A physician is not required to report:
Stroke
A crime punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than a year is
Misdemeanor
Professional negligence is also called
Malpractice
What should an assistive person keep in mind during their daily routine in medicine
Confidentiality
When is it permissible to release information about a patient record
When the court requests it by means of a subpoena
Under what circumstance is it permissible to release information from a patient’s records
When patient signs a consent form
Potential infectious body fluid doesn’t include
Sweat
Cleaning technique is another name for
Medical asespsis
Instruments that penetrate a patient’s skin should be
Sterile
Instruments that come in contact with only a patient’s mucous membrane should be
Disinfected
Instruments that touch only the healthy intact skin should be
Sanitized
Anything that posseses a risk to the human body or a living organism is called a
Biohazard
OSHA standard requires
A written schedule for cleaning
Treating all human blood as if it were infectious is called
Universal precautions
Standard precautions are
Used mainly in hospitals
What liquid is used in an autoclave to sterilize instruments
Distilled water
Six C’s
Client words
What suture is the largest
0-0
The position in which the patient is lying flat on their back is known as
Supine
What position is used for prrineal and vaginal area examination
Lithotomy
What position requires the examination table to be raised in the middle both ends pointing down
Proctological
Surgical procedures that require less than one day to perform with no over night stay is
Outpatient surgery
What wouldn’t be the MA’s responsibility in the physical preparing of the patient
Obtaining and prescribing medication that are not expired
In what position is used to examine the rectum, where the patient lies on the left side with the left leg sightly flexed
Sims’
What thermometer is considered the most accurate indicator of the body temp.
Rectal
The artery most common used for taking pulse
Radial
A patient’s temp. was 96.9¤f, what is the temp. in ¤c
36.1¤c
What is not a vital sign
Weight
What term means “difficulty breathing”
Dyspnea
When taking rectal temp. how long should the thermometer be left in the rectum
5 min
The absence of respiration for periods lasting 15 <
Apnea
What area of the body is the popliteal pulse taken
Knee
What is included in a patient’s vital signs
Respiration
What temperature is considered fatal
103.8¤f
What route is involved in administering a drug by placing it under the patient’s tongue and leaving it there until it dissolves?
Sublingual
What part of a prescription includes, patient name address date and the Rx symbol
Superscription
Sedative
Barbituate
Codeine is an example of what kind of drug
Narcotic analgesic
What is the most common route for administering parenteral medication (going into GI tract, non digestive system)
Injection
A prefilled syringe is called
Cartridge
What muscle is commonly used for an intramuscular injection
Vastus lateralis
(thigh)
What is the most appropriate needle gauge for a subcutaneous injection
25g
Medication applied in a patch form is called a
Transdermal
The needle gauges usually used for intravenous injections are
20-21g
Doctor orders a dose of medication at 300mg, but the only available tablet is 50mg. How many tablets will the patient take
6
Doctor orders 120mg tab, the only available amount is 30mg. How many tablets constitute a dose?
4
The most commonly used size for insulin syringe is
100 units
When a patient is vomiting, what route is the most aproprate to administer the drug?
Rectaly
A single order that is administered immediately and usually written for emergencies is known as
STAT order
Significant gaps in the quality of testing practices in physician’s offices resulted in the recent development of
Good laboratory practices
Deceitful or false portrayal of facts by word of conduct is the definition of
Fraud
A procedure manual includes
The purpose of procedures, the required equipment, revised dates
A phlebotomist misidentified a patient’s specimen for transfusion preparation. A possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patients death. If the phlebotomists’ actions result in injury, the wrongful act is
Negligence
What would be a QA procedure in a phlebotomy lab
Checking needles fit blunt tips and small barbs
An example of QA indicators are
The contamination rate for BC will not exceed the national rate
Unauthorized release of confidential patient information is called
Invasion of privacy
An example of negligence is when the phlebotomist
Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition
Civil actions involve
Legal proceedings between private party
Drawing a patient’s blood without his/her consent can result in
Assault and battery charges
A series of components that lead to infection are referred to as
Chain of infection
The pathogen responsibilities for cause of an infection is called the infectious
Agent
An individual who had little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a susceptible
Host
When the chain of infection is broken
Infection is prevented from happening
The term used to deceive an infection that infects the entire body is
Systematic
What type of precaution should be used for someone who has pulmonary tuberculosis
Airborne
The abbreviation for the virus that causes AIDS is
HIV
A person who has recovered from a particular virus and had developed antibodies against that virus is said to be
Immune
What diseases involve a blood borne pathogen
HepB, malaria, syphilis
An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is
Pertussis
A suffix is an element of a word that
Follows the root word
What word is used to describe the breakdown of red blood cells
Erythrocytosis
The balanced or “steady state” of the body
Homeostasis
Prefix meaning “outside”
Exo-
Which body organ is primarily affected in a person with pulmonary disease
Lungs
Hepatitis
Liver inflammation
The lab abbreviation PT stands for
Prothrombin time
The word root of the term oncologist means
Tumor
The word root of the medical term thoracic
Thorac/o
What term means cold
Cry/o
Which plane divides the body into equal portions
Midsagittal
When you are facing someone in normal anatomical position, at which body plane are you looking
Frontal
Which body plane divides the body into upper and lower portions
Transverse
The term”distal” means
Farthest from the point of attachment
The plantar surface of the foot is
Sole or bottom
An example of a dorsal Cavity
Spinal cavity
The heart and lung are located in the_______ cavity
Thoracic
The skeletal system produces
Blood cells
Skeletal system structure includes
Phalanges
Wasting or decreasing in size of muscle because of inactivity is called
Atrophy
The integumentary system produces
Melanin
A nervous system disorder
Encephalitis
The heat is surrounded by this fluid-filed sac called
Pericardium
The middle layer of the heat is called
Myocardium
How many chambers does the heart have
4
The heart chamber delivers oxygen – rich blood to ascending aorta
Left ventricle
The heart chamber receives blood from the systemic system
Right atrium
The heart muscle gets its blood supply from
The coronary arteries
Myocardial ischemia is a condition that results from
Partial obstruction of a coronary artery
One complete constriction and subsequent relaxation of the heart is called
Cycle
The average heart rate is
72
An abnormally fast heat rate is
Tachycardia
Lavender stopper tubes are most commonly used for
Hematology tests
Lithium heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for what test
Lytes (electrolytes)
Which additive is found in the royal blue topped tube
EDTA
Measurement of copper, a trace element, requires blood collection in the _ tube
Royal blue. (If using butterfly method, 1royalblue then 1lightblue)
This needle gauge is primarily for infant out child veins.
