What are the regulatory requirements for obtaining a dispatcher license?
(Applicant may state the general requirements, or look up for the regulation) LI 2000 Part 2.8:
The applicant for a flight operations officer licence shall be
not less than 21years of age.
a. receive an approved training course from an authorized
instructor on the knowledge areas;
b. have received an endorsement for the knowledge test
from an authorized instructor;
c. pass the required knowledge test.
d. comply with the requirements of 2.8.3 (c) & (d)
What is the definition of an “alternate airport”?
An airport at which an aircraft may land if landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable.
What is an Air Operator Certificate?
A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport operations.
What is a Controlled Flight?
Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance
Is your license required to be in your possession at all times?
No. Your FD license must be in your possession whenever you are acting as a Flight dispatcher and exercising authority in coordinating with Pilot in command for a flight operating under air commerce.
How often must dispatchers complete operating familiarization flights?
Operating familiarization flights are required every 12 calendar months.
What amount of operating familiarization flight time is required for dispatchers?
Two complete flights over routes representative of
those for which that person is assigned duties.
Ground Recurrent Training for Dispatchers shall include at least which subject areas:
(1) Aircraft-specific flight preparation;
(2) Dispatch resource management (human performance); and
(3) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods.
When is a takeoff alternate required?
If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure.
What information shall the pilot
include in his arrival report?
1.Aircraft identification
2.Departure aerodrome;
- Destination aerodrome (only in the case of a diversionary landing);
- Arrival aerodrome; and
- Time of arrival
Once you get employed at an airline what are the training and qualification requirements?
Ans: Basic Indoc- 40 hours, initial ground school, Operational Familiarization
(OF) and Competency Check.
What section of the Operations Specifications list all the authorized aircrafts of the AOC Holder?
Section E
What must an aircraft dispatcher do in terms of responsibility for operational control?
- Monitor the progress of each flight
- Deliver safety related information to the flight
- Cancel or re-dispatch the flight if it
cannot continue safely
Can a dispatcher declare an emergency?
Yes. The dispatcher should notify the PIC as soon as possible. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the PIC, they must do whatever is necessary and outlined in the Operations manual to deal with the emergency
What is the definition of Operational Control?
Operational control, with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
What are the requirements for computing the required fuel for IFR flight (turbojet)?
( 1)Fly to the first point of intended landing and execute an instrument approach;
(2) Execute a missed approach and fly from that
aerodrome to the most critical (in terms of fuel
consumption) alternate aerodrome, if required; and
(3) Fly thereafter at normal cruising speed:
for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 1,500 ft.
(450 metres) above the aerodrome, plus a reserve for
contingencies specified by the operator and approved by the Authority.
Each operator shall ensure that each takeoff alternate specified shall be located within (for two engine aircraft) –
one hour flight time at single-engine cruise speed
unless the aircraft and crew are authorised for EDTO;
A flight dispatcher will not release a flight unless he is familiar and certain the anticipated loading of the aircraft and the proposed operation will not exceed the-
- Centre of gravity limits
- Aircraft operating limitations
- Minimum performance requirements
Name at least six information that must
be contained in the Dispatch release or Operational Flight Plan
Company name; Make, model and registration number of a/c being used; Flight or trip number and date of flight; Name of flight crew member, cabin crew member; Departure aerodrome, destination aerodrome alternate aerodrome and route; minimum fuel supply (in kg, lbs, litres, gallons); type of operation (VFR/IFR); available weather reports and forecasts for the destination and alternate aerodrome; any additional weather available information that the PIC considers necessary;
What is Extended Diversion Time Operations (EDTO).
Any operation by an aeroplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater than the threshold time established by the State of the Operator.
What is Ceiling?
The lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that hides more than half of the sky, reported as Broken or Overcast.
What is considered an extended overwater operation?
A flight operated over water at a distance of more than 93km (50 NM), or 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, whichever is the lesser, away from land suitable for making an emergency landing.
Can a dispatcher delegate their authority?
