Florida Public Adjuster State Test 2023 Questions and Answers (Verified Answers)

Florida No-Fault Tort Exemption
Those who comply with the law are granted limited immunity from suits of others through PIP coverage.

4 Exceptions to Tort Exemption(Threshold of No-Fault)

  1. Significant and Permanent loss of bodily function.
    2.Permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement.
    3.Significant and Permanent scarring or disfigurement.
    4.Death

What does NFIP stand for?
National Flood Insurance Program

Form SR-22
Drivers Convicted of DUI or a traffic felony over the prior 3 years are required to have 100/300/50 coverage or a certificate of self insurance of $350,000.

Contents of a CGL Contract
1.Declarations Form
2.Common Policy Conditions Form

  1. One of:
    A.Occurrence Form
    B.Claims Made Form
    4.Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion Endorsement.

Declarations of a CGL Contract(4)
1.Named Insured(including address)
2.Policy Period
3.Premium
4.Limits of Coverage

7 Common CGL Conditions
1.Cancellation(30 Days by insurer option, 10 Days By no payment).
2.Changes
3.Examination of Books
4.Inspections and Surveys
5.Premiums
6.Transfer
7.Nuclear Endorsement

CGL Coverage A
Bodily Injury and Property Damage Insuring Agreement

The 3 Conditions that define work as “completed”
1.When all work called for in the contract is completed.
2.When all work to be done at the site has been completed if one contract calls for work at more than one site.
3.When that part of the work done at a job site has been put to its intended use by any person or organization other than another contractor or subcontractor.

Occurance
An accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same general harmful conditions.

accident
Sudden, unexpected event

The Difference between “Occurance” and “Claims Made” CGL Coverages
The Coverage Trigger:
The Occurance Form applies to BI and PD regardless of any later time at which the claim is made.
The Claims-Made Form applies only to BI and PD that occurs on or after the “Retro-Active date”

Retro-Active Date
The date on which the coverage legally began.

Basic Extended Reporting Period for CGL
60 Days after expiration

Why is the term “Coverage Trigger” misleading?
Because it intends to refer to the time period during which the insurance contract is in effect.

Umbrella
Covers Excessive Liability

A Homeowners Policy consists of(3 components):
1.Declarations
2.One of 6 Homeowners forms
3.Mandatory and optional endorsements

If a unit is co-owned, May one co-owner be insured as the renter(HO-4)?
Yes

What are the two main divisions of a Home Owners Form?
Section I-Property
&
Section II-Liability

4 Subsections of Section I of a Property Coverage Policy

  1. Coverages
    2.Perils Insured Against
    3.Exclusions
    4.Conditions

Who determines how much HO-6 coverages a Condominium Owner needs?
The Association

Homeowners Coverage A
“Dwelling” covers the dwelling building and structures attached; also construction materials and supplies on or adjacent to the premises.

Homeowners Coverage B
“Other Structures” covers private structures on the residence premises that are not attached to the main dwelling.

4 Examples of “Other Structures” Per Coverage B of a Homeowner’s policy(book gives 5)
1.Detached Garage.
2.Guest House.
3.Fence
4.Tennis Court
5.Storage Building

Homeowner’s Coverage C
“Personal Property” covers Property, wherever it is located, that is owned or used by “an Insured”.

Homeowners Coverage D
“Loss of Use” covers increases over normal living costs if damage from a covered Peril makes the residence unfit for occupancy.

What is the standard limit for Homeowners Coverage B?
10% of the amount Insured for Coverage A and may not be increased or decreased.

What is the standard amount for Coverage C
50% of Coverage A.

What is the standard limit of Homeowner’s Coverage D for: HO-2, HO-3 & HO-5?
30% Coverage A

How many Perils are listed as “General Exclusions” in your textbook?
9

What is the most important Condition that has direct impact on Homeowners Coverage?
Loss Settlement

When might “Loss Settlement” cover buildings under Coverages A & B to Full Replacement Cost?
If the limit of Insurance at the time of Loss is equal to 80% or more of the replacement value of the building.

Statute that requires that when Property is Insured for replacement cost is deemed a total loss, the full replacement cost without reservation or holdback of depreciation must be paid.
627.7011

627.7011
Statute that requires that when Property Insured for replacement cost is deemed a total loss, the full replacement cost without reservation or holdback of depreciation must be paid.

Four Additional Homeowners Coverages

  1. Claims Expense
  2. First Aid Expenses
  3. Damage to Property of Others
  4. Loss Assessment

Does Hurricane Coverage Occur on a Per Occurrence or an Annual Basis
An annual basis

What if there is more than one applicable deductible?
Only the highest deductible applies.

What must the Insured do if they wish to completely reject Windstorm Coverage?
Hand write “I DO NOT WANT THE INSURANCE ON MY (HOME/MOBILE HOME/CONDOMINIUM UNIT) TO PAY FOR DAMAGE FROM WINDSTORMS OR HURRICANES. I WILL PAY THOSE COSTS. MY INSURANCE WILL NOT.”

How much notice must the insurer give the insured of non-renewal of a homeowner’s Policy?
120 Days

4 Elements of a Valid Contract?
1.A manifestation of assent to its terms by parties who make the contract.
2.A sufficient consideration (value or payment) for each promise.
3.Legal Capacity of the parties to contract.
4.Legal Subject matter.

Insurance
A contract whereby one undertakes to indemnify another or pay or allow a specified amount or a determinable benefit upon determinable contingencies.

4 Elements of an Insurance Contract
D.I.C.E.

1.Declarations
2.the Insuring Agreement
3.Exclusions
4.Conditions

Example of Subrogation
Insurance Company pays the victim and collects for the DUIer or liable party of any sort.

Example of Severability
Tom and Eva are insured for liability of injury. Tom intentionally injured someone(intention voiding coverage for Tom), Eva is still covered.

Valued Policy Law
The value of the property is agreed to as part of the policy.

Coinsurance
A policy for less than the entire value of the insured property and cover pro-rata whether or not other insurance exists. 80% actually means (pro-rata share)/80%

Beginning statement of a liability insurance policy
Insurer agrees “to pay on behalf of the insured all sums the insured becomes legally obligated to pay as damages” or equivalent wording.