23g
A solution used to clean the site before routine for venipuncture is
70% isopropyl alcohol
What does the gauge on a needle mean
The diameter
The slant of a needle is the
Bevel
What stopper identifies a tube for coagulation testing
Light blue (see how fast blood clots)
Heparin prevents blood from clotting by
Inhibiting thrombin
What is the purpose of an antiglycolytic agent
Preserves glucose
To examine by touch of feel
Palpatate
Going with out food or drinking except waste for 8-12hrs is
NPO ( NOTING BY MOUTH)
The unique number assigned to a specimen requested is called
Accession number
Outpatient requisition are typical of this type
Manual
What test is commonly ordered STAT
Lytes (heart cannot function without)
If a test is ordered STAT, it means that the paint is in
Critical condition
When a test is order ASAP it means
Results are needed soon for an appropriate response
A preop patient
Will soon be in surgery
Tests are classified as routine if they are ordered
In the course of establishing a diagnosis
The term means the sand as Stat
Med emergency
Which liquid is acceptable to drink when one is fasting
Water
Which is a common test postop
H&H (hemiglobin and hematocrit)
A patient’s arm is swollen. The term for this is
Edematous
Lipemia results from
High fat content from the blood
A patient with a high degree of jaundice typically had
Yellow skin and sclerace
Lymphostasis is
Obstruction of the flow of lymph
Venous stasis
Stoppage of the normal venous blood flow
What produce breaks down red blood cells
Bilirubin
The serum or plasma of lipemic specimen appears
Cloudy white
A lipemic specimen is a clue that the patient
Was not fasting
A 12 hour fast is normal required in testing for this analyte
Triglycerides (calcium)
A blood smear
Blood spread out on a microscope slide
This is the abbreviation for a pulmonary function test
CBG
A differential test is usable to determine
Packed cell volume
Fluid in the space between the cells is called
Interstitial fluid
Holes that relate to capillary puncture are
Spiral patterns of fingerprint
CBG specimens are collected in
Narrow bore capillary tubes
Which capillary specimens should be collected seperatly
NBS
If venous blood is paved in a micro tube, it is important to
Label it venous specimen
If both parents cover dependents on their plan, the child’s primary insurance is usually determined by the birthday rule. What is the birthday rule
The parent whose birthday is earlier in the calender year is primary
Co insurance is calculated based on
% of a charge
An unintentional harmful traction to correct dosage of a drug is
An adverse effect
A new patient had not received service from the physician out from another physician of the same specialty in the same group practice
Three years
The abbreviation for PPSH is
Past, family, and/or social history
If a participating provider’s usual fee $400 and the allowed about is $350 what is written of
$50
Which is not a commonly used transmission method for HIPAA claims
Fax
Medicare part A covers
Hospital services
The form that must be signed by a patient in order for a physician to send records to another physician is
Release of information
All entries written into the medical record or notation or a ledger must be
Initiated by the person making the entry
The opening inside the skull that holds the brain is the:
a. Cranial cavity
b. Orbital cavity
c. Nasal cavity
d. Thoracic cavity
*The dorsal cavity is divided into the cranial cavity (which houses the brain)
The answer is: Cranial cavity
A crime punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than one year is known as a:
a. Misdemeanor
b. Arbitration
c. Felony
d. Mitigation
*Misdemeanors are less serious crimes than felonies and re punishable by fines or imprisonment up to a year or less.
The correct answer is: Misdemeanor
Professional negligence is also called:
a. Malfunction
b. Arbitration
c. Malice
d. Malpractice
Medical negligence is commonly known as malpractice
The correct answer is: Malpractice
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Which of the following items is the most important for assistive personnel to keep in mind during their daily routine in medical settings?
a. Burglary
b. Confidentiality
c. Privilege granted to a physician
d. Consent
*In the Standard of Care the first item the medical assistant should uphold is maintaining confidentiality
The correct answer is: Confidentiality
In which of the following situations is it permissible to release information from a patient’s records?
a. When the patient’s employer requests it
b. When an attorney requests it
c. When a court requests it by means of a subpoena
d. When the patient’s best friend requests it
*The law may require the physician to release the record when a court subpoenas it
The correct answer is: When a court requests it by means of a subpoena
Under which of the following circumstances is it permissible to release information from a patient’s records?
a. When the physician calls to request it
b. When the patient signs a release
c. When the insurance company signs a release
d. When the patient has signed a living will
*Information can be released only after a patient signs a release statement
The correct answer is: When the patient signs a release
This cavity contains the heart and lungs, among other organs.
a. Thoracic
b. Cranial
c. Orbital
d. Nasal
*The thoracic cavity contains the lungs, heart, esophagus and trachea
The correct answer is: Thoracic
Located near the back of the body, this body cavity is a continuous internal opening that includes the cranial and spinal cavities.
a. Posterior (dorsal) cavity
b. Transverse plane
c. Pelvic cavity
d. Abdominal cavity
*The dorsal cavity is divided into the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity
The correct answer is: Posterior (dorsal) cavity
This is the scrubbing of instruments with special brushes and detergents to remove blood, mucous, etc.
a. Sterilization
b. Sanitization
c. Distillation
d. Disinfection
*Sanitization is the scrubbing of instruments and equipment with special brushes and detergents to remove blood, mucous and other contaminants
The correct answer is: Sanitization
This is the process that involves a soaking or wiping process and inhibits the activity of disease-causing organisms.
a. Sterilization
b. Sanitizing
c. Disinfection
d. Treated with antiseptics
*Disinfection is the process that destroys most micro organisms; however it cannot kill all
The correct answer is: Disinfection
The process used for supplies that would come in contact with internal body tissue or an open wound. It involves the use of heat (steam) and an autoclave.
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Surgical Asepsis
d. Sanitization
*Sterilization is required for all instruments and supplies that will penetrate a patient’s skin. Sterilization usually involves an autoclave or chemical (cold) process
The correct answer is: Sterilization
You are taking vitals on a patient and they complain that they have dizziness every once in a while. What type of symptom is this?
a. Familial
b. Subjective
c. Objective
d. Social
*Subjective date is obtained from a conversation with the patient
The correct answer is: Subjective
You are taking vitals on a patient and they complain their right eye is throbbing. Their right eye is swollen and bruised. What type of symptom is this?
a. Familial
b. Subjective
c. Social
d. Objective
*Objective data is readily apparent and measurable
The correct answer is: Objective
If you are recording a patient’s height and are using centimeters, what is the conversion formula to go from centimeters to inches?
a. Mulitply by 2.5
b. Subtract 2.5 from the number
c. Divide by 2.5
d. Add 2.5 to the number
*To go from CM to inches, the formula would be __ CM ÷2.54 = Inches
The correct answer is: Divide by 2.5
You are taking the vitals of a patient with pneumonia. The patient coughs near your face. What could you have done to minimize the risk of contracting the disease?
