fluoroscopes may not be less than __ inches.
12

Fluoroscopy timers must sound an alarm after minutes ( seconds) of beam-on time.
1) 5
2) 300

Fluoroscopy exposure switches must be of the __ type.
Dead-Man

Limit dose during fluoroscopy at the tabletop may be no more than __ mGyᵃ per minute.
100

Limit use of high-level-control fluoroscopy during interventional procedures must be no more than __ mGyᵃ per minute.
200

The total of air kerma striking the surface of the patient is known as __.
Dose Area Product (DAP)

Dose area product (DAP) is expressed as __.
mGy-cm²

The average dose to active bone marrow is the _.
Mean Marrow Dose

Radiation dose that, if received by the entire population, would cause the same genetic injury as the total of doses received by the persons actually being exposed (the average gonadal dose to the childbearing-age population) is known as:
Genetically-Significant Dose (GSD)

Primary protective barriers must be __ lead equivalent.
1/16-Inch

Primary barriers must be located where the __ may strike the wall or the floor.
Primary Beam

If in the wall, primary barriers must extend to a height of __ feet.
7

Secondary protective barriers must be __ lead equivalent.
1/32-Inch

Secondary barriers must extend from where the primary protective barrier ends, and extend to the __.
Ceiling

Primary and secondary protective barriers must overlap by at least __.
1/2-Inch

Secondary protective barriers must be located wherever or radiation may strike.
1) Leakage
2) Scatter

The x-ray control booth is considered to be a __ protective barrier.
Secondary

The lead window in a control booth enclosure is usually __ lead equivalent.
1.5 mm

Measured in mA minutes per week, __ takes into account the volume and types of exams performed in the room.
Workload

The amount of time the beam is on and directed at a particular barrier defines the __.
Use Factor

Uncontrolled areas must be shielded to ensure an effective dose limit to the general public of __ per week.
20 µSv

Controlled areas must be shielded to keep exposure under __ per week.
1 µSv

Leakage radiation from the x-ray tube housing may not exceed per hour at a distance from the housing.
1) 1 mGyᵃ
2) 1 m

The protective curtain on a fluoroscopy unit must be __ lead equivalent.
0.25 mm

The bucky slot shield on a fluoroscopy unit must be __ lead equivalent.
0.25 mm

The least scatter radiation is measured at a __-degree angle from the patient.
90

Scatter-beam intensity at an angle 90-degrees from the patient is the intensity of the primary beam at a distance of meter.
1) 1/1000
2) 1

__ dosimeters use aluminum oxide to record dose.
OSL

An aluminum oxide layer is stimulated by a __ after the wear period.
Laser Beam

When aluminum oxide is stimulated by a laser beam, release energy as visible .
1) Electrons
2) Light

OSL dosimeters can record exposures as low as __.
10 µGyᵃ

OSL dosimeters can be worn for up to __ at a time.
3 Months

OSL dosimeters can be reanalyzed and reused __ times if necessary.
Multiple

With OSL dosimeters, exposures below __ are reported as minimal.
10 µGyᵃ

__ dosimeters use lithium fluoride crystals instead of film to record dose.
TLD

The electrons in lithium fluoride crystals are excited by radiation exposure, and release this information when exposed to __.
Heat

The energy released from lithium fluoride crystals is released as , and is measured by a .
1) Visible Light
2) Photomultiplier Tube

TLD’s can measure exposure as low as __.
50 µGyᵃ

TLD’s can be worn for longer periods than __ badges.
Film

With TLD’s, exposures below __ are measured as minimal.
50 µGyᵃ

__ use film that is similar to dental x-ray film.
Film Badges

Film badges can measure doses as low as __.
100 µGyᵃ

With film badges, doses below __ are recorded as minimal.
100 µGyᵃ

Filters made of and measure the intensity and type of radiation striking a film badge.
1) Aluminum
2) Copper

Film badges are usually changed __.
Monthly

A __ is used to measure radiation in an area, storage areas for radioisotopes, doses traveling through barriers, and patients who have radioactive sources within them.
Handheld Ionization Chamber

Handheld ionization chambers can measure exposure rates as low as __ per hour.
10 µGyᵃ

A __ is used to detect radioactive particles in nuclear medicine facilities.
Geiger-Mueller Detector

Geiger-Mueller detectors read in __ per minute.
Counts

An autotransformer is also known as a __ transformer.
Variable

An autotransformer is constructed with:
A single coil of wire with an iron core.

The autotransformer is the source for selecting __.
kVp

Autotransformers operate on the principle of __.
Self-Induction

The __ is in the x-ray circuit to indicate the voltage that is selected.
Prereading Voltmeter

The prereading voltmeter is prereading because it indicates the __ that will be flowing through the tube once the exposure is made.
Kilovoltage

The prereading voltmeter is placed in the circuit between the and the .
1) Autotransformer
2) Step-Up Transformer

A __ is used to regulate the duration of the x-ray exposure.
Timer

The timer is wired in the circuit between the and the .
1) Autotransformer
2) Step-Up Transformer

Electronic timers allow exposures as low as __.
1 ms or 1/1000 second.

The __ provides the safest tube current in the shortest possible time.
mAs Timer

The mAs timer measures the total __.
Tube Current

The mAs timer is located __ the secondary coil of the step-up transformer.
After

The mAs timer is generally used with __ generators.
Falling Load

__ is used to provide consistency of radiographic quality.
Automatic Exposure Control (AEC)

AEC consists of a flat chamber that is located between the and the __.
1) Ionization
2) Patient
3) Image Receptor

AEC uses a kVp, while the machine controls the .
1) Fixed
2) mAs

The shortest exposure time possible with an AEC is __.
1 ms or 1/1000 second.