Three Ways in which the limits to a liability insurance policy Insuring Agreement can be expressed?
1.single limit
2.split limit
3.Aggregate limit

2 Types of Tort Liability
1.Negligent Liability(Unintentional)
2.Strict Liability(Intentional)

What is the difference between Common Law and Statute Law?
Common Law is based on stare decisis, whereas statutory law is explicit with a statute number.

What are the two broad classifications of damages that a plaintiff can seek in an action for money damages?
1.Compensatory
2.Punitive

Two main defenses against Negligence

  1. Assumption of Risk
    2.Comparative Negligence

Why is it common to have the attorney’s name on the settlement draft?
Because should the insurer pay over the money solely to the claimant, the attorney may sue the company for the fee.

Contracts wherein the parties are of unequal bargaining power are called?
Contracts of Adhesion

What is the rule of law’s attempt to counter balance a contract of Adhesion?
To have any ambiguities resolved in favor of the insured.

Two types of Waivers
1.Explicit
2.Implied

Statute 627.409
Statute covering misrepresentation by the insured. Only a defense for the insurer if they didn’t know and it would have affected the coverage offer.

How long does a residential property policy have to be in effect to hold the insured immune to 627.409(fraud by insured)
90 Days

What does “OIR” stand for?
Office of Insurance Regulation

What is the OIR’s role?
To examine the qualification of insurance companies seeking to do business in this state.

3 Types of Adjusters
1.Staff Adjusters
2.Fee Adjusters
A.Independent Adjusters
B.Bureau Adjusters
3.Public Adjusters

Company or Staff Adjusters
Salaried Employees under the supervision of the insurer.

Fee Adjusters
Offer their services on a Fee for Service Basis including Bureau Adjusters and Independent Adjusters

Bureau Adjusters
Serve National Insurance Firms

What is the difference between a Bureau Adjuster and an Independent Adjuster
A Bureau Adjuster is an employee of the insurer and an Independent Adjuster is an Independent Contractor

A Public Adjuster
Aside from attorneys, Public Adjusters are the only Adjusters who legally represent the rights of the insured.

6 Responsibilities of the Public Adjuster
1.Evaluate
2.Substantiate
3.Determine values
4.Negotiate
5.Recommend(upgraded insurance)
6.Re-Open Claims

626.8796
Public Adjuster Fraud Statement

How long must a Public Adjuster wait after an event that leads to a claim to contact the claimant?
48 hours. (626.854(13))

What format must the advertisement disclaimer be in?
Bold caps, but no specific type size. :-)(626.854(7))(b))

What must Public Adjuster Contracts Contain regarding fraud by insured
Felony Warnings (626.8796) is the requirement for the Public Adjuster. 817.234 is the felony, 775.082, 775.083 & 775.084 are the punishments.

What is the limit to the Public Adjuster’s share of a re-opened claim
20% (626.854(10)(a)).

How long does the client have to cancel the Public Adjuster’s Contract
3 Business Days

How long must the Public Adjuster keep his written estimate of the claimant’s Loss.
5 years

If a time consuming process to resolution is more lucrative, may the Public Adjuster loan the client an advance on the claim?
No. (626.854(8)).

Can the Public Adjuster acquire an interest in Salvaged Property, for example as payment for Services?
Not without written consent and a signed affidavit. (626.854(11))

Insurer’s 3 Goals when handling a claim

  1. Comply with the Contract
  2. Control Costs
  3. Cultivate Good Customer Relations

3 Basic Claims Handling activities?

  1. Investigate
    2.Evaluate
    3.Negotiate

5 Technical Expertise for a successful negotiation
1.The Insurance Contract
2.Reparable from replacement requiring damages.
3.Law
4.Insurer’s goals
5.Computer Estimating Systems being utilized by the insurance industry.

Duration of the statute of limitations to claim windstorm damage.
3 years (627.70132)

5 Questions to establish the contract coverage
1.Did a covered Peril Occur?
2.When?
3.Were there more than one?
4.Which one was the proximate cause?
5.Was there a mix of covered and uncovered losses?

5 Ways to appraise damages
1.Survey and Estimate of Determination
2.Acceptance of Cost or Quality shown by records.
3.Actual repair or replacement
4.Sale of Salvage
5.Appraisal(after 2 parties have failed to agree).

7 Settlement and Release Options
1.Full release Settlement
2.Open Ended Release
3.Payment of PD, BI pending
4.No Release
5.Advanced Payment
6.Structured Settlement
7.Rehabilitation, including provisions for rehabilitative treatment of the claimant.

What is called when 2 or more contracts cover the same claim and have to pay proportionate amounts?
Apportionment

What are the principles that guide apportionment to avoid controversy that could delay adjustment called?
Guiding Principles

What is the maximum injury to a minor that can be settled out of court, preferably with both parents.
$15,000 (statute 744.387)

A contract by whereby the person executing the instrument gives up a right, claim or privilege to the person against whom it might have been demanded or enforced is called a:
Release

What must a release be supported by to be a binding contract?
Valuable Consideration

5 Practices that the Insured are protected from under the “Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act.”
1.failing to act promptly
2.denying claims without reasonable investigation
3.failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled thereto
4.failure to explain claim denials in writing
5.failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures, such as keeping accurate records of complaints.

The Department requires each adjusting form and each of it’s branches to designate an Adjuster to be responsible for the supervision of all individuals within an adjusting firm. This individual is called the:
Primary Adjuster(626.8695)

How long do Insurance Companies have to acknowledge Claims?
14 Days(627.70131)

How long do Insurance Companies have to pay or deny property claims?
90 Days

7 Ethics to the code of Ethics

  1. No negotiating with an attorney’s client.
  2. No misleading in any way.
    3.No legal advice
    4.No special releases, fill in the blanks only
    5.No exploiting incapacitated clients
    6.Advise the client of rights under the contract and by the state.
    7.Act with no bias.