a. Put on goggles before entering the room
b. Sterilize the examination room
c. Wash your face as soon as the incident occurs.
d. Ask the patient to look the other way while coughing
*According to Standard Precautions, the use of PPE in addition to cough etiquette includes covering mouth and providing at least 3 feet of space between persons
The correct answer is: Ask the patient to look the other way while coughing
Which of the following liquids is used in an autoclave to sterilize instruments and supplies?
a. Alcohol
b. Sterile water
c. Tap water
d. Distilled water
When filling an autoclave, distilled water is best
The correct answer is: Distilled water
Which of the following is one of the six C’s of charting?
a. Consult
b. Clerical
c. Counsel
d. Client’s words
**The six C’s of charting include client’s words, clarity, completeness, conciseness, chronological order and confidentiality
The correct answer is: Client’s words
Which suture size listed below is the thickest?
a. 1-0
b. 5-0
c. 7-0
d. 0-0
**Suture materials come in thicknesses ranging from size 11-0 (smallest) to size 7 (largest)
The correct answer is: 0-0
The patient has a history of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following tests would not be used as a screening procedure?
a. Chest x-ray
b. Colonoscopy
c. Blood work
d. ECG
*A colonoscopy is done to visualize the large intestine and also to screen for colon cancer
The correct answer is: Colonoscopy
Which plane divides the body into right and left portions?
a. Frontal
b. Transverse
c. Sagittal
d. Lateral
**A sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions
The correct answer is: Sagittal
The term meaning close to the point of attachment is:
a. Proximal
b. Distal
c. Superior
d. Medial
*Proximal means close to the point of attachment or to the trunk of the body
The correct answer is: Proximal
Which most accurately states the purpose of coding?
a. Coding identifies patients in a database
b. Coding is used to track a physician’s payments
c. Coding helps physicians with the diagnosis
d. Coding determines the reimbursement of medical fees
*The combination of diagnostic codes and procedure codes provides the basis for healthcare reimbursement
The correct answer is: Coding determines the reimbursement of medical fees
As you are taking vitals of an elderly patient, he begins to question you about his medication and possible side effects. What is the best action to take?
a. Listen and explain that the doctor is the best one to have this discussion with
b. Ignore the patient and pretend to listen
c. Listen and tell the patient you will call the pharmacy to see if there are any other options
d. Listen and advise the patient on what to take
*As part of the patient advocacy, anything that can be misconstrued as medical advice should be avoided
The correct answer is: Listen and explain that the doctor is the best one to have this discussion with
In which of the following positions, used for the examination of the rectum, does the patient lie on the left side with the left leg slightly flexed?
a. Lithotomy
b. Sims’
c. Prone
d. Dorsal Recumbent
*The Sims Position is used during anal or rectal exams
The correct answer is: Sims’
Which of the following practices is most important for maintaining medical asepsis?
a. Making sure your vaccinations are up-to-date
b. Allowing the exam room to air out after each patient
c. Washing your hands before and after each patient contact
d. Wearing gloves and goggles during all examinations
*Hand sanitizing is one of the best means of reducing the spread of microorganisms in a health care facility
The correct answer is: Washing your hands before and after each patient contact
Using a stethoscope, the artery most commonly used for taking a patient’s pulse is:
a. Apical
b. Temporal
c. Carotid
d. Radial
**The apical pulse (the heartbeat at the apex of the heart) can be heard with a stethoscope
The correct answer is: Apical
You’ve taken a patient’s temperature and recorded it as 96.9°F. Later, the physician asks you to convert this measurement to Celsius. What is the patient temperature in Celsius?
a. 21.8
b. 36.1
c. 116.8
d. 37.9
**The formula for Fahrenheit to Celsius is 96.9 (F-32) x 5/9 = ? 96.9 – 32 x 5/9 = ?
The correct answer is: 36.1
Which of the following is not considered a vital sign?
a. Weight
b. Respiration
c. Pulse Rate
d. Blood pressure
**Vital signs include temperature, pulse, respirations, blood pressure and pain
The correct answer is: Weight
Which muscle acts to abduct and extend the arm at the shoulder?
a. Deltoid
b. Bicep
c. Gluteus Maximus
d. Tricep
*The deltoid acts to abduct and extend the arm at the shoulder
The correct answer is: Deltoid
Pointing the toes downward is known as:
a. Pronation
b. Plantar flexion
c. Abduction
d. Dorsiflexion
*Pointing the toes down is known as plantar flexion
The correct answer is: Plantar flexion
Which heart valve is between the left atrium and the left ventricle?
a. Tricuspid
b. Aortic semilunar
c. Right atrioventricular
d. Bicuspid
**The bicuspid valve has two cusps and is located between the left atrium and left ventricle
The correct answer is: Bicuspid
Which of the following areas of the body is the site at which to detect the popliteal pulse?
a. Forearm
b. Foot
c. Knee
d. Ankle
*The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee
The correct answer is: Knee
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Which of the following job responsibilities has the highest risk exposure?
a. Assisting in suture removal
b. Taking a patient’s vitals
c. Drawing blood for a lab analysis
d. Collecting a urine specimen
*According to OSHA, bodily fluids include blood, semen and amniotic fluid. The employee must have access to the exposure control plan
The correct answer is: Drawing blood for a lab analysis
The total amount of blood pumped out of the heart in one minute is known as the:
a. Diastolic pressure
b. Cardiac output
c. Systemic circulation
d. Systolic pressure
*Cardiac output is the total amount of blood pumped out of the heart in one minute
The correct answer is: Cardiac output
Which route is involved in administering a drug by placing it under the patient’s tongue and leaving it there until it is dissolved?
a. Buccal route
b. Subcutaneous route
c. Transdermal route
d. Sublingual route
*Buccal is dissolved in the cheek and gum and sublingual goes under the tongue
The correct answer is: Sublingual route
Which of the following is a government-sponsored health benefits plan?
a. TRICARE
b. PHO
c. HSA
d. SSI
*TRICARE is government sponsored health benefits for active duty and retired service personnel and their families
The correct answer is: TRICARE
Which of the following is a sedative?
a. Barbituate
b. Lithium
c. Levodopa
d. Phenothiazine
*Barbituates /sedatives are commonly used together
The correct answer is: Barbituate
Codeine is an example of what kind of drug?
a. Sedative
b. Narcotic analgesic
c. Antiepileptic drug
d. Antidepressant
*Government agencies use the popular term narcotics for opioids like codeine
The correct answer is: Narcotic analgesic
Which of the following is a common route for the administration of parenteral medications?