Yes. May delegate the authority to sign release, but not to dispatch
What is the main characteristic that distinguishes the troposphere from the stratosphere?
The temperature lapse rate. In the troposphere, the temperature decreases with increasing altitude at an average rate of two degree Celsius per one thousand feet of altitude. In the stratosphere, there is little or no change in temperature with altitude.
What is the major source of all changes in the Earth’s weather?
Uneven heating of the Earth’s surface
What is a standard day relative to pressure and temperature?
29.92 millibars of pressure and a temperature of 15 degrees celcius at sea level.
What are some examples of the causes of temperature variations across the planet
Diurnal variation
Seasonal variation
Latitude (angle of sun exposure)
Topographical issues
Altitude effects
The tropopause is characterized by?
an abrupt change of temperature lapse rate
What effect does temperature have on aircraft performance?
As temperature increases, aircraft performance is reduced due to a decrease in air density.
What potential issues might arise when an inversion exists at an airport?
Inversions are often associated with reduced visibility and possible wind shear as an aircraft passes through the inversion layer.
What effect does temperature have on aircraft performance?
As temperature increases, aircraft performance is reduced due to a decrease in air density
Describe a low-pressure system?
Lows are areas of reduced pressure and have counterclockwise wind that flows inwards and upwards in the northern hemisphere (opposite in the southern hemisphere). These are commonly associated with poor weather.
What is a “trough”?
A trough is an elongated area of low pressure. Weather systems often develops in association with troughs.
What is a “ridge”
A ridge is an elongated area of high pressure.
What is “col”?
A col is a neutral area between high and low-pressure systems, or it is where a ridge and trough meet.
Describe a high-pressure system
Highs are areas of increased pressure and have clockwise wind that flows outward and downward in the northern hemisphere (opposite in the southern hemisphere). These are commonly associated with good weather.
How does pressure vary with altitude?
Pressure decreases as altitude increases. In the standard atmosphere the rate of decrease is 1 inch Hg per 1,000 feet.
What is “true altitude”?
True altitude is an aircraft’s height above sea level. Its also known as mean sea level (MSL).
What is “pressure altitude?
This is altitude in reference to the standard datum plane of 29.92” Hg
Why does a high density altitude reduce aircraft performance?
a) Reduce engine thrust/power
b) Reduce the amount of lift that is produced by
the wing
What is “Coriolis force”?
The Coriolis force is a phenomenon that occurs due to the rotation of the Earth that causes wind in the Northern Hemisphere to be deflected to the right.
Why is wind speed usually slower near the surface as compared to aloft?
This occurs due to friction between the terrain at the surface and the wind. Winds aloft move relatively unrestricted.
How does wind flow in relation to isobars aloft?
Winds aloft tend to flow parallel to isobars due to Coriolis force turning the wind to the right (in the Northern Hemisphere)
What is Fog?
Fog is a surface – based cloud that always forms in stable air conditions
What are the three main types of Fog and how are they formed?
- Radiation Fog: occurs when there is a surface – based temperature inversion. (mostly during
relatively calm nights and just after sunrise) - Advection Fog: forms when warm moist air
flows over a colder surface (commonly occurs
over bodies of water such as lakes or oceans) - Upslope Fog: forms when moist, stable air is gradually moved over higher ground by the wind (commonly in mountainous areas)
Name five causes of turbulence?
i. Convective currents (heating of ground
Surface)
ii. Mountain waves
iii. Wind shear
iv. Clouds
v. Inversions
vi. wake turbulence (from the aircraft)
vii. Mechanical (objects on the ground such as
trees or buildings)
What is ” CAT”?
High altitude turbulence (normally above 15,000 feet msl) not associated with cumuliform cloudiness.
When is it likely that aircraft will accumulate ice?
Anytime there is visible moisture and the temperature is near or below freezing.
What are the three types of airframe icing?
- Clear
- Rime
- Mixed
Name some dangers associated with operating in icing conditions?
i. Disrupts airflow over the wing
ii. Increase aircraft weight
iii. Reduce thrust (affects airflow over propeller or jet compressor blades)
iv. Affects probes and associated instrument
systems
What determines the type of airframe icing that will form?