6 Rights of the Insured

  1. Acknowledgement in 14 Days
  2. Approval or denial in 30 Days
  3. Full payment as applicable in 90 Days
    4.Free Mediation
    5.a neutral evaluation of a sinkhole claim
    6.Availability of assistance from the department of consumer services

What does the Homeowners Flood Insurance Affordability Act of 2014 do?
Allows private carriers to write off four different types of Flood Coverages.

FAJUA
Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association

FIGA
Florida Insurance Guaranty Association

Citizens Property Insurance
Residual Property Insurance

FRPCJUA
Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association. Merged with FWUA to become Citizens

FWUA
Florida Windstorm Underwriting Association. Merged with the FRPCJUA as Citizens.

The insurer and insured agree to a specific value of insured item
Agreed Value Policies

Someone who has care, custody or control of another’s property
Bailee

Claim filed by policy holder against his _
First Party Claim

When a person who entrusts another with an object and it results in injury to someone can be held liable for the injury to someone. Can be held liable for the injury i.e. Firearm or DWI
Negligent Entrustment

Hazard that results from a conscious decision made by an insured to participate in a manner or behavior more likely to result in a loss because they have insurance
Moral Hazard

Used to provide temporary insurance coverage until an insurance policy can be written
Binder

Required by lenders to guarantee that outstanding loans against a job are paid upon completion
Completion Bonds

The section of an insurance policy identifying the insured, endorsements, coverages, limits, and premiums
Declarations

Policyholder cannot transfer the policy to someone else without written permission from their insurance company
Assignment

An instance, behavior or environment that increases the likelihood of a loss on an insured item
Hazard

Actual cause or source of an incidence of destruction, injury, or loss
Peril

An insurance company organized and domiciled outside the US
Alien

When there is an unbroken chain of events between an occurrence and a loss, then the loss is part of the original occurrence
Proximate Cause

Is proximate cause of all subsequent damages
Original Occurance

An individual who contracts with an adjusting firm as an independent contractor and handles claims for the insurance companies
Independent Adjuster

Action or practice of the insured party is permitted to continue because any defense against a continuation of said action or practice has been waived by the insurer
Estoppel

Operate for profit, collect premiums, reserve a portion of premiums to pay claims
Commercial Insurers

Any person who investigates or adjusts losses on behalf of either an insurer or a self-insured
Independent Adjuster

The result of an insured’s tort or wrongdoing. Consequences of a loss or amount or type of losses suffered
Damages

Requires the insured to insure the named property for a specific amount of insurance as required by the insurance company
Agreed Value

Physical harm to tangible property caused by peril (loss to property or person in which a covered peril is the proximate cause of damage or destruction)
Direct loss

The entity that is the “recipient” to the Principal
Obligee

Insurance contracts are written on a take it or leave it basis to the policy owner.
Adhesion

Event or circumstance that causes damage
Occurance

Coverage provides for payment of losses if civil authority denies access to the insured premises due to a covered peril
Civil Authority

Voluntary relinquishment of a known legal right
Waiver

An insurer domiciled outside the state where it writes insurance
Foreign

A state officer who administers the state’s insurance laws and regulations
Commissioner

Used as a promise to accept a bid if awarded to a company
Bid bond

Damaged property an insurer takes over to reduce their loss after paying a claim
Salvage

Factual statements upon which an insurance policy is based
Representations

A contract between two parties that offer the consumer little to no leeway to negotiate the terms of the contract
Contract of adhesion

Publication in any media by the insured about goods or services
Advertisements

Also known as Absolute Liability, based on the theory of the duty of making something sage that is inherently dangerous
Strict Torts

A house, structure, also referred to as a “primary risk”
Dwelling

Condition enforced by the courts to do something bound under law or in a contract
Strict Torts

Amount of loss paid by the policy holder
Deductible

Violation of an agreement between a seller and buyer in reference to the condition, content, quality, or title of an item sold
Breach of Warranty

Compensation, reparation
Indemnify

Provides property coverage on a contractor’s interest in equipment intended for permanent installation while it is being transported, unloaded, and installed
Installation Floater

A beneficiary of a contract only as a result of the First Party’s negligence
Third Party

Reinsurance agreement where the insurers involved will pay claims in direct relationship with the % of the risk that they are insuring
Quota Share

Sharing the cost of replacement
Risk Sharing

A legal action filed by one or more persons on behalf of themselves and others having an identical interest in the alleged wrongdoing
Class-Action

A specific risk or cause of loss covered by an insurance policy, such as fire, windstorm, flood, theft, etc.
Peril

Dangers in a store, warehouse, or office; circumstances of risks and perils determine who is responsible for _
Premises Liability

A loss or risk the policy doesn’t cover
Exclusions

Technique used to transfer the risk of a person, business, or organization in another through the use of a two-party contract
Insurance

A legal two-party document describing the relationship between the insured and the insurance company
Indemnity Contract

Legal document that makes some person responsible for damages their actions or products cause regardless of any fault on their part
Strict Liabilty

The intention to withhold relative information about the risk from the insurance company
Concealment

A subset of the claims function whereby suspicious losses are investigated separately from the normal claims adjusters’ activities
Special Investigations Unit

An insurer takes no action upon realizing material changes in a contract
Implied Waiver

Acts committed without negligence but result in damages
Intentional Tort

Willful and illegal sinking of a ship at sea or its cargo
barratry

Covers physical damage as well as liability and tends to be very broad in coverage
Commercial Inland Marine

Single insurance for only one kind of property at only one location of an insured
Specific Coverage

Legislative Acts or Laws
Statutes

The insurance company to which the risk is transferred to by the contract
Second Party

Hazards on private property that might attract trespassing such as swimming pools or trampolines
Attractive Nuisance

An approximate calculation of amount, extent, quality, magnitude, position, degree or worth of something
Estimages

Insurance company assesses, mitigates, and monitors the items of risk that potential customers want to insure
Risk management

Granting the privileges and licensing in a state based on having a license in another state that is deemed equivalent by the granting state
Reciprocity