a. Transdermal
b. Injection
c. Topical
d. Rectal
*Medication given by injection is called parenteral medication
The correct answer is: Injection
A prefilled syringe is also known as a (n):
a. Insulin syringe
b. Tuberculin syringe
c. Hypodermic syringe
d. Cartridge
*A cartridge is a small barrel pre-filled with a sterile drug
The correct answer is: Cartridge
Which of the following muscles is commonly used for intramuscular injections in the infant?
a. External oblique
b. Deltoid
c. Internal oblique
d. Vastus lateralis
*The vastus lateralis site is good because it is large and a thick muscle that is developed before the child begins to walk
The correct answer is: Vastus lateralis
What is the function of hemoglobin?
a. Simulate red bone marrow
b. Fight off infection
c. Carry oxygen from the lungs and to carry carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs
d. Help destroy bacteria, toxins and viruses
*The function of hemoglobin is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and to carry CO2 from the tissues to the lungs
The correct answer is: Carry oxygen from the lungs and to carry carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs
Medication applied in patch form is called:
a. Buccal
b. Topical ointment
c. Transdermal
d. Tine test
*A drug administered through the transdermal patch is absorbed through the skin directly into the bloodstream
The correct answer is: Transdermal
An optional health benefits program offered to persons signing up for Social Security benefits is:
a. TRICARE
b. Medicaid
c. Medicare Part A
d. Medicare Part B
*Medicare Part B is voluntary and members must pay income based premiums to enroll
The correct answer is: Medicare Part B
Which term refers to the control of bleeding?
a. Hemostasis
b. Hematocrit
c. Platelets
d. Hemoglobin
*Hemostasis is the process of forming blood clot to stop the leakage of blood
The correct answer is: Hemostasis
One example of PPE includes:
a. ID Tag
b. Face shield
c. Stethoscope
d. Scrub shirt
*Gloves, masks, eye/face shield, gowns and or lab coats make up standard PPE
The correct answer is: Face shield
An instrument used to clear a blockage is a:
a. Scalpel
b. Probe
c. Syringe
d. Retractor
**Probes are used to explore wounds or body cavities to locate or clear blockages
The correct answer is: Probe
In the bookkeeping system, things of value relating to the practice are called:
a. Debits
b. Credits
c. Liabilities
d. Assets
*An asset is anything owned by the company
The correct answer is: Assets
Accounts receivable is:
a. The amount of money a practice makes each month
b. A record of all monies due to the practice
c. Outstanding inventory bills
d. The people the practice owes money to
*Accounts receivable is the total owed to the practice but not yet received
The correct answer is: A record of all monies due to the practice
Question 50
A jagged, open wound of the skin is a/an:
a. Abrasion
b. Laceration
c. Incision
d. Puncture
*A laceration is a jagged, open wound in the skin that can extend down into the underlying tissue
The correct answer is: Laceration
You are preparing a patient for an examination when she claims that she is nauseous. She begins to vomit bright, red blood. Which PPE would be the most appropriate to wear in this situation?
a. Goggles, gown and uniform
b. Gloves, face shield, and gown
c. Face shield, gown, and booties
d. Gown, gloves and booties
*Gloves, face shield and gown are standard PPE for protection against bodily fluids
The correct answer is: Gloves, face shield, and gown
Sterile materials used to cover an incision are:
a. Drapes
b. Dressings
c. Bandages
d. Sterile strips
*Dressings are sterile materials used to cover an incision
The correct answer is: Dressings
A very busy phlebotomist misidentifies the patient when collecting a specimen for transfusion preparation. The possible misdiagnosis of blood type could cause the patient’s death. If the phlebotomist’s action results in injury, the wrongful act is called:
a. Battery
b. Assault
c. Fraud
d. Negligence
*Negligence is charged when a healthcare practitioner fails to exercise ordinary care and the patient is injured
The correct answer is: Negligence
Which of the following is a phlebotomy QA procedure?
a. Tracking all of the laboratory OSHA violations
b. Keeping a record of employee paid sick leave
c. Checking needles for blunt tips and small barbs
d. Recording chemistry instrument maintenance
*QA refers to the overall process guaranteeing quality patient care
The correct answer is: Checking needles for blunt tips and small barbs
Which of the following tests is most likely used to test for inflammation, infectious disease, and malignant neoplasms?
a. ESR
b. AST
c. Amylase
d. RBC Count
**The ESR test measures the rate at which RBS’s settle to the bottom. It is used as a diagnostic tool for inflammatory disease and cancer
The correct answer is: ESR
Unauthorized release of confidential patient information is called:
a. Failure to use due care
b. A type of negligence
c. Invasion of privacy
d. Violation of discovery
*the improper use of or a breach of confidentiality of medical records may be seen as an invasion of privacy
The correct answer is: Invasion of privacy
An example of negligence is when the phlebotomist:
a. Is unable to obtain a specimen from a very combative patient
b. Missed the vein and has to redirect twice to complete the draw
c. Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition
d. Forgets to sign out at the nurses’ station when draws are complete
*Negligence is defined as the healthcare practitioner fails to exercise ordinary care
The correct answer is: Fails to report significant changes in a patient’s condition
Civil actions involve
a. Offenses that can lead to imprisonment
b. Legal proceedings between private parties
c. Regulations established by governments
d. Violent crimes against the state or nation
Civil law involves crimes against the person
The correct answer is: Legal proceedings between private parties
Drawing a patient’s blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of:
a. Malpractice
b. Breach of confidentiality
c. Assault and Battery
d. Negligence
*Battery is an action that causes bodily harm to another. Battery may be charged for any unauthorized touching of a patient.
The correct answer is: Assault and Battery
The series of components that lead to infection are referred to as the:
a. Immune response
b. Chain of infection
c. Infection cycle
d. Pathogenic series
*The cycle/chain of infection explains how infections are transmitted
The correct answer is: Chain of infection
The pathogen responsible for causing an infection is called the infectious:
a. Agent
b. Host
c. Vehicle
d. Vector
*The infection cycle begins when the pathogen invades the reservoir host
The correct answer is: Agent
Which of the following irregularities on an ECG would be considered the most severe?
a. Tachycardia
b. V-fib
c. PVC
d. A- fib
*V-Fib is the most common cause of cardiac arrest – it is an abnormal heart rhythm
The correct answer is: V-fib
The heart’s ability to create its own electrical impulse is known as:
a. Excitability
b. Contractility
c. Conductivity
d. Automaticity
*Automaticity is the ability of the heart to initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated by an independent source
The correct answer is: Automaticity
Choose the term that refers to protection from infectious disease.