A __ is a modern generator that takes advantage of extremely short time capabilities and tube heat-loading potential.
Falling Load Generator

With a falling load generator, the radiographer sets and , and the generator calculates the most efficient method of obtaining the required __.
1) kVp
2) mAs
3) mAs

A __ transformer consists of primary coils and secondary coils.
Step-Up or High-Voltage

A step-up transformer requires __ current in order to operate.
Alternating

The __ coil of a step-up transformer receives voltage from the autotransformer .
Primary

Step-up transformers operate on the principle of __.
Mutual Induction

The __ describes the number of turns in the wire in the primary coil, compared to the number of turns in the wire of the secondary coil.
Turns Ratio

Turns Ratio Formula (Autotransformer Law):

The turns ratio determines how much __ is stepped-up.
Voltage

The the turns ratio, the higher the resulting .
1) Greater
2) Kilovoltage

The turns ratio may be to , depending on the equipment.
1) 500
2) 1000

X-ray tubes require __ current in order to operate correctly.
Direct

The __ changes alternating current coming from the step-up transformer into direct current.
Rectifier

Rectifiers are solid-state semiconductor __.
Diodes

The rectifier is located in the circuit between the and the .
1) Step-Up Transformer
2) X-Ray Tube

A unit with __ diodes provides full-wave rectification for a single-phase generator.
Four

Full-wave rectification produces __ direct current.
Pulsating

Single-phase full-wave rectification results in a waveform containing pulses per cycle ( pulses per second).
1) Two
2) 120

Single-phase full-wave rectification results in % voltage ripple, with voltage dropping to , 120 times per second.
1) 100
2) Zero

A unit with or diodes provides full-wave rectification for three-phase equipment.
1) 6
2) 12

When three-phase current is used, voltage __ drops to zero during exposure.
Never

Voltage ripple for three-phase, six-pulse is approximately %, and the voltage actually used is about % of the kVp set.
1) 13
2) 87

Voltage ripple for three-phase, twelve-pulse is approximately %, and the voltage actually used is about % of the kVp set.
1) 4
2) 96

Voltage ripple for high-frequency generators is approximately %, and the voltage actually used is about % of the kVp set.
1) 1
2) 99

The mA meter (or milliammeter) measures the __ in milliamperes.
Tube Current

The mA meter is wired in the circuit between the and the .
1) Rectifier
2) X-Ray Tube

The filament circuit (or mA control) regulates the number of __ available at the filament to produce x-rays.
Electrons

When electrons are boiled off of the filament, it is known as __.
Thermionic Emission

The anode is the __ electrode in the x-ray tube.
Positive

The cathode is the __ electrode in the x-ray tube.
Negative

An anode rotates anywhere from to rpm.
1) 3300
2) 10000

The target angle of the anode allows for a actual focal spot, while producing a effective focal spot. This effect is known as the __.
1) Larger
2) Smaller
3) Line Focus Principle

The target angle may be to degrees, depending on the tube design.
1) 7
2) 20

When electrons travel from the cathode to the anode, they travel at up to the speed of .
1) Half
2) Light

When electrons strike the anode, the kinetic energy converts the electrons into and .
1) Heat
2) X-Rays

When striking the anode, the electron conversion to heat is approximately __%.
99.8

When striking the anode, the electron conversion to x-rays is approximately __%.
0.2

__ are a calculation of the total heat produced during an x-ray exposure.
Heat Units

Heat units for single-phase full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs

Heat units for three-phase, six-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs x 1.35

Heat units for three-phase, twelve-pulse full-wave rectified equipment is calculated via this formula:
kVp x mAs x 1.41

The x-ray tube for fluoroscopy is operated at to mA.
1) 3
2) 5

kVp and mAs are automatically adjusted during fluoroscopy by a process known as __.
Automatic Brightness Control (ABC)

Automatic brightness control is also called or .
1) Automatic Brightness Stabilization
2) Automatic Gain Control

The __ receives exit rays from the patient and converts then into visible light.
Input Phosphor

Visible light from the input phosphor strikes the __, which is a thin layer next to the input phosphor.
Photocathode

The photocathode releases electrons in amounts __ proportional to the visible light striking it.
Directly

Electrons from the photocathode are concentrated and directed toward the other end of the image-intensifier tube by a series of and by kVp applied through the tube.
1) Electrostatic Lenses (Focusing Lenses)
2) 25

Once electrons are propelled across the tube from the photocathode, they strike the __.
Output Phosphor

Once the energy of the electrons hits the output phosphor, it is converted by the phosphor to in amounts to __ times greater than the photocathode.
1) Visible Light
2) 50
3) 75

The increase in brightness from the photocathode to the output phosphor is known as __.
Flux Gain

The phosphor is smaller than the phosphor, resulting in an increase in brightness known as __.
1) Output
2) Input
3) Minification Gain

Total brightness gain is a product of gain and gain.
1) Minification
2) Flux

Total brightness gain ranges from to , and decreases as the tube ages.
1) 5000
2) 20000

A complete program in a radiology department that addresses all aspects of quality, including customer service, image interpretation, accuracy of diagnosis, and distribution of radiologists’ reports is known as:
Quality Assurance

A program that specifically addresses the safe and reliable operation of equipment is known as:
Quality Control

A quality control program is required by __.
The Joint Commission

Collimation must be accurate to within __% of the source-to-image receptor distance.
2