Specific protection in an insurance policy
Coverage

An individual holding a license under the authority of the State
Licensee

Means any solid, liquid, gaseous or thermal irritant or contaminant including smoke, vapor, soot, fumes, acids, alkalis and chemicals
Pollutants

A package insurance policy that combines both property and casualty coverages into a single policy
Homeowners policy

Legal term applying the third party claims meaning ” to pay back or to make whole”
Indemnification

An agreement by one party, the guarantor to answer to a 3rd person for the debt of default of a responsible party called the Principal
Surety bonds

The necessary increase in living expense resulting from a loss by a covered peril, and incurred by the insured
Additional Living Expense (ALE)

The replacement cost of like kind and quality at the time of loss, less a reasonable amount of depreiciation
Actual cash value

Physical condition that increases the change of loss
Physical Hazard

Openness to loss or damage
Exposure

Any changes that broaden coverage on the edition of the policy that the insured holds will automatically apply without premiums
liberalization cluse

Bonds that protect an employer form losses by an employee
fidelity bonds

A combination of property and liability coverages of two or more separate policies in one premium
Package policy

Fire that is not contained in the vessel in which it was set. Example:
Hostile Fire

Written agreement attached to a policy to add or subtract insurance coverage
Endorsement

Covers a variety of issues including lease of premiums, easements, sidetrack agreements and elevator maintenance agreements.
Insured contract

The act o taking responsibility through agreement for something that person may not be legally liable
Assumption of liability

Only applies to business income coverage and not to the extra expense coverage
Actual cash value (bi)

The value of the property is decreased or reduced due to damage but the property still remains some value and can be used
Diminution of value

Depreciation that is initially held back, then disbursed after proof of repairs being performed to bring property back to whole
Recoverable depreciation

Economic loss that arises as a consequence of the direct or physical loss
indirect loss

A statement made regarding the extent of the claim, it may be requested in accordance with the conditions of the policy
Proof of loss

Tangible property other than the products or work produced
impaired property

Works upon the principal that the more times an event is repeated, the more predictable the outcome of a specific event
Law of Large Numbers

To access the eligibility of a customer to receive their products, decide how much coverage the client should receive, and how much they should pay for it.
Underwriting

Actual cost of replacing property due to a covered peril with property of like kind and quality without depreciation
replacement cost

Exaggerating an otherwise legitimate claim for profit
Soft Fraud

Unincorporated association of members in which each member insures the other members
Reciprocal insurance exchange

An Agreement and
Policy

An ongoing assurance made by one party to another that certain facts :
Warranty

Method whereby the insurer pays the amount of each claim for each risk up to a limit determined in advance, and the re-insurer pays the amount of the claim above that specified limit
Exxcess of loss

A person who voluntarily gives up possession of the property
bailor

One of the earliest forms of insurance
Ocean Marine

An insurance adjuster who works primarily outside of an office and often meets personally with the public
Field Adjuster

Purposefully setting fire to property. Not covered under the policy if the act is committed by the insured
Arson

The attempt, by an applicant to deceive an insurance company
Misrespresentation

Personal property that is not part of the dwelling or structure
Contents

An individual that is used when a claim has been questioned by either the insured or the insurer, an unbiased part is required to resolve the dispute
Umpire

Amount an insurer will have to pay an insured to meet the promises outlined in the insurance contract, reduction in value of insured item
loss

An addition, deletion or change to a legal document or policy
Amendment

The section of an insurance policy identifying the insured, endorsements, coverages, limits and premiums
The Declarations page

Reinsureance agreement where the insurers involved will pay claims in direct relationship with the % of the risk they are insuring
Co-insurance

Financial investment or financial dependency that an individual or business has in a person or property
Insurable interest

Failure to use the care that a reasonable and prudent person would have used under that same or similar circumstance
Negligence

“Insurer” has an obligation to pay covered loss, “insured” has no obligation
Unilateral insurance contract

Uninsurable because of the possibility of either loss or gain in the risk
Speculative Risk

The depreciation from the total Replacement Cost due to age, use and condition. The resulting dollar amount is Actual Cash Value
Non-recoverable Depreciation

626.854 (3)
A public adjuster may not give legal advice or act on behalf of or aid any person in negotiating or settling a claim relating to bodily injury, death, or noneconomic damages.

626.854 (5)
A public adjuster may not directly or indirectly through any other person or entity solicit an insured or claimant by any means except on Monday through Saturday of each week and only between the hours of 8 a.m. and 8 p.m. on those days.

626.854 (6)
An insured or claimant may cancel a public adjuster’s contract to adjust a claim without penalty or obligation within 3 business days after the date on which the contract is executed or within 3 business days after the date on which the insured or claimant has notified the insurer of the claim, whichever is later. The public adjuster’s contract must disclose to the insured or claimant his or her right to cancel the contract and advise the insured or claimant that notice of cancellation must be submitted in writing and sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or other form of mailing that provides proof thereof, to the public adjuster at the address specified in the contract; provided, during any state of emergency as declared by the Governor and for 1 year after the date of loss, the insured or claimant has 5 business days after the date on which the contract is executed to cancel a public adjuster’s contract.

626.854 (7)
It is an unfair and deceptive insurance trade practice pursuant to s. 626.9541 for a public adjuster or any other person to circulate or disseminate any advertisement, announcement, or statement containing any assertion, representation, or statement with respect to the business of insurance which is untrue, deceptive, or misleading.

626.854 (7) (a)
The following statements, made in any public adjuster’s advertisement or solicitation, are considered deceptive or misleading:

  1. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim when the policyholder does not have covered damage to insured property.
  2. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim by offering monetary or other valuable inducement.
  3. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim by stating that there is “no risk” to the policyholder by submitting such claim.
  4. A statement or representation, or use of a logo or shield, that implies or could mistakenly be construed to imply that the solicitation was issued or distributed by a governmental agency or is sanctioned or endorsed by a governmental agency.