The type of icing that forms is determined by water droplet size.
What ingredients and conditions are needed for thunderstorms to occur?
Moisture
Lifting force
Unstable air
What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
- Cumulus (continuous updraft as the cloud builds)
- Mature (precipitation reaching the surface)
- Dissipating (predominantly downdrafts)
Describe a warm front and the associated weather?
Warm front occurs when warm air is pushing against cooler air.
What is a “squall line”?
is a non-frontal instability line that often forms ahead of a fast moving cold front.
What is “microburst”?
Is a concentrated area of wind shear that flows downward and outward from a strong thunderstorm.
What is the “jet stream”?
The jet stream is a narrow band of strong wind, in excess of 50 knots, that occurs in the upper atmosphere.
What four conditions are indicative of moderate or worse turbulence near the tropopause?
i. Colder than standard temperatures
ii. Strong winds
iii. Inversion exists above the tropopause
iv. Jet core is at or above 34,000 feet.
What is an “air mass”?
An air mass is an area of air with similar properties, usually in terms of moisture content and/or temperature.
What are the characteristics of stable air in terms of cloud type, precipitation type, turbulence, and visibility?
Cloud type: stratiform
Precipitation type: steady
Turbulence: little or none
Visibility: poor
.
What are the characteristics of unstable air in terms of cloud type, precipitation type, turbulence, and visibility?
Cloud type: cumuliform
Precipitation type: showery
Turbulence: rough air
Visibility: good
- What is a “front”?
A front is a division line between air masses with different attributes. Cold fronts occur when cold air is pushing against warmer air. Warm fronts occur when warm air is pushing against cooler air.
Which type of front influences weather over a large geographical area – cold or warm?
warm fronts tend to spread clouds and rain over large areas than cold fronts.
What things are expected to change as a front passes?
Wind is said to always change during frontal passage, but other common changes are temperature (which gets colder following a cold front passage or warmer after a warm front passes) and pressure (which decreases until front passes, then rises)
What is depicted on Weather Depiction Chart?
The chart shows the actual sky cover, visibility restrictions, and type of precipitation at the reporting stations. In addition, the chart groups stations that are reporting VFR, Marginal VFR or IFR weather conditions.
Which stations are classified as IFR stations on the Weather Depiction Chart and how is it identified?
Stations that report a ceiling of less than 1,000 feet or a visibility of less than 3 miles are classified as IFR and included in a hatched area surrounded by a smooth line.
Which stations are classified as Marginal VFR (MVFR) stations on the Weather Depiction Chart and how is it identified?
Stations that report ceiling of 1,000 to 3,000 feet or visibilities of 3 to 5 miles are MVFR and are included in a non – hatched area surrounded by a smooth line.
Describe the Low Level Significant Prognostic Chart?
a. Low-Level Significant Prog chart: forecasts weather conditions from the the surface to the 400 millibar level (about 24,000 feet). The upper two panels of the Low-Level significant wx prognostic chart are the 12-hour and the 24-hour significant wx prog charts. These two charts forecasts areas of MVFR and IFR wx as well as areas of moderate or greater turbulence.
The lower two panels are the 12-hour and the 24-hour surface prog charts. These forecast frontal positions and areas of precipitation.
What is a Constant Pressure chat?
This is a chart created from information collected mostly from radiosondes (weather balloons). These are chats that indicate the height of pressure contour in meters.
What does closely spaced isotachs means on a Constant Pressure analysis charts?
when there is a large change in wind speed over a short distance.
What is an “isotach”?
An isotach is a line connecting areas of equal wind speed aloft.
What is an “isotherm”?
An isotherm is a line connecting areas of equal temperature aloft.
What is a Radar Summary Chart?
It shows the types of precipitation echoes and it indicates their intensity, trend, tops and bases
What is a TAF?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast – a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within five status miles (sm) of the the center of the airport’s runway complex (terminal).
What is a “METAR”?