The effective focal spot size should be within __% of the size stated in the equipment specifications.
50

kVp must be accurate to within __% of the kVp indicated.
10

The exposure timer should be accurate to within __% of the time chosen for exposures over 10 ms.
5

Adjacent mA stations should be accurate to within % of one another. This is known as .
1) 10
2) Exposure Linearity

Radiation intensity of sequential exposures should not vary more than %. This is known as .
1) 5
2) Exposure Reproduceability

The fluoroscopy exposure rate should be tested with a digital dosimeter, and should not be more than________ per minute.
100 mGyᵃ

CR plates should be erased at least every __.
48 Hours

CR readers should be calibrated __.
Annually

__ comprises of systems for image acquisition, display, network and storage.
Picture Archiving and Communications System (PACS)

__ is a standard protocol used for blending PACS and various imaging modalities.
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine (DICOM)

__ blends patient care information, reporting and billing.
Hospital Information System (HIS)

__ is used for ordering procedures and reporting results.
Radiology Information System (RIS)

__ is a comprehensive collection of patient information stored in a digital format that may be shared across networks. Data may include history, medications, allergies, test results and vital signs.
Electronic Medical Record (EMR)

The sharpness of the structural edges recorded on the images is known as:
Spacial Resolution

Spacial resolution may be described as the __ representation of the part being imaged.
Geometric

The highest spacial resolution that can be recorded, and is controlled by pixel pitch, is known as:
Nyquist Frequency

The amount of radiation striking the image receptor is known as:
Receptor Exposure

The measurement of the luminance of an area in a radiographic image displayed on a monitor is known as:
Brightness

The visible difference between any two selected areas of brightness levels within the displayed radiographic images is known as:
Contrast

The number of brightness levels (or shades of gray) visible on an image is linked to the bit depth of a system, and is known as:
Grayscale

When slight differences between gray shades is present (low contrast) but the total number of gray shades is great, it is known as:
Long Scale Contrast

When considerable or major differences between gray shades are present (high contrast), but the total number of gray shades is small, it is known as:
Short Scale Contrast

Contrast resolution is controlled by __, or the number of bits per pixel.
Bit Depth

With larger the bit depth, __ levels of gray are possible in an image.
Greater

The range of exposures that may be captured by a detector is known as:
Dynamic Range

The range of exposures that produce quality images at appropriate patient dose is known as:
Exposure Latitude

__ exposure latitude makes for better visualization of soft tissues and bone.
Wide

The magnitude of the signal difference in the remnant beam as a result of the different absorption characteristics of the tissues and structures making up that part is known as:
Subject Contrast

A digital image is composed of rows and columns called a __.
Matrix

The matrix size equals the total number of __ in the image.
Pixels

The __ component of the martix is the pixel.
Smallest

Pixel stands for __.
Picture Element

Smaller pixels provide greater __.
Spacial Resolution

Each pixel in the matrix corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient called a __.
Voxel

Voxel stands for __.
Volume Element

The number of pixels per millimeter in the image is known as __, and is determined by pixel pitch.
Pixel Density

The space from the center of one pixel to the center of an adjacent pixel is known as:
Pixel Pitch

Less space between pixels (pixel pitch) provides for greater __.
Spacial Resolution

A __ is constructed to show the radiographer the distribution of pixel values (indicating low, proper, or high exposure).
Histogram

Digital images may be printed onto film by using a __.
Laser Camera

Resolution is __ with DR than with CR because DR involves less conversion of the information.
Finer

Changing the __ adjusts the image brightness.
Window Level

Changing the __ adjusts the image contrast.
Window Width

A histogram of pixel values from image acquisition that can be used to correct or enhance luminance values is known as a __.
Look-Up Table (LUT)

__ results in a grainy or noisy image.
Quantum Mottle

Quantum mottle is caused by too x-ray photons hitting the image receptor, normally from too low of a .
1) Few
2) kVp

The comparison of the useful signal to the presence of noise is known as:
Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR)

The higher the signal-to-noise ratio, the __ the image quality.
Higher

The efficiency with witch the digital system converts an x-ray signal to a useful diagnostic image is known as:
Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)

The smallest resolvable area on an image receptor is known as a __.
Detector Element (DEL)

The ability of a digital system to accurately record spacial frequencies is known as:
Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)

The area of the imaging device that is used to acquire the useful image is the __.
Detector Size

The ability to assign a value to each pixel corresponding to the gray shade determined by its bit depth is known as:
Quantization

__ controls the number of electrons passing from cathode to anode in the x-ray tube, and the quantity of x-rays produced at the anode.
mAs

mAs controls the amount of __ exiting the x-ray tube.
Radiation

mAs __ controls the number of x-ray photons that emerge from the patient, and ultimately the number of x-rays that strike the image receptor.
Directly

__ directly effects the energy or quality of the x-rays produced.
kVp

As kVp __, a greater potential difference exists between the cathode and the anode.
Increases

As kVp potential difference __, the electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater number and with greater energy.
Increases

As kVp potential differences increase, the result is an increased level of -wavelength, -energy radiation.
1) Short
2) High

kVp affects receptor exposure, although not in a directly relationship.
1) Directly
2) Proportional

As kVp increases, receptor exposure __.
Increases

As kVp decreases, receptor exposure __.
Decreases

kVp determines the __ ability of the x-ray beam.
Penetrating

As kVp is increased, wavelength __, and x-rays become more penetrating.
Decreases

As kVp is decreased, wavelength __, and x-rays become less penetrating.
Increases