a. Immunity
b. Antigen
c. Antibody
d. Asepsis
*Protection from infectious disease is known as immunity
The correct answer is: Immunity
Which type of precautions would be used for a patient who has pulmonary tuberculosis?
a. Airborne
b. Reverse
c. Droplet
d. Contact
*Pathogens can be transmitted to a new host through the air. If contaminated droplets are inhaled diseases including influenza and tuberculosis may be contracted
The correct answer is: Airborne
The abbreviation for the virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is:
a. HCV
b. HBV
c. HIV
d. HAV
*HIV is a virus that infects and gradually destroys components of the immune system. AIDS is the condition that results from the advanced stage of this viral infection
The correct answer is: HIV
A person who has recovered from a particular virus and has developed antibodies against that virus is said to be:
a. A carrier
b. Infectious
c. Susceptible
d. Immune
*A person develops immunity by having an infectious disease caused by pathogens, subsequently the body makes antibodies to defend against the virus
The correct answer is: Immune
Which of the following would appear in the past history (PH) section of a patient’s medical history?
a. Review of symptoms
b. Insurance carrier
c. Hospitalizations
d. Chief complaint
*Past history includes childhood diseases, major illnesses, injuries and hospitalizations
The correct answer is: Hospitalizations
An example of a disease requiring droplet isolation is:
a. Rubeola
b. Varicella
c. Pertussis
d. Scabies
*Pertussis is caused by bacteria and is transmitted by direct/indirect contact
The correct answer is: Pertussis
A suffix is an element of a word that:
a. Precedes the root of the word
b. Follows the root of the word
c. Establishes its basic meaning
d. Makes pronunciation easier
*A suffix is a word element placed at the end of a word that changes the meaning of a word
The correct answer is: Follows the root of the word
What word is used to describe the breakdown of red blood cells?
a. Erythma
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Hemostasis
d. Hemolysis
*Hemolysis is the destruction of RBC’s with release of hemoglobin into plasma
The correct answer is: Hemolysis
When applying chest leads, V2 is placed:
a. At the fourth ICS, right sternal border
b. At the fifth ICS, left midclavicular line
c. Midway between V3 and V5
d. At the fourth ICS, left sternal border
*V2 is placed at the 4th intercostal space, left sternal border
The correct answer is: At the fourth ICS, left sternal border
This prefix means “outside”:
a. Exo
b. Mal
c. Dys
d. Anti
*Exo means outside or outward
The correct answer is: Exo
Which body organ is primarily affected in a person with pulmonary disease?
a. Lungs
b. Brain
c. Kidney
d. Stomach
*Pulmonology is the study and treatment of diseases of the respiratory system. The Respiratory system include the trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs and alveoli
The correct answer is: Lungs
Hepatitis means:
a. Muscle weakness
b. Kidney infection
c. Blood cell disorder
d. Liver inflammation
*Hepatitis is a viral infection of the liver that can lead to cirrhosis or death
The correct answer is: Liver inflammation
The lab abbreviation PT stands for:
a. Partial thromboplastin
b. Prenatal therapy
c. Patient temperature
d. Prothrombin time
Coagulation studies include prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
The correct answer is: Prothrombin time
The word root of the term oncologist means:
a. Study of
b. Cancer
c. Without
d. Tumor
**Onc/o – tumor – logy – study of
The correct answer is: Tumor
The word root of the medical term thoracic is:
a. Acic
b. Thorac
c. Racic
d. Oraci
*thorac – meaning chest ic – pertaining to
The correct answer is: Thorac
Which of the following word parts means “cold”?
a. Cyan
b. Hypo
c. Sub
d. Cry
**cry/o: cold
The correct answer is: Cry
As a medical assistant, you receive a weekly paycheck. Based on this information, how many pay periods do you have?
a. 52
b. 13
c. 26
d. 48
*Payroll checks are typically issued weekly, which means 52 pay periods per year. Bi-weekly would be 26 pay periods per year
The correct answer is: 52
When you are facing someone in normal anatomical position, at which body plane are you looking?
a. Sagittal
b. Transverse
c. Midsagittal
d. Frontal
*A frontal or coronal plane divides the body into anterior (frontal) and posterior (rear) portions
The correct answer is: Frontal
Which body plane divides the body into upper and lower portions?
a. Midsagittal
b. Transverse
c. Frontal
d. Sagittal
*Horizontal plane that separates the body into superior/inferior portions also called transverse
The correct answer is: Transverse
The term “distal” means:
a. Farthest from the point of attachment
b. Nearest the central portion of the body
c. To the back of the body or body part
d. Higher or above, or toward the head
*Distal refers to farther from the point of attachment
The correct answer is: Farthest from the point of attachment
The plantar surface of the foot is the:
a. Top of the foot
b. Heel portion
c. Area of the arch
d. Sole or bottom
*Acceptable areas for heel puncture is the medial/lateral area of the plantar (bottom) surface of the heel
The correct answer is: Sole or bottom
An example of a dorsal cavity is the:
a. Abdominal cavity
b. Pelvic cavity
c. Spinal cavity
d. Thoracic cavity
*the dorsal cavity contains the cranium and the spine
The correct answer is: Spinal cavity
Who completes the patient’s medical history form?