626.854 (7) (B)
For purposes of this paragraph, the term “written advertisement” includes only newspapers, magazines, flyers, and bulk mailers. The following disclaimer, which is not required to be printed on standard size business cards, must be added in bold print and capital letters in typeface no smaller than the typeface of the body of the text to all written advertisements by a public adjuster:
“THIS IS A SOLICITATION FOR BUSINESS. IF YOU HAVE HAD A CLAIM FOR AN INSURED PROPERTY LOSS OR DAMAGE AND YOU ARE SATISFIED WITH THE PAYMENT BY YOUR INSURER, YOU MAY DISREGARD THIS ADVERTISEMENT.”

626.854 (8)
A public adjuster, a public adjuster apprentice, or any person or entity acting on behalf of a public adjuster or public adjuster apprentice may not give or offer to give a monetary loan or advance to a client or prospective client.

626.854 (9)
A public adjuster, public adjuster apprentice, or any individual or entity acting on behalf of a public adjuster or public adjuster apprentice may not give or offer to give, directly or indirectly, any article of merchandise having a value in excess of $25 to any individual for the purpose of advertising or as an inducement to entering into a contract with a public adjuster.

626.854 (10)(A)
If a public adjuster enters into a contract with an insured or claimant to reopen a claim or file a supplemental claim that seeks additional payments for a claim that has been previously paid in part or in full or settled by the insurer, the public adjuster may not charge, agree to, or accept from any source compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value based on a previous settlement or previous claim payments by the insurer for the same cause of loss. The charge, compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value must be based only on the claim payments or settlement obtained through the work of the public adjuster after entering into the contract with the insured or claimant. Compensation for the reopened or supplemental claim may not exceed 20 percent of the reopened or supplemental claim payment. In no event shall the contracts described in this paragraph exceed the limitations in paragraph (b).

626.854 (10) (b)
A public adjuster may not charge, agree to, or accept from any source compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value in excess of:

  1. Ten percent of the amount of insurance claim payments made by the insurer for claims based on events that are the subject of a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor. This provision applies to claims made during the year after the declaration of emergency. After that year, the limitations in subparagraph 2. apply.
  2. Twenty percent of the amount of insurance claim payments made by the insurer for claims that are not based on events that are the subject of a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor.

626.854 (10) (c)
Insurance claim payments made by the insurer do not include policy deductibles, and public adjuster compensation may not be based on the deductible portion of a claim.

626.854 (10) (d)
Any maneuver, shift, or device through which the limits on compensation set forth in this subsection are exceeded is a violation of this chapter punishable as provided under s. 626.8698.

626.854 (11)
Each public adjuster must provide to the claimant or insured a written estimate of the loss to assist in the submission of a proof of loss or any other claim for payment of insurance proceeds. The public adjuster shall retain such written estimate for at least 5 years and shall make the estimate available to the claimant or insured, the insurer, and the department upon request.

626.854(12)
A public adjuster, public adjuster apprentice, or any person acting on behalf of a public adjuster or apprentice may not accept referrals of business from any person with whom the public adjuster conducts business if there is any form or manner of agreement to compensate the person, directly or indirectly, for referring business to the public adjuster. A public adjuster may not compensate any person, except for another public adjuster, directly or indirectly, for the principal purpose of referring business to the public adjuster.

626.854 (13)
A company employee adjuster, independent adjuster, attorney, investigator, or other persons acting on behalf of an insurer that needs access to an insured or claimant or to the insured property that is the subject of a claim must provide at least 48 hours’ notice to the insured or claimant, public adjuster, or legal representative before scheduling a meeting with the claimant or an onsite inspection of the insured property. The insured or claimant may deny access to the property if the notice has not been provided. The insured or claimant may waive the 48-hour notice.

626.854 (14)
The public adjuster must ensure that prompt notice is given of the claim to the insurer, the public adjuster’s contract is provided to the insurer, the property is available for inspection of the loss or damage by the insurer, and the insurer is given an opportunity to interview the insured directly about the loss and claim. The insurer must be allowed to obtain necessary information to investigate and respond to the claim.

626.854 (14) (a)
The insurer may not exclude the public adjuster from its in-person meetings with the insured. The insurer shall meet or communicate with the public adjuster in an effort to reach agreement as to the scope of the covered loss under the insurance policy. The public adjuster shall meet or communicate with the insurer in an effort to reach agreement as to the scope of the covered loss under the insurance policy. This section does not impair the terms and conditions of the insurance policy in effect at the time the claim is filed.

626.854 (14) (b)
A public adjuster may not restrict or prevent an insurer, company employee adjuster, independent adjuster, attorney, investigator, or other person acting on behalf of the insurer from having reasonable access at reasonable times to any insured or claimant or to the insured property that is the subject of a claim.

626.854 (14) (c)
A public adjuster may not act or fail to reasonably act in any manner that obstructs or prevents an insurer or insurer’s adjuster from timely conducting an inspection of any part of the insured property for which there is a claim for loss or damage. The public adjuster representing the insureds may be present for the insurer’s inspection, but if the unavailability of the public adjuster otherwise delays the insurer’s timely inspection of the property, the public adjuster or the insureds must allow the insurer to have access to the property without the participation or presence of the public adjuster or insureds in order to facilitate the insurer’s prompt inspection of the loss or damage.

626.854 (15)
A licensed contractor under part I of chapter 489, or a subcontractor, may not adjust a claim on behalf of an insured unless licensed and compliant as a public adjuster under this chapter. However, the contractor may discuss or explain a bid for construction or repair of covered property with the residential property owner who has suffered loss or damage covered by a property insurance policy, or the insurer of such property, if the contractor is doing so for the usual and customary fees applicable to the work to be performed as stated in the contract between the contractor and the insured.

626.854 (16)
A public adjuster shall not acquire any interest in salvaged property, except with the written consent and permission of the insured through a signed affidavit.

626.854 (17)
A public adjuster, a public adjuster apprentice, or a person acting on behalf of an adjuster or apprentice may not enter into a contract or accept a power of attorney that vests in the public adjuster, the public adjuster apprentice, or the person acting on behalf of the adjuster or apprentice the effective authority to choose the persons or entities that will perform repair work in a property insurance claim or provide goods or services that will require the insured or third-party claimant to expend funds in excess of those payable to the public adjuster under the terms of the contract for adjusting services.