In increase in kVp of % will double the receptor exposure, while a decrease in kVp of % will halve the receptor exposure. This is known as the __.
1) 15
2) 15
3) 15% Rule

The intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of x-rays and the image receptor. This defines the:
Inverse Square Law

Inverse Square Law Formula:
I₁(D₁)² = I₂(D₂)²

Elongation (body part appears longer than normal) is caused by angulation along the __ axis of the part being imaged.
Long

Foreshortening (body part appears shorter than normal) is caused by angulation against the __ axis of the part being imaged.
Main

Grids are constructed of strips separated by interspacers.
1) Lead
2) Aluminum

The height of the lead strips divided by the distance between the lead strips is known as:
Grid Ratio

Grid Ratio Formula:
H/D

The number of lead strips in a grid per inch (or centimeter) is known as:
Grid Frequency

The measure of the ability of a grid to increase contrast is the __.
Contrast Improvement Factor

The ratio of primary radiation transmitted through the grid to secondary radiation transmitted through the grid is the __.
Grid Selectivity

Grid conversion factor (GCF) is the amount of exposure necessary to compensate for the of image-forming x-rays and scatter in the cleanup process.
1) Increase
2) Absorption

Grid conversion factor is also known as:
Bucky Factor Value

How do you calculate the new mAs required for a specific grid using the grid conversion factor?
GCF of selected grid times the current mAs

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
What is the grid conversion factor for a 5:1 grid?
2

What is the grid conversion factor for a 8:1 grid?
4

What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 grid?
5

What is the grid conversion factor for a 16:1 grid?
6

When normal density appears in the middle of a radiograph with decreased density on the sides, this is likely a result of:
Grid Upside Down

When image-forming x-rays are absorbed all across the radiographic field, with cutoff (decreased density) visible over the entire radiograph, this is a result of:
Grid Off-Level

When the central ray does not strike the grid in the center, and there is visible cutoff more to one side of the radiograph than the other, the cause is:
Lateral Decentering

When there is normal density in the middle of the radiograph, with cutoff visible on the sides, the cause is likely to be:
Grid-Focus Decentering

__ is the distance at which focused grids may be used.
Grid Focus

Focus range is __ for low-ratio grids.
Wide

Focus range is __ for high-ratio grids.
Narrow

Generally, grids are used when the body part being imaged is cm thick or greater, or when more than kVp is used.
1) 10
2) 60

What type of build is massive, represents 5% of the population, has a broad and deep thorax, high diaphragm, high colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are high and horizontal?
Hypersthenic

What body type is a slight modification of hypersthenic, is the most common body habitus, and is present in 50% of the population?
Sthenic

What body type is between asthenic and sthenic and is present in 35% of the population?
Hyposthenic

What body type is a slender build, is present in 10% of the population, has a narrow and shallow thorax, long thoracic cavity, long lungs, low diaphragm, short abdominal cavity, low colon, and a stomach and gallbladder that are low, vertical, and near the midline?
Asthenic

A process is a:
Prominence

A spine is a:
Sharp prominence.

A tubercle is a:
Rounded projection.

A tuberosity is a:
Large rounded projection.

A trochanter is a:
Very large body prominence.

A crest is a:
Ridge

A condyle is a:
Round process of an articulating bone.

A head is a:
Enlargement at the end of a bone.

A fossa is a:
Pit

A groove is a:
Furrow

A sulcus is:
Synonymous with a groove.

A sinus is a:
Cavity within a bone.

A foramen is a:
Opening

A meatus is:
Tubelike

Fibrous joints are known as __.
Synarthroses

Fibrous joints are generally __ and have no joint cavity or capsule.
Immovable

Cartilaginous joints are known as __.
Amphiarthroses

Cartilaginous joints are __ movable, but have no joint cavity and are contiguous bones united by cartilage and ligaments.
Slightly

Synovial joints are known as __.
Diarthroses

Synovial joints are __ movable, and have bones held together by a fibrous capsule lined with synovial membrane and ligaments.
Freely

There are __ types of movements capable with synovial joints.
6

A __ joint permits motion in one plane only, such as an elbow.
Hinge

A __ joint permits rotary movement in which a ring rotates around a central axis, such as a proximal radio-ulner articulation.
Pivot

A __ joint has opposing surfaces that are concavo-convex, and allow flexion, extension, adduction and abduction, such as the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.
Saddle

A __ joint is capable of movement in an infinite number of axes, and has a round head of one bone that moves in a cuplike cavity of the approximating base, such as a hip.
Ball and Socket

A __ joint is capable of permitting articulation of contiguous bones and allows only for gliding momements, such as a wrist or ankle.
Gliding

A __ joint permits movement in two directions at right angles to one another. Circumduction is possible, but rotation is not. Occurs in areas such as the radiocarpal joints.
Condyloid

A __ skull is considered to be a typical skull.
Mesocephalic

A __ skull is short from front to back, and broad from side to side, and shallow from vertex to base.
Brachycephalic

A __ skull is long from front to back, narrow from side to side, and deep from vertex to base.
Dolichocephalic

Digital radiography is more efficient in , and __ than screen-film radiography.
1) Time
2) Space
3) Personnel

What are the three basic components of a DR imaging system?
1) Capture Element
2) Coupling Element
3) Collection Element

What is a capture element?
The location where the x-ray is captured.