a. The patient’s immediate family
b. The patient
c. The insurance company
d. The patient, the medical assistant, and the physician
*The medical history form may be started by the patient but will require input from the medical assistant and physician
The correct answer is: The patient, the medical assistant, and the physician
If you suspect that the patient you are preparing for examination is a victim of abuse, you should:
a. Record the signs and notify the physician of your suspicions
b. Talk to the patient
c. Call the police right away
d. Record your suspicions in their chart
*Any signs of abuse and or a problem, report it to the physician
The correct answer is: Record the signs and notify the physician of your suspicions
Before you proceed with a patient interview, you should obtain:
a. Social and family history
b. Any visible injuries
c. Chief complaint
d. Signs and symptoms
*The social and family history provide the physician a background to the patient’s medical history
The correct answer is: Social and family history
Wasting or decrease in size of a muscle because of inactivity is called:
a. Uremia
b. Rickets
c. Myalgia
d. Atrophy
Atrophy is the loss of muscle mass and strength that occurs with disease
The correct answer is: Atrophy
The integumentary system produces:
a. Trypsin
b. Surfactant
c. Melanin
d. Melatonin
*Another cell type of the epidermis is the melanocyte which makes melanin
The correct answer is: Melanin
Anthropometric measurements:
a. Include vital signs
b. Are only taken in infants
c. Are not taken in adults
d. Include height and weight
Anthropometry is the science of size, proportion, weight and height
The correct answer is: Include height and weight
The heart is surrounded by a thin fluid-filled sac called the:
a. Epicardium
b. Endocardium
c. Pericardium
d. Myocardium
*A membrane called the pericardium covers the heart and the large blood vessels attached to it
The correct answer is: Pericardium
The middle layer of the heart is called the:
a. Endocardium
b. Epicardium
c. Pericardium
d. Myocardium
**The middle layer is the thickest layer of the wall and is comprised primarily of cardiac muscle – this is known as the myocardium
The correct answer is: Myocardium
How many chambers are there in the human heart?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 6
d. 1
*The heart contains 4 hollow chambers – two on the left and two on the right
The correct answer is: 4
Hyperpnea is:
a. Inability to breath during an MRI
b. Deep, gasping breaths
c. Shallow, gasping breaths
d. A low respiratory rate
**Hyperpnea is abnormally rapid, deep or labored breathing
The correct answer is: Deep, gasping breaths
Coordination of benefits means that:
a. Services are coordinated between the primary and secondary patient insurance
b. The secondary insurance is always filed before the primary insurance
c. The physician and patient coordinate health-care costs and codes
d. The codes used are coordinated between procedure and diagnostic code
*Coordination of Benefits (COB) is only applicable when the patient has multiple insurance policies
The correct answer is: Services are coordinated between the primary and secondary patient insurance
The heart muscle gets its blood supply from the:
a. Pulmonary veins
b. Carotid arteries
c. Pulmonary arteries
d. Coronary arteries
*The tissues of the heart receive their blood supply through the coronary arteries
The correct answer is: Coronary arteries
Marks on the ECG tracing caused by another source of activity are:
a. Artifacts
b. Conduction marks
c. Wandering baseline
d. Asystole
*Unwanted marks on the ECG tracing are called artifacts
The correct answer is: Artifacts
One complete contraction and subsequent relaxation of the heart is called one cardiac:
a. Diastole
b. Output
c. Cycle
d. Systole
*One heartbeat makes up one cardiac cycle
The correct answer is: Cycle
The average normal heart rate is:
a. Greater than 100 beats per minute
b. About 72 beats per minute
c. Less than 60 beats per minute
d. Greater than 81 beats per minute
*Abnormal heart rates are identified as either bradycardia (less than 60 beats) or tachycardia (greater than 100 beats)
The correct answer is: About 72 beats per minute
What group of factors is likely to contribute to blood pressure?
a. Alcohol use, education, wealth
b. Diet, health history, wealth
c. Activity level, stress, alcohol use
d. Age, activity level and occupation
*Activity, stress and alcohol use are all causes of blood pressure variations
The correct answer is: Activity level, stress, alcohol use
Lavender-stopper tubes are most commonly used to collect:
a. Chemistry tests
b. Immunology tests
c. Coagulation tests
d. Hematology tests
**According to NCCLS the lavender tube is used with EDTA/Hematology studies
The correct answer is: Hematology tests
Lithium heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for which of the following tests?
a. CBC
b. Lytes
c. Lithium
d. Protime
**Lithium heparin is an additive in electrolyte studies and arterial blood gases
The correct answer is: Lytes
Of the following options, what must happen for the practice to achieve reimbursement?
a. All the forms on the insurance claim form must be complete
b. The file must use only one diagnostic code and one procedure code
c. All types of codes must be used
d. The diagnostic code must support the procedure code
*The procedure code and the diagnostic code must match and support each other in order or a practice to receive reimbursement
The correct answer is: The diagnostic code must support the procedure code
A tympanic thermometer measures temperature:
a. Under the armpit
b. In the mouth
c. In the rectum
d. In the ear
*The tympanic membrane (the eardrum at the end of the external auditory canal) is used for instantaneous temperature measurement
The correct answer is: In the ear
A flexible spending account (FSA) is designed to:
a. Reimburse an employee for medical expense due to high deductibles
b. Be a tax-sheltered savings that can be used to pay for medical expenses In
c. Allow the patient to spend health-care money whenever desired
d. Be funded by the employee and is not subject to federal or state taxes
*The FSA is funded by the patient and is not subject to federal, Social Security or state taxes on contribution
The correct answer is: Be funded by the employee and is not subject to federal or state taxes
A solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is:
a. 70% isopropyl alcohol
b. 70% methanol
c. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
d. Providone-iodine
*The most commonly used antiseptic for routine blood collection is 70% isopropyl alcohol.
The correct answer is: 70% isopropyl alcohol
Diaphoresis is another term for:
a. Sweating
b. Low blood pressure
c. Diarrhea
d. Prolonged fever
*Could be associated with cardiovascular disorders, diaphoresis is also known as excessive sweating
The correct answer is: Sweating
Which of these instruments would a physician use to examine a patient’s throat?
a. Tuning fork
b. Scapula
c. Stethoscope
d. Laryngeal mirror
*A laryngeal mirror is used to observe the pharynx and oral cavity
The correct answer is: Laryngeal mirror
Which of the following stopper colors identifies a tube used for coagulation testing?
a. Lavender
b. Green
c. Light-blue
d. Red
**Green is used for plasma determinations in chemistry, lavender is used for whole blood and routine immunology tests, red is for serum determination in chemistry and light-blue is for coagulation determinations
The correct answer is: Light-blue
Heparin prevents blood from clotting by:
a. Binding calcium
b. Chelating thrombin
c. Activating calcium
d. Inhibiting thrombin
*Heparin prevents clotting by inhibiting the formation of thrombin
The correct answer is: Inhibiting thrombin
What is the purpose of an antiglycolytic agent?
a. It enhances the clotting process
b. It inhibits the electrolyte breakdown
c. It prevents clotting
d. It preserves glucose
*An antiglycolytic agent is a substance that prevents the breakdown of glucose
The correct answer is: It preserves glucose
To examine by touch or feel is to:
a. Ambulate
b. Anchor
c. Pronate
d. Palpate
*The physician uses palpation (touch) extensively in the general physical exam
The correct answer is: Palpate
What is the purpose of the regular physical examination?
a. To identify any disease or condition the patient may not be aware of
b. To maintain the patient’s health and prevent disease
c. To meet the needs of the insurance company
d. To keep the patient’s status as current
*A regular physical is recommended as to set a benchmark for health indicators (weight, blood pressure, etc) as well as to maintain the patient’s health and prevent disease
The correct answer is: To maintain the patient’s health and prevent disease
You want to convey an open posture while communicating with a patient. What should you do?