An aviation routine weather report. These are the staple regular surface weather reports used by aviation operations. Observations are made by computer systems or human observers at National weather service facilities, in control towers, or at flight service stations.
What is a “SPECI”?
Aviation Selected Special Weather Report – an unscheduled report taken when any specific criteria are observed during the interim period between the hourly reports. Contains all data element found in a METAR plus additional plain language information
Decode the following METAR:
KDFW 291453Z 35004KT 10SM SCT110 19/12 A3003 RMK AO1 SLP118 VIRGA DSNT S-SW MOV N
METAR for Dallas Ft. Worth
Observation made at 29th at 1453 zulu. Winds from 350 degrees at 4 knots and visibility at 10 sm. Scattered clouds at 11,000 feet with a temperature of 19°C and dew point of 12° C. Altimeter setting of 30.03″Hg
Remarks: no precipitation discriminator, sea level pressure was 1011.8 mb and there was virga beyond 10 sm in the sky to the south clockwise southwest moving north.
What is the ceiling in the following METAR:
KDFW 151453Z 00000KT 10SM CLR 16/10 A3007
At least 12,000 ft AGL
Wind Aloft?
Winds aloft is a forecast of specific atmospheric conditions in terms of wind and temperature at certain altitudes, typically measured in feet (ft) above mean sea level (MSL). The forecast is specifically used for aviation purposes.
SIGMETS/ AIRMETS?
AIRMET, or Airmen’s Meteorological Information, is a concise description of weather phenomena that are occurring or may occur along an air route that may affect aircraft safety.
SIGMET, or Significant Meteorological Information, is a weather advisory that contains meteorological information concerning the safety of all aircraft. There are two types of SIGMETs – convective and non-convective.
What are NOTAMS? Why are they important
Time critical aeronautical information of either a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications that receives immediate dissemination. NOTAM information could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or aerodrome primary runway closures, taxiways, ramps, obstructions, communications, airspace, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS etc. and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
Do aircraft have a maximum crosswind landing limitation?
No. The crosswind figure is only a demonstrated landing value, based upon test flights.
What is the effect of contamination on takeoff and landing performance?
Reduced performance due to aircraft control, drag, hydroplaning, braking
What is visibility? What are some causes of reduced surface visibility?
Visibility is a measure of the opacity of the atmosphere.
Strong surface winds, snow, blowing dust, fog, heavy precipitation, pollution.
What are some causes of turbulence?
Thunderstorm activity, mountain wave activity, clear air turbulence, low altitude frontal windshear and low altitude convective windshear.
Define the following terms:
V1 – critical engine speed, or decision speed. Engine failure below this speed results in an aborted takeoff, above it, the takeoff continues
VR – rotation speed. The speed at which the aircrafts assume the takeoff attitude.
V2 – takeoff safety speed. Simply, the best one-engine operative angle of climb speed to clear takeoff obstacles.
VMCG – minimum control speed on the ground with one engine inoperative and takeoff power on the other.
What are the four maximum takeoff weight limitations?
- MTOW based upon the aircraft structural limit
- MTOW based upon the runway limit
- MTOW based upon the climb limit
- MTOW based on upon landing
How many cargo doors are installed on the B737? On what side of the aircraft are they?
Two cargo doors, one forward of the wing and one aft of the wing. They are both located on the right side.
When do the passenger overhead oxygen masks automatically deploy?
They will deploy if the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet (or if manually deployed by the flight crew).
Name four external lights available on the B737?
(i) Position Lights,
(ii) Strobe Lights,
(iii) Anti-collision lights
(iv) wheel well lights
(v) Logo lights.
What are uses of bleed air on the aircraft?
Air conditioning/heat
Pressurization
Engine starts
Hydraulic system reservoir pressurization
Potable water reservoir pressurization
Engine cowl and wing thermal ice protection
TAT probe
What sources can supply bleed air?
Engines
APU
External air (ground only)
How does the pressurization system works?