626.854 (18)
Subsections (5)-(17) apply only to residential property insurance policies and condominium unit owner policies as described in s. 718.111(11).

626.854 (19)
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person, except an attorney at law or a public adjuster, may for money, commission, or any other thing of value, directly or indirectly:

626.854 (19) (a)
Prepare, complete, or file an insurance claim for an insured or a third-party claimant;

626.854 (19) (b)
Act on behalf of or aid an insured or a third-party claimant in negotiating for or effecting the settlement of a claim for loss or damage covered by an insurance contract;

626.854 (19) (c)
Advertise for employment as a public adjuster; or

626.854 (19) (d)
Solicit, investigate, or adjust a claim on behalf of a public adjuster, an insured, or a third-party claimant.

Under a dwelling broad or special form, what is the maximum that would be paid for “loss of use”?
20% of the Dwelling Coverage

Under a dwelling (DP-2 or DP-3) policy, what is the maximum % that would be paid for ALE?
20%

626.854 (3)
A public adjuster may not give legal advice or act on behalf of or aid any person in negotiating or settling a claim relating to bodily injury, death, or noneconomic damages.

626.854 (5)
A public adjuster may not directly or indirectly through any other person or entity solicit an insured or claimant by any means except on Monday through Saturday of each week and only between the hours of 8 a.m. and 8 p.m. on those days.

626.854 (6)
An insured or claimant may cancel a public adjuster’s contract to adjust a claim without penalty or obligation within 3 business days after the date on which the contract is executed or within 3 business days after the date on which the insured or claimant has notified the insurer of the claim, whichever is later. The public adjuster’s contract must disclose to the insured or claimant his or her right to cancel the contract and advise the insured or claimant that notice of cancellation must be submitted in writing and sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, or other form of mailing that provides proof thereof, to the public adjuster at the address specified in the contract; provided, during any state of emergency as declared by the Governor and for 1 year after the date of loss, the insured or claimant has 10 business days after the date on which the contract is executed to cancel a public adjuster’s contract.

626.854 (7)
It is an unfair and deceptive insurance trade practice pursuant to s. 626.9541 for a public adjuster or any other person to circulate or disseminate any advertisement, announcement, or statement containing any assertion, representation, or statement with respect to the business of insurance which is untrue, deceptive, or misleading.

626.854 (7) (a)
The following statements, made in any public adjuster’s advertisement or solicitation, are considered deceptive or misleading:

  1. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim when the policyholder does not have covered damage to insured property.
  2. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim by offering monetary or other valuable inducement.
  3. A statement or representation that invites an insured policyholder to submit a claim by stating that there is “no risk” to the policyholder by submitting such claim.
  4. A statement or representation, or use of a logo or shield, that implies or could mistakenly be construed to imply that the solicitation was issued or distributed by a governmental agency or is sanctioned or endorsed by a governmental agency.

626.854 (7) (b)
For purposes of this paragraph, the term “written advertisement” includes only newspapers, magazines, flyers, and bulk mailers. The following disclaimer, which is not required to be printed on standard size business cards, must be added in bold print and capital letters in typeface no smaller than the typeface of the body of the text to all written advertisements by a public adjuster:
“THIS IS A SOLICITATION FOR BUSINESS. IF YOU HAVE HAD A CLAIM FOR AN INSURED PROPERTY LOSS OR DAMAGE AND YOU ARE SATISFIED WITH THE PAYMENT BY YOUR INSURER, YOU MAY DISREGARD THIS ADVERTISEMENT.”

626.854 (8)
A public adjuster, a public adjuster apprentice, or any person or entity acting on behalf of a public adjuster or public adjuster apprentice may not give or offer to give a monetary loan or advance to a client or prospective client.

626.854 (9)
A public adjuster, public adjuster apprentice, or any individual or entity acting on behalf of a public adjuster or public adjuster apprentice may not give or offer to give, directly or indirectly, any article of merchandise having a value in excess of $25 to any individual for the purpose of advertising or as an inducement to entering into a contract with a public adjuster.

626.854 (10) (a)
If a public adjuster enters into a contract with an insured or claimant to reopen a claim or file a supplemental claim that seeks additional payments for a claim that has been previously paid in part or in full or settled by the insurer, the public adjuster may not charge, agree to, or accept from any source compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value based on a previous settlement or previous claim payments by the insurer for the same cause of loss. The charge, compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value must be based only on the claim payments or settlement obtained through the work of the public adjuster after entering into the contract with the insured or claimant. Compensation for the reopened or supplemental claim may not exceed 20 percent of the reopened or supplemental claim payment. In no event shall the contracts described in this paragraph exceed the limitations in paragraph (b).

626.854 (10) (b)
A public adjuster may not charge, agree to, or accept from any source compensation, payment, commission, fee, or any other thing of value in excess of:

  1. Ten percent of the amount of insurance claim payments made by the insurer for claims based on events that are the subject of a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor. This provision applies to claims made during the year after the declaration of emergency. After that year, the limitations in subparagraph 2. apply.
  2. Twenty percent of the amount of insurance claim payments made by the insurer for claims that are not based on events that are the subject of a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor.

626.854 (10) (c)
Insurance claim payments made by the insurer do not include policy deductibles, and public adjuster compensation may not be based on the deductible portion of a claim.

626.854 (10) (d)
Any maneuver, shift, or device through which the limits on compensation set forth in this subsection are exceeded is a violation of this chapter punishable as provided under s. 626.8698.

626.854 (11)
Each public adjuster must provide to the claimant or insured a written estimate of the loss to assist in the submission of a proof of loss or any other claim for payment of insurance proceeds. The public adjuster shall retain such written estimate for at least 5 years and shall make the estimate available to the claimant or insured, the insurer, and the department upon request.

626.854 (12)
A public adjuster, public adjuster apprentice, or any person acting on behalf of a public adjuster or apprentice may not accept referrals of business from any person with whom the public adjuster conducts business if there is any form or manner of agreement to compensate the person, directly or indirectly, for referring business to the public adjuster. A public adjuster may not compensate any person, except for another public adjuster, directly or indirectly, for the principal purpose of referring business to the public adjuster.