a. Lean back gently facing the patient
b. Lean forward and avoid eye contact with the patient
c. Lean forward in your chair facing the patient
d. Fold your arms and lean forward while looking into the patient’s eyes
*Open posture – friendliness and receptiveness. You face the other person and lean forward in the chair
The correct answer is: Lean forward in your chair facing the patient
A fixed-dollar amount the subscriber must pay or “meet” each year before the insurer begins to cover expenses is the:
a. Deductible
b. Copayment
c. Premium
d. Co-insurance
*A fixed dollar amount that must be paid by the insured for charges of providers
The correct answer is: Deductible
The horizontal flat line that separates the various waves on the ECG strip represents:
Select one:
a. An interval
b. A segment
c. The amplitude
d. The baseline
*The length of the wave or the length of the wave with a segment is known as an interval. The horizontal flat line that separates the various waves is the baseline
The correct answer is: The baseline
Which of the following tasks are considered within the scope of practice for a medical assistant?
a. Diagnosing a patient
b. Prescribing treatment for a patient
c. Collecting specimens for diagnostic treatment
d. Performing a physical examination
*The role of the medical assistant is not to diagnose, prescribe or perform an examination. The collection of a specimen fall under the scope of practice for a medical assistant
The correct answer is: Collecting specimens for diagnostic treatment
The __ codes are considered to be the most important of the CPT codes.:
a. Level II
b. E/M
c. Add-on
d. Unlisted procedure
*Evaluation and Management Codes are often considered the most important of all CPT codes because physicians in any medical specialty can use them
The correct answer is: E/M
Heptomegaly is:
a. Decreased liver function
b. Impaired liver function
c. Enlargement of the liver
d. Increased liver function
*Hepat/o – means liver and -megaly is enlargement or large
The correct answer is: Enlargement of the liver
Which term best describes “destruction by burning”?
a. Exenteration
b. Fulguration
c. Cryosurgery
d. Electrocauterization
*Electrocautery is the destruction by burning
The correct answer is: Electrocauterization
What type of cancer is the most common?
a. Sarcoma
b. Carcinoma
c. Teratoma
d. Adenoma
*Carcinoma originates from epithelial tissue and it makes up about 90% of all tumors
The correct answer is: Carcinoma
In preparation for a venipuncture or capillary stick, the medical assistant must:
a. Blow on the alcohol for quicker drying time
b. Wipe the alcohol off with dry gauze
c. Fan the alcohol with your hand
d. Allow the alcohol to air-dry
*Blowing, fanning or wiping can contaminate the site – air dry is best
The correct answer is: Allow the alcohol to air-dry
An ordered blood culture should be drawn in a:
a. Red top tube
b. Yellow top tube
c. Green top tube
d. Lavender top tube
Blood cultures are drawn in yellow top tubes or culture bottles
The correct answer is: Yellow top tube
A patient’s arm is swollen. The term used to describe this condition is:
a. Cyanotic
b. Edematous
c. Sclerosed
d. Thrombosed
Edema describes an area containing excess fluid
The correct answer is: Edematous
A female patient’s cancer has spread. Which term best describes her condition?
a. Malignancy
b. Benign
c. Mitosis
d. Metastasis
*A malignancy occurs when the cancer cells break loose and become invasive to the surrounding tissue. The actual spread of a malignant cancer to other areas of the body is called metastasis
The correct answer is: Metastasis
A patient with a high degree of jaundice typically has:
a. Edematous extremeties
b. Yellow skin and sclera
c. Bruising and petechiae
d. Hemolyzed specimens
*Too much bilirubin builds up and causes sclera of the eyes and the individual’s skin to appear yellow orange
The correct answer is: Yellow skin and sclera
Select the question that pertains to patient safety regarding blood collections.
a. “Where do they usually stick you?”
b. “Have you had this procedure before?”
c. “Have you had anything to eat or drink in the past 24 hours?”
d. “Are you allergic to anything that you know of?”
*Gloves, tourniquets, and adhesive bandages contain elements such as latex and can cause mild to severe reactions
The correct answer is: “Are you allergic to anything that you know of?”
Select the proper method of urine specimen collection that will avoid contamination.
a. Adding a preservative to the midstream container
b. Avoiding urinating directly into the urine container
c. Avoiding touching the inside of the container or the lid
d. Asking the patient to wear gloves during collection into the container
*The medical assistant must instruct the patient to avoid touching the inside of the container and the lid
The correct answer is: Avoiding touching the inside of the container or the lid
Which ECG lead is considered bipolar?
a. V4
b. aVR
c. II
d. aVF
*The bipolar lead of the 12-lead ECG are the first three leads – I, II, III
The correct answer is: II
The serum or plasma of a lipemic specimen appears:
Select one:
a. Dark yellow
b. Pink to red
c. Cloudy white
d. Foamy pink
*A specimen may appear cloudy if the patient has ingest fatty substances
The correct answer is: Cloudy white
A lipemic specimen is a clue that the patient was probably:
a. Dehydrated
b. In a basal state
c. Not fasting
d. Jaundiced
*a sample that appears lipemic is an indication that the patient was not fasting
The correct answer is: Not fasting
A 12 hour fast is normally required in testing for this analyte:
a. Bilirubin
b. Calcium
c. Triglycerides
d. Electrolytes
*Test results most critically affected in a non-fasting situation are those for glucose, cholesterol triglycerides and or lipids
The correct answer is: Triglycerides
A blood smear is:
a. Blood made from a heparinized specimen
b. Blood used to identify the types of bacteria
c. Blood collected on a special filter paper
d. Blood spread out on a microscope slide
*A drop of freshly collected blood to a prepared microscope slide is necessary for some tests.
The correct answer is: Blood spread out on a microscope slide
The patient has complained of nausea and vomiting for several days. The physician will most likely prescribe or administer:
a. A laxative
b. An antiemetic
c. An antacid
d. An antidiarrheal
*An antiemetic such as prochlorperazine will stop nausea and vomiting and can be prescribed or administered in severe cases
The correct answer is: An antiemetic
Breathing is regulated by the:
Select one:
a. Pituitary Gland
b. Thyroid
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Hypothalmus
*Breathing is controlled by the respiratory center of the brain which is located in the pons and medulla oblongata
The correct answer is: Medulla Oblongata
Gauze pads are used to:
a. Apply pressure on the venipuncture site following a blood draw
b. Provide comfort to the patient
c. Handle lab samples
d. Prevent the spread of infection
*Gauze pads or sponges are use in various clinical areas. Cotton or rayon balls may be used but are not recommended because of their tendency to stick to the site.