Bleed air is supplied by the engines (or APU) to the cabin. An outflow valve modulates to maintain the necessary pressure/cabin altitude. This is normally done automatically, but can be done manually by the flight crew.
What is the purpose of the outflow valve?
The outflow valve modulates to maintain the desired cabin pressure. The outflow valve is located on the underside of the aircraft near the tail
Which cargo compartments are pressurized?
All cargo areas are pressurized.
Which is the recommended cargo hold to use for carrying live animals?
The forward hold has better temperature control (heat) and therefore it is the preferred location for live cargo.
What surfaces/locations are protected from ice accumulation?
Wing (except for portion of leading edge closest wing tip)
Engine cowl inlets
Flight deck windows
Probes/sensors (Pitot, TAT, and Angle of Attack vanes)
What is an HF radio?
A high frequency (HF) radio is used for long – range communication when aircraft are beyond VHF radio range. Not all operators have HF radios installed.
What is “SELCAL?
Selective calling (SELCAL) is a means to “page” individual aircraft so that they are aware that ATC or dispatch is trying to reach them without having to constantly monitor a specific frequency. SELCAL can be linked to either VHF or HF radios (or both)
What are the primary flight controls?
The ailerons (roll), rudder (yaw), and elevators (pitch)
What is the purpose of spoilers/speed brakes?
Flight spoilers consist of panels on the upper surface of the wing that rise to disrupt airflow. These are used in flight to slow the aircraft down and to increase its rate of descent. They also extend to assist in banking the aircraft. On the ground, four more panels raise to assist in slowing the aircraft on landing or during an aborted takeoff. This system normally automatically actuates upon touchdown.
How might inoperative auto-speed brakes (spoilers) affect dispatch?
Because of their positive effects on landing performance (and aborted takeoff performance) this will likely affect the maximum landing and takeoff weights that will be available for flight.
What is TCAS?
Traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS) is an avionics component that notifies the flight crew of proximate air traffic. TCAS also displays the location of this traffic, warns of potential conflicts, and gives collision avoidance procedures. In some references, TCAS stands for traffic collision avoidance system.
What is the “FDR”?
The flight data recorder (FDR) details critical flight information, which can be accessed for analysis following a flight event or accident.
What is a “CVR”?
A cockpit voice recorder is a device that records voices and sounds via microphones in the cockpit. This information is typically only accessed after an aircraft accident.
How many fuel tanks are installed in the aircraft?
Three: the number one (left wing), the number two (right wing), and the center
Describe how fuel is normally distributed to the engines.
Fuel is normally fed from the center tank first, then from the wing tanks.
How many hydraulic systems are installed on the aircraft?
There are three hydraulic systems: system A, system B, and the standby system.
What things might affect runway limit weight?
Runway length
Field conditions (wet, slippery, or contaminated)
Temperature
Flap setting
Runway slope
Wind
Barometric pressure
Engine bleed configuration
Anti-ice system use
Inoperative systems (such as anti-skid)
Have the applicant describe BOW (Basic Operating Weight) and ZFW (Zero Fuel Weight)?
a) Basic Operating Weight is the basic weight of an aircraft including the crew, all fluids necessary for operation such as engine oil, engine coolant, water, unusable fuel and all operator items and equipment required for flight but excluding usable fuel and the payload.
b) Zero fuel weight can be defined as the empty weight of the airplane, plus the weight of the unusable fuel, plus the maximum allowable payload (passengers, cargo, and crew). Any weight added to the airplane past the zero fuel weight must be in the form of fuel.
Can an aircraft be dispatched at a weight that will cause it to be above a maximum landing weight?
NO
What is a VOR?
A Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Radio. The omni-range signal allows the airborne receiver to determine the bearing to and from the station, and the DME
What is DME
A transponder-based radio navigation technology that measures distance by timing the propagation delay of the VHF radio signal
What is Area Navigation (RNAV)?
A method of air navigation that allows an aircraft to choose any course within a network of navigation beacons, rather than navigating directly to and from the beacons. This can conserve flight distance, reduce congestion, and allow instrument flight plans into airports without beacons.