In CR, the capture element is __ phosphor.
1) Photostimulable

In DR, the capture element may be , , or .
1) Cesium Iodide (CsI)
2) Sodium Iodide (NaI)
3) Gadolinium Oxysulfide (GdOS)
4) Amorphous Selenium (a-Se)

What is a coupling element?
It is where the x-ray generated signal is transferred to the collection element.

A coupling element may be a or optic assembly, a layer or .
1) Lens
2) Fiber
3) Contact
4) a-Se

What is a collection element?
The area in which the x-ray signal is captured via light or electrons.

The collection system may be a , a or a __.
1) Photodiode
2) CCD
3) TFT

A photodiode and a CCD are light-sensitive devices that collect light __.
Photons

A TFT is a charge-sensitive device that collects __.
Electrons

A CCD is a highly -sensitive device with principal advantageous imaging characteristics.
1) Light
2) Three

What are the three imaging characteristics of a CCD?
1) Sensitivity
2) Dynamic Range
3) Size

What is sensitivity in relation to a CCD?
The ability of the CCD to detect and respond to very low levels of visible light.

What is dynamic range in relation to a CCD?
The ability of the CCD to respond to a wide range of light intensity, from very dim to very bright.

A CCD has a sensitivity for radiation and a much dynamic range than screen-film image receptors.
1) Higher
2) Wider

Using a CCD image receptor as opposed to a screen-film image receptor results in a much __ patient dose.
Lower

With the use of a CCD, image __ is unrelated to image receptor x-ray exposure.
Contrast

With a CCD, the four decades of radiation response (0 to 10,000) can be visualized by image __.
Postprocessing

A CCD is very , which makes it highly adaptable to in its various forms.
1) Small
2) DR

A CCD measures approximately cm, but the pixel size is only µm.
1) 1 to 2
2) 100 x 100

One successful approach to DR utilizes CCDs receiving light from a .
1) Tiled
2) Scintillator

The scintillation light from a CsI phosphor is efficiently transmitted through __ to the CCD array.
Fiber Optic Bundles

Light from a CsI phosphor that is delivered to the CCD array results in high x-ray capture efficiency and good resolution up to lp/mm.
1) Spacial
2) 5

CsI/CCD is an DR process by which x-rays are converted first to then to __ signal.
1) Indirect
2) Light
3) Electric

Overcoming the challenge of creating a seamless image at the edge of each CCD is accomplished by of pixel values at each tile .
1) Interpolation
2) Interface

An early application of DR involved the use of CsI to capture the x-rays, as well as transmission of the resulting scintillation light to a __ element.
Collection

A collection element is sandwiched as a .
1) Silicon
2) TFT

Silicon is a that is usually grown as a .
1) Semiconductor
2) Crystal

When identified as amorphous silicon (a-silicon), the silicon is not but is a that can be painted onto a supporting surface.
1) Crystalline
2) Liquid

CsI has a high capture because the atomic number of cesium is and Iodine is __.
1) Photoelectric
2) 55
3) 53

X-ray interaction with CsI is high, resulting in __ patient dose.
Low

A DR image receptor is fabricated into individual __.
Pixels

Each pixel in a DR has a light-sensitive face of __, with a capacitor and a TFT embedded.
a-Si

CsI/a-Si is an __ DR process by which x-rays are converted first into light and then to electric signal.
Indirect

Because a portion of the DR pixel face is occupied by conductors, capacitors and the TFT, it is not totally sensitive to the incident image-forming __.
X-ray Beam

The percentage of the pixel face in DR that is sensitive to x-rays is known as:
Fill Factor

The fill factor is approximately %, therefore % of the x-ray beam does not contribute to the image.
1) 80
2) 20

As pixel size is reduced resolution improves, but at the expense of .
1) Spacial
2) Patient Dose

With smaller pixels, the fill factor is and x-ray intensity must be to maintain adequate signal strength.
1) Reduced
2) Increased

__ in DR is pixel limited.
Spacial Resolution

With amorphous selenium, the image-forming x-ray beam interacts directly with the , producing a charged .
1) a-Se
2) Pair

a-Se is a __ DR process by which x-rays are converted to electric signal.
Direct

X-rays incident on the a-Se create electron hole through direct of selenium.
1) Pairs
2) Ionization

A created a-Se charge is collected by a storage and remains there until the signal is read by the action of the TFT.
1) Capacitor
2) Switching

In mammography, __ is more important than spacial resolution for soft tissue radiography.
Contrast Resolution

Because contrast resolution is most important in mammography, __ has been shown to be superior to screen-film mammography.
DR

What is spacial resolution?
The ability of an imaging system to record small high-contrast objects.

Spacial resolution is usually described as the of an object that can be .
1) Size
2) Viewed

In medical imaging, spacial resolution is described as spacial __.
Frequency

Spacial frequency relates to the number of __ in a given length.
Line Pairs

In medical imaging, line pairs are measured in line pairs per __.
Millimeter

As the spacial frequency becomes larger, the objects become __.
Smaller

spacial frequency indicates better spacial .
1) Higher
2) Resolution

Anatomy can be described as having spacial __.
Frequency

Large soft tissues such as liver, kidney and brain have __ spacial frequency and are easy to image.
Low

Bone trabeculae, breast microcalcifications and contrast-filled vessels are __-frequency objects and are more difficult to image.
High

Spacial resolution in digital imaging is limited by the size of the __.
Pixel

No digital imaging system can image an object that is smaller than __ pixel.
One

What is modulation transfer function (MTF)?
The ability of an imaging system to render objects of different sizes onto an image.