626.854 (13)
A company employee adjuster, independent adjuster, attorney, investigator, or other persons acting on behalf of an insurer that needs access to an insured or claimant or to the insured property that is the subject of a claim must provide at least 48 hours’ notice to the insured or claimant, public adjuster, or legal representative before scheduling a meeting with the claimant or an onsite inspection of the insured property. The insured or claimant may deny access to the property if the notice has not been provided. The insured or claimant may waive the 48-hour notice.

626.854 (14)
The public adjuster must ensure that prompt notice is given of the claim to the insurer, the public adjuster’s contract is provided to the insurer, the property is available for inspection of the loss or damage by the insurer, and the insurer is given an opportunity to interview the insured directly about the loss and claim. The insurer must be allowed to obtain necessary information to investigate and respond to the claim.

626.854 (14) (a)
The insurer may not exclude the public adjuster from its in-person meetings with the insured. The insurer shall meet or communicate with the public adjuster in an effort to reach agreement as to the scope of the covered loss under the insurance policy. The public adjuster shall meet or communicate with the insurer in an effort to reach agreement as to the scope of the covered loss under the insurance policy. This section does not impair the terms and conditions of the insurance policy in effect at the time the claim is filed.

626.854 (14) (b)
The insurer may not exclude the public adjuster from its in-person meetings with the insured. The insurer shall meet or communicate with the public adjuster in an effort to reach agreement as to the scope of the covered loss under the insurance policy. The public adjuster shall meet or communicate with the insurer in an effort to reach agree

626.854 (14) (c)
A public adjuster may not act or fail to reasonably act in any manner that obstructs or prevents an insurer or insurer’s adjuster from timely conducting an inspection of any part of the insured property for which there is a claim for loss or damage. The public adjuster representing the insureds may be present for the insurer’s inspection, but if the unavailability of the public adjuster otherwise delays the insurer’s timely inspection of the property, the public adjuster or the insureds must allow the insurer to have access to the property without the participation or presence of the public adjuster or insureds in order to facilitate the insurer’s prompt inspection of the loss or damage.

626.854 (15)
A licensed contractor under part I of chapter 489, or a subcontractor, may not adjust a claim on behalf of an insured unless licensed and compliant as a public adjuster under this chapter. However, the contractor may discuss or explain a bid for construction or repair of covered property with the residential property owner who has suffered loss or damage covered by a property insurance policy, or the insurer of such property, if the contractor is doing so for the usual and customary fees applicable to the work to be performed as stated in the contract between the contractor and the insured.

626.854 (16)
A public adjuster shall not acquire any interest in salvaged property, except with the written consent and permission of the insured through a signed affidavit.

626.854 (17)
A public adjuster, a public adjuster apprentice, or a person acting on behalf of an adjuster or apprentice may not enter into a contract or accept a power of attorney that vests in the public adjuster, the public adjuster apprentice, or the person acting on behalf of the adjuster or apprentice the effective authority to choose the persons or entities that will perform repair work in a property insurance claim or provide goods or services that will require the insured or third-party claimant to expend funds in excess of those payable to the public adjuster under the terms of the contract for adjusting services.

626.854 (18)
Subsections 5-17 only apply to homeowners and condominium policies

626.854 (19)
Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person, except an attorney at law or a public adjuster, may for money, commission, or any other thing of value, directly or indirectly:
(a) Prepare, complete, or file an insurance claim for an insured or a third-party claimant;
(b) Act on behalf of or aid an insured or a third-party claimant in negotiating for or effecting the settlement of a claim for loss or damage covered by an insurance contract;
(c) Advertise for employment as a public adjuster; or
(d) Solicit, investigate, or adjust a claim on behalf of a public adjuster, an insured, or a third-party claimant.

There are several important statutory requirements pertaining to contracts made by public adjusters:
Must state the type of claim, including an emergency claim, non-emergency claim or supplemental claim.
Requires the signatures of all named insureds.
If the signatures of all named insureds are not available, the public adjuster must submit an affidavit signed by the available named insureds attesting that they have authority to enter into the contract and settle all claim issues on behalf of the named insureds.
An unaltered copy of the contract must be remitted to the insurer within 30 days after execution. This means the contract provided to the insurer must also contain the agreed upon fee percentage.

True or False: Both mediation and sinkhole neutral evaluation are non-binding. Neither the insured nor the insurance company is legally obligated to accept the outcome of the mediation conference.
True

The __ is intended for use by parties who are beginning the process of filing suit against an insurer, when a party feels they have been damaged by specific acts of the insurer. The Notice is intended to meet a portion of legal requirements set forth in Section 624.155, Florida Statutes, which requires a party to file Notice with both the insurer and the Department of Financial Services (DFS) at least 60 days prior to bringing an action against the insurer. The DFS does not involve itself in the pre-suit negotiations or communications related to Notices as such actions are not within the scope of its statutory authority.
Civil Remedies Notice