How is civil airport depicted on an enroute chart?
On both Jeppesen and FAA charts, these are shown as circles with tick marks extending from them.
On an enroute chart, what is the difference between a solid triangle (intersection) and a hollow triangle?
The solid triangle (intersection) is a compulsory reporting point. Flight crews must report their position to ATC when passing these points when not in radar contact (such as in remote areas) or when requested by ATC.
What is a “SID”?
A Standard Instrument Departure (SID) is a published departure route typically used at busy airports. When this exists, it is wise to file them as part of the flight plan route.
What is a “precision approach”?
This is an approach that provides both lateral (LNAV) and vertical (VNAV) guidance. Examples include ILS, some LDA, LNAV/VNAV GPS, and LPV GPS approaches.
What is a “non-precision approach”?
This is an approach that only provides lateral (LNAV) guidance. Examples include VOR, localizer only, SDF, NDB, and LNAV GPS approaches
What is a “MAP”?
A missed approach point (MAP) is the location at which a flight crew must either decide to land or go around. For precision approaches, this is normally about ½ SM from the runway. For non-precision approaches, the location of the MAP varies depending upon the type of approach.
What is a “DA”?
Decision Altitude (DA) (read on the aircraft altimeter) at which a flight crew must make the decision to land or go around when using a precision approach.
- What is “DH”?
Decision Height (DH) is the altitude above the ground (runway/touchdown zone) when the aircraft is at the DA. For example, an airport has a touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) of 500 feet MSL. An approach to this runway has a DH of 200 feet. Therefore the DA would be 700 feet (500+200). In this case, the flight crew would decide to land/go missed when their altimeter read 700 feet. At that time they would be 200 feet above TDZE.
What is a “STAR”?
A standard terminal arrival route (STAR) is a published arrival route to busy terminal environments. Dispatchers should plan to use these where available.
What is meant by the term “controlled airspace” ?
This is the airspace in which IFR traffic is subject to air traffic control. Controlled airspace includes class A, B, C, D, and E airspace areas.
What is an “HSI”?
A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) is a cockpit instrument that combines a course deviation indicator (CDI) and a heading indicator.
What is a “VSI”?
A vertical speed indicator (VSI) is a cockpit instrument that tells pilots how fast they are climbing or descending in feet per minute.
What is Dispatch Resource Management?
The philosophy that Dispatchers should utilize all available resources to plan and monitor flights.
What are some resources that dispatchers can use to ensure they conduct flights in the safest and most thorough manner possible.
Fellow Dispatchers, management, air traffic control, weather reports/forecasts, weather imagery, computer flight planning software, computer flight monitoring equipment, the flight crew, maintenance personnel, airport operations personnel, and all related publications.
What are some ways to contact a flight once it is airborne under normal conditions?
Radio (company frequencies)
Selective calling (SELCAL)
Aircraft communications addressing and reporting system (ACARS)
What is aeronautical decision making (ADM)?
Aeronautical decision making is a systematic approach to decision making and risk assessment in aviation in order to choose the best course of action.
What documents are required to be kept following the completion of a flight?
Load Manifest
Dispatch release
Flight Plan
How long must the aforementioned records be kept?
Three months
What manual provides dispatchers with the various duties and responsibilities that apply to them?
Company Operations Manual
What is an “AFM”
An aircraft flight Manual (AFM) contains all of the data necessary for crews to operate their aircraft, such as checklists and performance information.
What is a “DDG”?
A dispatch deviation guide is a dispatcher-oriented MEL. DDGs essentially provide the same data, but are focused on the effects of aircraft defects on the dispatchability of the flight.
How long can a Category C item be inoperative?
Category C items can be inoperative for 10 consecutive calendar days (120 hours)
What is Controlled Airspace?
A generic term that covers the different classification of airspace (Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace) and defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.
What are the ATC separation minimums?
East is odd, FL230, FL250, etc. West is even, FL240, FL260, etc.
What is a “redispatch” or a “rerelease”?