An imaging system that produces an image appearing exactly like the object would have an MTF equal to __.
One

Modulation transfer function can be viewed as the of image to as a function of spacial __.
1) Ratio
2) Object
3) Frequency

At low spacial frequencies (large objects), __ reproduction is noted on the image.
Good

At high spacial frequencies (small objects), the faithful reproduction of the object on the image __.
Gets Worse

Radiography has a limiting spacial resolution of approximately __ lp/mm.
8

Mammography has a limiting spacial resolution of approximately __ lp/mm.
15

A single screen and smaller focal spot results in better spacial with .
1) Resolution
2) Mammography

What is contrast resolution?
The ability to distinguish many shades of gray from black to white.

Digital imaging systems have __ contrast resolution than screen-film imaging.
Better

The principal descriptor for contrast resolution is grayscale, also called __ range.
Dynamic

__ range is the number of gray shades that an imaging system can reproduce.
Dynamic

The dynamic range of digital imaging systems is identified by the __ of each pixel.
Bit Capacity

CT and MRI imaging systems generally have a __-bit dynamic range.
12 (2¹²)

12-bit (2¹²) systems contain __ shades of gray.
4096

DR may have a __-bit dynamic range.
14 (2¹⁴)

14-bit (2¹⁴) systems contain __ shades of gray.
16,384

Because contrast resolution is so important in mammography, these systems have a __-bit dynamic range.
16 (2¹⁶)

16-bit (2¹⁶) systems contain __ shades of gray.
65,536

The response of a digital imaging system is to orders of magnitude, as opposed to ________orders of magnitude for a screen-film system.
1) Four
2) Five
3) Three

A principal advantage of digital imaging is the ability to -process and -process the image.
1) Pre
2) Post

__ allows visualization of all shades of gray.
Postprocessing

With the use of and postprocessing tools, any region of grayscale can be expanded into a white-to-black grayscale.
1) Window
2) Level

resolution is more important that resolution when soft tissue is imaged.
1) Contrast
2) Spacial

What is SNR?
Signal-to-Noise Ratio

The signal in a radiographic image is that portion of the image-forming x-rays that represents __.
Anatomy

A signal represents the between those x-rays transmitted to the image receptor, and those photoelectrically.
1) Difference
2) Absorbed

Sources of image noise include radiation and factors associated with the image .
1) Scatter
2) Receptor

Noise __ contrast resolution, therefore we strive for the highest SNR possible, while adhering to ALARA.
Limits

In general, as the is increased, the SNR is also increased, but at the expense of patient .
1) mAs
2) Dose

Another way to increase SNR is seen in digital __ angiography (DSA).
Subtraction

With digital imaging, we can reduce patient dose by % to %. The opposite has occurred because of dose __.
1) 20
2) 50
3) Creep

Because digital can always yield a good image, it’s possible for the technologist to forget to change the factors between exposures. This results in an overall in patient dose.
1) Technique
2) Increase

Patient dose reduction should be possible because of the way in which a digital image receptor responds to x-rays, and because of a property known as detective __ efficiency.
Quantum

Because digital image receptor response is related to radiation dose, image does not change with dose.
1) Linearly
2) Contrast

One cannot -expose or -expose a digital image because contrast is not affected by dose.
1) Over
2) Under

A digital image should require repeating because of factors. This aids in patient dose reduction.
1) Never
2) Exposure

Because digital image contrast is unrelated to dose, __ becomes less important.
kVp

To reduce dose in digital radiography, we can increase and decrease .
1) kVp
2) mAs

Instead of dose creep, __ creep should be used with digital imaging systems. The result will again be a reduction in patient dose.
Technique

A problem with very technique for digital imaging is low .
1) Low
2) SNR

Noise can predominate and compromise the interpretation of __ anatomy.
Soft Tissue

What is photometry?
The study of how the human eye responds to light.

The basic photometric unit is known as the __.
Lumen

What are the two laws associated with photometry?
1) Inverse Square Law
2) Cosine Law

The inverse square law states that:
Luminous intensity decreases in proportion to the inverse square of the distance from the source.

The cosine law states that:
Luminous intensity falls off rapidly as one views a digital display device at larger angles from perpendicular.

The best viewing of a digital display device is __.
Straight On

What is a hard copy image?
Actual film that is placed on a viewbox for reading.

What is a soft copy image?
Images displayed on a digital device such as a CRT or AMLCD.

What does AMLCD stand for?
Active Matrix Liquid Crystal Display

A liquid crystal has the property of a highly ordered structure (a crystal), and the property of (a fluid).
1) Molecular
2) Viscosity

Liquid crystal materials are organic molecules that are charged, forming a natural molecular __.
1) Linear
2) Electrically
3) Dipole

Liquid crystals can be through the action of an external field.
1) Aligned
2) Electric

AMLCD’s are fashioned by .
1) Pixel
2) Pixel

An AMLCD has a very intense white that illuminates each .
1) Backlight
2) Pixel

Each pixel of an AMLCD contains light- filters and to control the intensity and color of light transmitted through the pixel.
1) Polarizing
2) Films

The pixels in an AMLCD consists of glass plate substrates that are separated by glass beads, and act as spacers.
1) Two
1) Spherical

How large are the spherical glass beads contained in the glass plate substrates of an AMLCD pixel?
A few microns in diameter.

Bus lines (conductors) control each pixel of an AMLCD with a thin-__ transistor (TFT).
Film

With AMLCD, __ resolution improves with the use of a higher-megapixel digital display device.
Spacial

An AMLCD is a very __ device.
Inefficient

Only about % of the backlight of an AMLCD is transmitted through a monochrome monitor, and of that through a color monitor.
1) 10
2) Half

Why is the luminescence of AMLCD so inefficient?
Because light is absorbed in the filters and polarizers. Also due to each pixel being blocked by the TFT and bus lines.

