EMD Test(EMD Test Review)Rated 100% Correct!!

1. A successful EMD should:
a. Be clear
b. Be concise
c. Use accurate speech
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

2. Which of the following can be considered part of a local EMS System?
a. Hospitals
b. Air Ambulances
c. Law Enforcement
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

3. Which of the following is a Tier 1 level of training?
a. Basic Life Support
b. Advanced Life Support
c. Aeromedical Ambulances
d. First Responders

d. First Responders

4. Advanced Life Support falls into which Tier of EMS?
a. Tier 1
b. Tier 2
c. Tier 3
d. Tier 4

c. Tier 3

5. Proximate cause shows a direct relationship between the action or inaction of the EMD and
a. The Duty
b. The Responders
c. The Injury
d. None of the above

c. The Injury

6. Medical calls for assistance normally demand a _____ standard of confidentiality.
a. Lower
b. Normal
c. Higher
d. Variable

c. Higher

7. To establish the standard of care an EMD’s behavior and conduct are judged in comparison with:
a. Others with similar training and experience
b. Local or state statutes
c. Professional standards
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

8. The two National agencies that set the standards and guidelines for EMD are:
a. NHTSA and ASTM
b. FEMA and Red Cross
c. AMA and ADA
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

a. NHTSA and ASTM

9. Objective progress reports, work descriptions and policy and procedure manuals are all examples of what type of risk management.
a. Individual
b. Agency
c. Liberal
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

b. Agency

10. To effectively utilize your local resources it is important to
a. Obtain proper information
b. Understand and use your EMD Guidecards
c. Recognize when specialty units are needed
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

11. The APCO EMD Guidecards
a. Provide key questions to help determine the nature of the incident
b. Give information on what resources to send
c. Provide medical instructions for the caller until units arrive on scene
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

12. Card Title, Response Type, Response Criteria, Vital Points Questions and the Short Report are all found on which card type?
a. All Callers Interrogation Card
b. Scripted Medical Instructions Card
c. Individual Chief Complaint Card
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

c. Individual Chief Complaint Card

13. According to the text, the most important piece of information to obtain in the All Callers Interrogation is
a. Where
b. Who
c. When
d. How

a. Where

14. The three call types in EMD are Individual Chief Complaints, Time/Life Critical Complaints and
a. Pediatric Complaints
b. Geriatric Complaints
c. Initial Complaints
d. Traumatic Complaints

d. Traumatic Complaints

15. Cardiac Arrest would be an example of a
a. Individual Chief Complaint
b. Traumatic Incident Complaint
c. Time/Life Critical Complaint
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

c. Time/Life Critical Complaint

16. The Pre-Arrival Instructions given to a caller take place during which of the three phases of dispatch?
a. Call Receiving
b. Call Dispatch
c. Post Dispatch
d. None of the above

c. Post Dispatch

17. The All Callers Interrogation Card is used in what phase of dispatch?
a. Call Receiving
b. Call Dispatch
c. Post Dispatch
d. None of the above

a. Call Receiving

18. An emotional state that prevents callers from being focused during the interrogation process is called
a. Increasing Paranoia
b. Hysteria Threshold
c. Uncommon Psychosis
d. Emotional Withdrawal

b. Hysteria Threshold

19. The ______ system controls all the body’s functions and allows for interaction with the outside world.
a. Musculoskeletal
b. Skin
c. Circulatory
d. Nervous

d. Nervous

20. The heart and arteries are parts of the
a. Musculoskeletal System
b. Nervous System
c. Circulatory System
d. Digestive System

c. Circulatory System

21. The _____ protects organs and tissue from injuries and acts as insulation.
a. Musculoskeletal System
b. Skin
c. Circulatory System
d. Nervous System

b. Skin

22. The _____ is made up of the organs necessary for reproduction, including the birth canal.
a. Male Reproductive System
b. Musculoskeletal System
c. Skin
d. Female Reproductive System

d. Female Reproductive System

23. The pharnyx and epiglottis are parts of the _____.
a. Musculoskeletal System
b. Skin
c. Circulatory System
d. Respiratory System

d. Respiratory System

24. Blood pressure, pulse and respirations are all examples of
a. Levels of consciousness
b. Vital signs
c. Signs of shock
d. None of the above

b. Vital signs

25. The highest level of consciousness is
a. Alert
b. Verbal
c. Pain
d. Unresponsive

a. Alert

26. The most dangerous level of consciousness is
a. Alert
b. Verbal
c. Pain
d. Unresponsive

d. Unresponsive

27. Shock is sometimes called
a. The silent killer
b. The core reaction
c. Symptomatic constrictions
d. The baseline vitals

a. The silent killer

28. Hypovolemic Shock occurs
a. When the heart is no longer able to develop enough pressure to circulate blood
b. With spinal cord damage
c. When the body loses large amounts of body fluids
d. As a result of a severe infection

c. When the body loses large amounts of body fluids

29. Animal bites are classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

b. Traumatic

30. Abdominal Pains are classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

a. Medical

31. Falls are classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

b. Traumatic

32. Allergic reactions are classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

a. Medical

33. Drowning is classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

c. Time/Life Critical

34. Cardiac Arrests are classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

c. Time/Life Critical

35. An Obstructed Airway is classified as which Incident Type?
a. Medical
b. Traumatic
c. Time/Life Critical
d. None of the above

c. Time/Life Critical

36. ASTM Standards require what percentage of calls to be reviewed in an EMD QA/QI Program?
a. 1% – 6%
b. 7% – 10%
c. 10% – 16%
d. 23% – 27%

b. 7% – 10%

37. Continuing Dispatch Education programs must be organized around
a. Standards of care
b. Skills practice
c. Responsibilities of the EMD
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d. All of the above