These terms refer to situations in which an aircraft is intending to go to a far away destination, but is originally released to a closer airport. As the aircraft approaches the closer destination, the fuel status (and other issues) is evaluated. If the aircraft is capable of continuing on to the further destination, its is redispatch/rereleased to go on. This must be planned ahead of departure and cannot be improvised.
What should dispatchers reference to ensure a redispatch/rerelease can be conducted?
Two hours prior to arrival at the redispatch/rerelease point, the dispatcher should evaluate weather, ground facilities, and the status of destination and alternate airports. This data should be conveyed to the PIC.
Have the applicant describe destination alternative selection and when it’s required.
An Alternative airport is required, except if within one hour of estimated time of arrival, weather reports and/or forecasts shows the ceiling will be equal to or exceed 2,000 feet above the airport and visibility is equal to or better than 3 SM
Have the applicant describe when a take-off alternate is listed.
Whenever the airport of departure is reporting weather below landing minimums for that airport.
Have the applicant describe landing minimums for the destination airport?
No person may take off an aircraft under IFR or begin an IFR or over-the-top operation unless the latest weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that weather conditions at the estimated time of arrival at the next airport of intended landing will be at or above authorized IFR landing minimums.
Have the applicant explain Pre-Departure Clearances.
Pre-Departure Clearances are a way for ATC to communicate IFR clearances to airline pilots and dispatchers without time-consuming voice communication. When ATC transmits the clearance, it’s sent to the airline’s dispatch center. And once it gets to dispatch, the clearance is automatically relayed to the airplane as well. That way, the pilots and the dispatcher have a copy of the clearance.
Where is the preferred routing information found?
Preferred routing information are issued by Ghana AIP
Have the applicant describe certain features of the high altitude enroute chart?
High altitude en-route chart provides detailed information useful for instrument flight, including information on radio navigation aids (navaids) such as VORs and NDBs, navigational fixes (waypoints and intersections), standard airways, airport locations, minimum altitudes.
Have the applicant explain the considerations when calculating the fuel requirements?
Forecasted winds and weather, air traffic delays, the conduct of one instrument approach and one missed approach, and any other delay factors.
What is the definition of a “diversion”?
A diversion is an occurrence when an aircraft lands at an airport other than the originally intended destination
What is an “alternate airport?
This is an airport authorized for use if landing at the original destination is not possible. Alternate airports authorized for use by an air carrier are listed in OPSPECS.
What is a “refueling airport”?
This is an airport authorized for use as a refueling stop only (no on/off loading of payload or passengers is permitted). Refueling airports authorized for use by an air carrier are listed in OPSPECS.
Can an aircraft operate in controlled airspace under IFR without filing an IFR flight plan?
NO
What are some situations that require an amended flight release?
Changes to the tail number, route of flight, required fuel, required alternates
Communications procedures and requirements?
There should be two way communication, or another means of communication must exist between the aircraft and dispatch/flight control throughout the duration of the flight.
How long must communication records between the company and flight be kept?
30 days
What information is required to be on a release?
a) Weather reports and forecasts
b) Aircraft identification number
c) Trip number
d) Airports of operation (departure, destination, alternatives, intermediate stops).
e) Type of operation(VFR or IFR)
f) Minimum Fuel.
g) For ETOPS flights, the diversion time for ETOPS.
How long must copies of the release and flight plan be kept?
A minimum of 3 months
Develop an abnormal /emergency procedure scenario and present it to the applicant?
a) Mechanical emergency (engine failure or fire).
b) Aircraft is unable to determine its position(Navigation system failure)
c) Aircraft is overdue by more than 30 minutes and location or status of aircraft is unknown
d) Aircraft reports a distress condition.
e) Insufficient fuel remains to reach the destination or other suitable alternate
f) Aircraft is deviating from its planned route and / or altitude without explanation.
g) Known or suspected hijack.
h) Any other threat to flight operations applicable to the aircraft.
Can a dispatcher declare an emergency and when would that occur?
Yes. Dispatchers can declare an emergency anytime a flight is in imminent danger or is overdue.