The correct answer is: Apply pressure on the venipuncture site following a blood draw
Whorls are related to capillary puncture are:
a. Spiral patterns of fingerprints
b. Blebs created during skin tests
c. Formations seen in blood films
d. Newborn screening blood spots
*Whorls are a spiral arrangement, as in the ridges on the finger that make up the fingerprint
The correct answer is: Spiral patterns of fingerprints
Cystitis is a(n):
a. Inflammation of the bladder
b. Obstruction of the ureter
c. Disorder of the kidneys
d. Infection of the nephritis
*Cystitis is a urinary bladder infection
The correct answer is: Inflammation of the bladder
According to the Patient Care Partnership, which of the following is a patient right?
a. To expect continuity of care
b. To waive payment if treatment is unsatisfactory
c. To participate in research without informed consent
d. to obtain information about family members’ healthcare
*In the Patient Care Partnership the patient should expect high quality medical care as well as informed involvement in the care received
The correct answer is: To expect continuity of care
We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Lidocaine is a type of:
Select one:
a. Diuretic
b. Anesthetic
c. Antibiotic
d. Antihypnotic
*Lidocaine is the most commonly used anesthetic often used as a topical gel
The correct answer is: Anesthetic
If both parents cover dependents on their plan, the child’s primary insurance is usually determined by
a. The parent whose birthday is closest to the child’s birthday is primary
b. If the mother is older than the father than she is primary
c. The father is usually older than the mother so he is primary
d. The parent whose birthday is earlier in the calendar year is primary
*Policy of the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year is primary
The correct answer is: The parent whose birthday is earlier in the calendar year is primary
Co-insurance is calculated based on a:
a. Percentage of a charge
b. A fixed charge for each visit
c. A capitation rate
d. The number of policy holders in a plan
*Co insurance is a fixed percentage of charge
The correct answer is: Percentage of a charge
An unintentional, harmful reaction to acorrectdosage of a drug is called:
a. An adverse effect
b. A manifestation
c. A late effect
d. A coexisting condition
*In an adverse effect, the patient must discontinue the medication because the negative effects outweigh the benefits
The correct answer is: An adverse effect
A new patient has not received services from the physician or from another physician of the same specialty in the same group practice for:
a. One year
b. Ninety days
c. Two years
d. Three years
*If it has been more than 3 years or if the patient has never been seen by a physician, he/she is a new patient
The correct answer is: Three years
The abbreviation for PFSH is:
a. Past, family, and/or social history
b. Patient, family, and/or systems history
c. Present, family, social and history
d. Past, family, and systems history
*Past, Family and Social history all are required to get a complete patient picture
The correct answer is: Past, family, and/or social history
You are obtaining an ECG using a 10-lead ECG machine. The patient accidently burps while the strip is running, causing an artifact on the strip. This can be identified as a:
a. Voluntary muscle movement
b. Electrical interference
c. Somatic tremor
d. Wandering baseline
*There are two types of muscle artifacts and a somatic tremor is an involuntary movement of a muscle such as a cough or a burp
The correct answer is: Somatic tremor
The P wave on the ECG strip should be:
a. After each QRS complex and upright reflection
b. Upward refection following the QRS complex
c. Downward reflection and in front of the QRS complex
d. Upright reflection and in front of the QRS complex
*Basic rhythm interpretation involves noting whether there is a consistent P wave in front of every QRS complex and that the reflection is upright
The correct answer is: Upright reflection and in front of the QRS complex
Medicare Part A covers:
a. Physician services
b. Hospital services
c. MACs
d. Prescription drugs
*Medicare Part A is the hospital benefit
The correct answer is: Hospital services
The form that must be signed by the patient, in order for a physician to send records to another physician is called:
a. Assignment of Benefits
b. Release of Information
c. ABN
d. Arbitration Agreement
*If information does not fall under TPO – written authorization must be obtained before sharing
The correct answer is: Release of Information
Hematopoiesis is:
a. Creation of new blood cells
b. The shape of red blood cells
c. Creation of fluid in the bone marrow
d. The clotting factor in a person
*Hematopoiesis is blood cell production; also known as hemopoiesis
The correct answer is: Creation of new blood cells
Which food is a good source of folate?
a. Carrots
b. Leafy green vegetables
c. Liver
d. Chicken
*Chicken is a good source of protein and carrots are an excellent source of Vitamin D. Liver is great for the B vitamins. Leafy green vegetables are a great source of folate.
The correct answer is: Leafy green vegetables
Which of the following is a clinical duty?
a. Checking for precertification for a patient
b. Obtaining medical history of a new patient
c. Calling an insurance company
d. Scheduling appointments
*Scheduling appointments and insurance tasks would be considered administrative tasks. Obtaining a medical history is considered clinical and well within the scope of practice for a medical assistant
The correct answer is: Obtaining medical history of a new patient
Empathy is the ability to:
a. Care and respect for the health and welfare of your patients
b. Lose your temper in an emergency
c. Keep you calm during an emergency
d. Feel sorry for homeless people
*Empathy is feeling with someone and sympathy is feeling for someone
The correct answer is: Care and respect for the health and welfare of your patients
Which specialist diagnoses and treats disorders of the stomach and intestines?
a. Gerontologist
b. Internist
c. Gastroenterologist
d. Podiatrist
*A gastroenterologist is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis, treatment or management of diseases related to the digestive system
The correct answer is: Gastroenterologist
You should leave some time slots open during the schedule each day to:
a. Allow enough time for the doctor to return calls
b. Allow room for patients to make their own appointments
c. Provide the staff enough time for breaks
d. Make room in the schedule for emergencies and delays
*The practice of adding buffer time to the schedule gives extra time to accommodate emergencies, walk-ins, and other demands on the provider’s schedule
The correct answer is: Make room in the schedule for emergencies and delays
In a letter, the letters “ENC.” Indicates which of the following:
a. Enclosure
b. In case you didn’t know
c. Carbon Copy
d. Entitles
*An enclosure is something that is included with a letter and it is abbreviated Enc. and it is placed two spaces down from the identification line
The correct answer is: Enclosure
The purpose of an agenda is to:
a. Communicate the summary of the meeting
b. Give an outline of topics to be discussed at an upcoming meeting
c. Send a reminder about an upcoming meeting
d. Set the tone of the meeting
*The purpose of an agenda is to outline briefly the topics to be discussed at a meeting
The correct answer is: Give an outline of topics to be discussed at an upcoming meeting
Correspondence that contains information about a patient should be marked:
a. Confidential
b. Personal
c. Urgent
d. With the patient’s name and diagnosis
*the outside of envelopes should be marked confidential when the correspondence contains information about a patient
The correct answer is: Confidential
What is an example of protected health information?
a. Insurance company mailing address.
b. Published statistics from the internet
c. First and last name associated with a diagnosis
d. Physician’s number
*Information designated by HIPAA that could be used to identify an individual including the patient’s name, address, phone number and a diagnosis associated with that person cannot be given out by any means
The correct answer is: First and last name associated with a diagnosis