What is an aperture ratio?
The portion of the pixel face that is available to transmit light.

Aperture ratios of % and % are characteristic of medical AMLCD devices.
1) 50
2) 80

The term “active” in AMLCD refers to the ability to control individually each of the digital display device. The is required for the active read.
1) Pixel
2) TFT

AMLCD’s have better definition than CRT’s, and less intrinsic .
1) Grayscale
2) Noise

AMLCD’s are designed to better reduce the influence of light on image .
1) Ambient
2) Contrast

The principal disadvantage of an AMLCD is the __ dependence of viewing.
Angular

Levels of ambient light at a workstation must be near __ for best viewing.
Darkness

Preprocessing is designed to produce __-free digital images.
Artifact

Preprocessing implements electronic to reduce pixel-to-pixel, row-to-row, and column-to-column differences.
1) Calibration
2) Response

The process of pixel , lag , and __ correction are automatically applied with most systems.
1) Interpolation
2) Correction
3) Noise

__ is where digital imaging shines.
Postprocessing

Postprocessing refers to anything that can be done to a digital image after it is acquired by the __.
Digital Imaging System

Postprocessing is performed to the appearance of the image for the purpose of better detecting .
1) Optimize
2) Pathology

What is annotation?
The process of adding text to an image.

By making and adjustments, the viewer can make all shades of gray visible.
1) Window
2) Level

Adjusting window and level to visualize all shades of gray may be the most __ feature of digital imaging.
Important

The larger matrix size digital display devices have better resolution because they have pixels.
1) Spacial
2) Smaller

Smaller pixels and better spacial resolution allows for the __ of a region of an image to render the smallest detail visible.
Magnification

What is image flip?
When an image is flipped horizontally or vertically to bring the image into standard view.

What is image inversion?
Changing the white areas on the image black, and the black areas on the image white.

Why might image inversion be used?
Because it may make some pathology more visible.

Misregistration of a subtraction image can be corrected by reregistering the image through a technique known as __.
Pixel Shift

__ radiology uses the numeric value of pixels to help in diagnosis.
Quantitative

Quantitative radiology requires identifying a region-of-interest (ROI), and computing the __ pixel value for that ROI.
Mean

Quantitative radiology is __ at detecting bone mineral assay, calcified lung nodules, and renal stones.
Best

Edge enhancement is effective for and small, high-contrast .
1) Fractures
2) Tissues

__ can be effective in identifying diffuse, nonfocal disease.
Highlighting

What allows for careful visualization of precise regions of an image?
Pan, scroll and zoom.

What is a PACS system?
A computer system that not only allows acquisition, but also the interpretation, storage and recall of each medical image in digital form.

What does PACS stand for?
Picture Archiving and Communication System

What are the four principal components of a PACS system?
1) Image Acquisition System
2) Display System
3) Network
4) Storage System

The term __ is used to describe the manner in which many computers and devices can be connected to interact with one another.
Network

__ is the process of remote transmission and viewing of images.
Teleradiology

To ensure adaptability between imaging systems, the ACR and NEMA have produced a standard imaging interface format known as __.
DICOM

What does DICOM stand for?
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine

A great advantage of PACS is __, which helps to save space in the hospital usually allocated to film storage.
Archiving

With PACS, a film room is replaced by a or memory device.
1) Magnetic
2) Optical

Electronically, images stored in PACS can be recalled from the archival system to any __ in seconds.
Workstation

Backup PACS storage is accommodated __ at a digital data storage vendor.
Offsite

Offsite PACS backups are needed should the main storage files onsite become __.
Corrupted

Rotor

Stator Coils

Rotating Anode

Target

Window

Glass Envelope

Filament

Focusing Cup

Supporting Wires

2⁰
Due to, Secondary to

ć
With

ś
Without

∆
Change

↑
Increased

↓
Decreased

♂
Male

♀
Female

+
Positive

–
Negative

AAA
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

AAS
Acute Abdominal Series

abd
Abdomen

ABG
Arterial Blood Gas

Abn
Abnormal

AC
Acromioclavicular

AIDS
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

AK
Above the Knee

AKA
Above the Knee Amputation

ALOC
Altered Level of Consciousness

AMA
Against Medical Advise

AMS
Altered Mental Status

AP
Anteroposterior

appy
Appendectomy

ARDS
Acute (Adult) Respiratory Distress Syndrome

ARF
Acute Renal Failure

AS
Aortic Stenosis

ASA
Aspirin

ASAP
As Soon as Possible

AWOL
Absent without Leave

B/P
Blood Pressure

B
Bilateral

Ba
Barium

BA
Blood Alcohol

BE
Barium Enema

BID
Twice a Day

bilat.
Bilateral

BK
Below the Knee

BKA
Below the Knee Amputation

BM
Bowel Movement

BRB
Bright Red Blood

BP
Blood Pressure

BS
Bowel Sounds

CA
Carcinoma

Bx
Biopsy

CABG
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

CAD
Coronary Artery Disease

BUN
Blood Urea Nitrogen

C1, C2, …
First Cervical Vertebra, Second Cervical Vertebra, …

CAT
Computerized Tomography

CBC
Complete Blood Count

cc
Cubic Centimeter

CC
Chief Complaint

creat.
Creatinine

CF
Cystic Fibrosis

CHF
Congestive Heart Failure

cm
Centimeter

CNS
Central Nervous System

c/o
Complains of

COPD
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

CSF
Cerebrospinal Fluid

CT
Computerized Tomography

CVA
Cerebrovascular Accident

CVP
Central Venous Pressure

CXR
Chest X-Ray

dc
Discontinue (Stop Giving)

DC
Discharge (From Hospital, Unit, Etc.)