38. The two types of stress that can affect EMDS are
a. Actual and Involuntary
b. Interpreted and Constant
c. Mental and Physical
d. None of the above

c. Mental and Physical

39. A state of mental and physical exhaustion that has three phases is
a. Stress Response
b. Target Organs
c. Post Traumatic Stress
d. Burnout

d. Burnout

40. Burnout consists of the following phases Stress Arousal, Energy Conservation and
a. Exhaustion
b. Exemption
c. Depression
d. All of the above

a. Exhaustion

41. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder is characterized by which of the following?
a. Excessive concentration
b. Elation
c. Excessive excitability
d. None of the above

c. Excessive excitability

42. Critical Incident Stress Debriefing is a component of
a. Critical Incident Stress Management
b. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
c. The Exhaustion Phase
d. Cognitive Thinking

a. Critical Incident Stress Management

43. The four areas of signs and symptoms associated with excessive stress are Cognitive, Physical, Emotional and
a. Behavioral
b. Intellectual
c. Argumentative
d. Violent

a. Behavioral

44. A critical incident stress debriefing is a critique session to review what people did wrong.
a. True
b. False

b. False

45. The types of foods that EMDs eat do not affect their stress level.
a. True
b. False

b. False

46. Emergency Medical Dispatch involves the combination of telecommunications skills and medical knowledge.
a. True
b. False

a. True

47. When taking a medical call for service an EMD must diagnose the medical problem or condition being reported.
a. True
b. False

b. False

48. Law Enforcement agencies are considered part of an EMS system also.
a. True
b. False

a. True

49. All EMS calls should be answered “lights and siren”.
a. True
b. False

b. False

50. Using the EMD Guidecards can actually reduce the amount of time it takes to process a medical call for assistance.
a. True
b. False

a. True

51. EMDs should be certified as CPR Instructors.
a. True
b. False

b. False

52. Liability means that you are ultimately responsible for your actions.
a. True
b. False

a. True

53. Intent to harm is required to prove negligence.
a. True
b. False

b. False

54. Generally speaking, “Good Samaritan” Laws do not protect EMDs.
a. True
b. False

a. True

55. To reduce liability, risk management should be addressed at both the agency and individual levels.
a. True
b. False

a. True

56. A response mode is a combination of the skill of the unit dispatched (ALS or BLS) and the response configuration.
a. True
b. False

b. False

57. Familiarity with your local EMS units and their capabilities is an effective way to utilize your resources.
a. True
b. False

a. True

58. The ALL Callers Interrogation Card is used to gather information upon which to base dispatch and pre-arrival instructions.
a. True
b. False

a. True

59. The Scripted Medical Instructions Cards need to be read word for word to the caller.
a. True
b. False

a. True

60. It is not important for an EMD to be able to break through the Hysteria Threshold.
a. True
b. False

b. False

61. It is acceptable to move a victim of a traumatic incident at any time.
a. True
b. False

b. False

62. Getting a call back number will help the EMD combat situations that may rise from insufficient information.
a. True
b. False

a. True

63. An EMD should never assume a call is worse than it sounds based on the caller’s emotional status.
a. True
b. False

a. True

64. If an EMD is unfamiliar with a medical condition or symptom given by the caller they should automatically upgrade the response level of a call.
a. True
b. False

b. False

65. The digestive system is responsible for eating, digesting food and liquids and eliminating waste.
a. True
b. False

a. True

66. The Musculoskeletal System is responsible for regulation of the body’s temperature.
a. True
b. False

b. False

67. Vital signs are used by the EMD and responders to determine the severity of the patient’s condition.
a. True
b. False

a. True

68. Patients in true respiratory distress are using all their energy to breathe and tend to look exhausted as though they have been working out.
a. True
b. False

a. True

69. The best form of QA/QI is a system of random call review.
a. True
b. False

a. True

70. Successful QA/QI Programs are used to ascertain good EMD behaviors for reward and bad EMD behaviors for remediation.
a. True
b. False

a. True

71. Maintaining and improving skills in providing pre-arrival instructions is an acceptable type of continuing dispatch education.
a. True
b. False

a. True

72. Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude is grounds for EMD revocation.
a. True
b. False

a. True

73. Being convicted of driving while under the influence is grounds for refusal of EMD certification.
a. True
b. False

a. True

74. Violation of laws pertaining to medical practice and/or drugs is grounds for EMD certification refusal.
a. True
b. False

a. True

75. Handling stressful calls and the expectations that come with them can cause stress for the EMD.
a. True
b. False

a. True

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