DJD
Degenerative Joint Disease

DM
Diabetes Mellitus

DNR
Do Not Resuscitate

DOA
Dead on Arrival

DOB
Date of Birth

DT’s
Delirium Tremens

DVT
Deep Vein Thrombosis

Dx
Diagnosis

Dz
Disease

ED
Emergency Department

EKG
Electrocardiogram

ECG
Electrocardiogram

ENT
Ear, Nose and Throat

ER
Emergency Room

ERCP
Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatogram

ET
Endotracheal

ETA
Estimated Time of Arrival

ETOH
Ethanol (Drinking Alcohol)

ETT
Endotracheal Tube

F
Female

FB
Foreign Body

FU
Follow-Up

F/U
Follow-Up

FUO
Fever of Undetermined Origin

Fx
Fracture

GB
Gallbladder

GCS
Glasgow Coma Scale

GI
Gastrointestinal

GSW
Gunshot Wound

GU
Genitourinary

Gyn
Gynecology

H&P
History and Physical

H/A
Headache

HIV
Human Immunodeficiency Virus

HSG
Hysterosalpingogram

HTN
Hypertension

I&D
Irrigation and Drainage

IBD
Inflammatory Bowel Disease

ICP
Intracranial Pressure

ICU
Intensive Care Unit

IDDM
Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus

IM
Intramuscular

Inj
Injection

IUD
Intrauterine Device

IUP
Intrauterine Pregnancy

IV
Intravenous

IVDA
Intravenous Drug Abuse

IVH
Interventricular Hemorrhage

IVP
Intravenous Pyelogram

Kg
Kilogram

KUB
Kidneys, Ureters and Bladder

L1, L2, …
First Lumbar Vertebra, Second Lumbar Vertebra, …

L&D
Labor and Delivery

L.
Left

LAC
Laceration

Lat.
Lateral

LBP
Lower Back Pain

LLE
Left Lower Extremity

LLL
Left Lower Lobe

LLQ
Left Lower Quadrant

LMP
Last Menstrual Period

LOC
Loss of Consciousness

LP
Lumbar Puncture

LQ
Lower Quadrant

Lt.
Left

LUE
Left Upper Extremity

LUL
Left Upper Lobe

LUQ
Left Upper Quadrant

M
Male

MCP
Metacarpophalangeal

mg
Milligrams

MI
Myocardial Infarct

MICU
Medical Intensive Care Unit

ml
Milliliter

mm
Millimeter

MRI
Magnetic Resonance Imaging

MVA
Motor Vehicle Accident

Na
Sodium

N/A
Not Applicable

N&V
Nausea and Vomiting

N/V
Nausea and Vomiting

neg
Negative

NG
Nasogastric

NGT
Nasogastric Tube

NICU
Neonatal Intensive Care Unit

NKA
No Known Allergies

NKDA
No Known Drug Allergies

NKFA
No Known Food Allergies

NPO
Nothing by Mouth

NWB
Non-Weight Bearing

O2
Oxygen

o.d.
Overdose

O.D.
Right Eye

O.S.
Left Eye

obl.
Oblique

OR
Operating Room

ORIF
Open Reduction, Internal Fixation

PA
Posteroanterior

PACU
Post Anesthesia Care Unit

PCN
Penicillin

PCXR
Portable Chest X-Ray

PE
Pulmonary Embolus

PID
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

PIP
Proximal Interphalangeal

po
By Mouth

pos
Positive

Post.
Posterior

post red.
Following Reduction (of Fracture or Dislocation)

PPD
Purified Protein Derivative (TB Test)

prn
When Needed

pt.
Patient

Pt.
Patient

q
Each, Every

QID
Four Times a Day

r/o
Rule Out

R/O
Rule Out

R
Right

RA
Rheumatoid Arthritis

RAT
Rapid Assessment Team

RBC
Red Blood Cells

RDS
Respiratory Distress Syndrome

RLE
Right Lower Extremity

RLL
Right Lower Lobe

RLQ
Right Lower Quadrant

RML
Right Middle Lobe

ROM
Range of Motion

Rt.
Right

RUE
Right Upper Extremity

RUL
Right Upper Lobe

RUQ
Right Upper Quadrant

Rx
Prescription

SC
Sternoclavicular

SI
Sacroiliac

SICU
Surgical Intensive Care Unit

SOB
Short of Breath

stat
Immediately

Sz
Seizure

T1, T2, …
First Thoracic Vertebra, Second Thoracic Vertebra, …

T&A
Tonsillectomy and Adenoidectomy

TA
Traffic Accident

TAH
Total Abdominal Hysterectomy

TB
Tuberculosis

TC
Traffic Collision

TIA
Transient Ischemic Attack

TID
Three Times a Day

TMJ
Temporomandibular Joint

UA
Urinalysis

UGI
Upper Gastrointestinal

UNK
Unknown

UQ
Upper Quadrant

URI
Upper Respiratory Infection

US
Ultrasound

UTI
Urinary Tract Infection

VD
Venereal Disease

Vent
Ventilator

W/C
Wheelchair

WBC
White Blood Cells

XIP
In Plaster

XOP
Out of Plaster

YO
Years Old