Mediation Statute 627.7015
The department shall adopt by rule a property insurance mediation program to be administered by the department or its designee. The department may also adopt special rules which are applicable in cases of an emergency within the state. The rules shall be modeled after practices and procedures set forth in mediation rules of procedure adopted by the Supreme Court. The rules shall provide for:(a) Reasonable requirement for processing and scheduling of requests for mediation.(b) Qualifications, denial of application, suspension, revocation of approval, and other penalties for mediators as provided in s. 627.745 and the Florida Rules for Certified and Court-Appointed Mediators.(c) Provisions governing who may attend mediation conferences.(d) Selection of mediators.(e) Criteria for the conduct of mediation conferences.(f) Right to legal counsel.
(5) All statements made and documents produced at a mediation conference shall be deemed to be settlement negotiations in anticipation of litigation within the scope of s. 90.408. All parties to the mediation must negotiate in good faith and must have the authority to immediately settle the claim. Mediators are deemed to be agents of the department and shall have the immunity from suit provided in s. 44.107.
(6)(a) Mediation is nonbinding; however, if a written settlement is reached, the policyholder has 3 business days within which the policyholder may rescind the settlement unless the policyholder has cashed or deposited any check or draft disbursed to the policyholder for the disputed matters as a result of the conference. If a settlement agreement is reached and is not rescinded, it is binding and acts as a release of all specific claims that were presented in that mediation conference.
(b) At the conclusion of the mediation, the mediator shall provide a written report of the results of mediation, including any settlement amount, to the insurer, the policyholder, and the policyholder’s representative if the policyholder is represented at the mediation.
(7) If the insurer fails to comply with subsection (2) by failing to notify a policyholder of its right to participate in the mediation program under this section or if the insurer requests the mediation, and the mediation results are rejected by either party, the policyholder is not required to submit to or participate in any contractual loss appraisal process of the property loss damage as a precondition to legal action for breach of contract against the insurer for its failure to pay the policyholder’s claims covered by the policy.
(8) The department may designate an entity or person to serve as administrator to carry out any of the provisions of this section and may take this action by means of a written contract or agreement.
(9) For purposes of this section, the term “claim” refers to any dispute between an insurer and a policyholder relating to a material issue of fact other than a dispute:(a) With respect to which the insurer has a reasonable basis to suspect fraud;(b) When, based on agreed-upon facts as to the cause of loss, there is no coverage under the policy;(c) With respect to which the insurer has a reasonable basis to believe that the policyholder has intentionally made a material misrepresentation of fact which is relevant to the claim, and the entire request for payment of a loss has been denied on the basis of the material misrepresentation;(d) With respect to which the amount in controversy is less than $500, unless the parties agree to mediate a dispute involving a lesser amount; or(e) With respect to a windstorm or hurricane loss that does not comply with s. 627.70132.

Code of ethics (FAC 69B-220.201)
The work of adjusting insurance claims engages the public trust. An adjuster shall put the duty for fair and honest treatment of the claimant above the adjuster’s own interests in every instance. … (b) An adjuster shall treat all claimants equally.

Florida Insurance Guaranty Association
establishes and maintains a service-oriented operation for processing covered claims of insolvent members. FIGA is a nonprofit corporation created by the Florida Legislature in 1970. FIGA services pending claims by or against Florida policyholders of member insurance companies which become insolvent and are ordered liquidated.

The Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association originally created by this statute shall be known as the Citizens Property Insurance Corporation
The corporation shall provide insurance for residential and commercial property, for applicants who are entitled, but, in good faith, are unable to procure insurance through the voluntary market.

Business auto coverage form Section 3 Physical Damage Coverage
We will pay for “loss” to a covered “auto” or its equipment under:
a. Comprehensive Coverage From any cause except: (1) The covered “auto’s” collision with another object; or (2) The covered “auto’s” overturn.
b. Specified Causes Of Loss Coverage Caused by: (1) Fire, lightning or explosion; (2) Theft; (3) Windstorm, hail or earthquake; (4) Flood; (5) Mischief or vandalism; or (6) The sinking, burning, collision or derailment of any conveyance transporting the covered “auto”.
c. Collision Coverage Caused by: (1) The covered “auto’s” collision with another object; or (2) The covered “auto’s” overturn.

Part D – Coverage for damage to your auto
the insurance company agrees to pay an amount in excess of your deductible for direct and accidental loss to your covered car or any other car specified in the agreement. Thus, it pays for damage or theft to your car.

627.70131 Insurer’s duty to acknowledge communications regarding claims; investigation.
(1) Upon an insurer’s receiving a communication with respect to a claim, the insurer shall, within 14 calendar days, review and acknowledge receipt of such communication unless payment is made within that period of time or unless the failure to acknowledge is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent such acknowledgment. If the acknowledgment is not in writing, a notification indicating acknowledgment shall be made in the insurer’s claim file and dated. A communication made to or by an agent of an insurer with respect to a claim shall constitute communication to or by the insurer.
(2) Such acknowledgment shall be responsive to the communication. If the communication constitutes a notification of a claim, unless the acknowledgment reasonably advises the claimant that the claim appears not to be covered by the insurer, the acknowledgment shall provide necessary claim forms, and instructions, including an appropriate telephone number.
(3) Unless otherwise provided by the policy of insurance or by law, within 10 working days after an insurer receives proof of loss statements, the insurer shall begin such investigation as is reasonably necessary unless the failure to begin such investigation is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent the commencement of such investigation.
(4) For purposes of this section, the term “insurer” means any residential property insurer.
(5)(a) Within 90 days after an insurer receives notice of an initial, reopened, or supplemental property insurance claim from a policyholder, the insurer shall pay or deny such claim or a portion of the claim unless the failure to pay is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent such payment. Any payment of an initial or supplemental claim or portion of such claim made 90 days after the insurer receives notice of the claim, or made more than 15 days after there are no longer factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevented such payment, whichever is later, bears interest at the rate set forth in s. 55.03. Interest begins to accrue from the date the insurer receives notice of the claim. The provisions of this subsection may not be waived, voided, or nullified by the terms of the insurance policy. If there is a right to prejudgment interest, the insured shall select whether to receive prejudgment interest or interest under this subsection. Interest is payable when the claim or portion of the claim is paid. Failure to comply with this subsection constitutes a violation of this code. However, failure to comply with this subsection does not form the sole basis for a private cause of action.
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (4), for purposes of this subsection, the term “claim” means any of the following:1. A claim under an insurance policy providing residential coverage as defined in s. 627.4025(1);2. A claim for structural or contents coverage under a commercial property insurance policy if the insured structure is 10,000 square feet or less; or3. A claim for contents coverage under a commercial tenant policy if the insured premises is 10,000 square feet or less.
(c) This subsection shall not apply to claims under an insurance policy covering nonresidential commercial structures or contents in more than one state.

Valuation of Mobile/Manufactured Homes
If the manufactured home’s homeowners’ policy has a value on it, and you’re in a valued policy state, the insurance company will pay up to the limit listed on the policy if the home is deemed a total loss.
Some manufactured home policies will have a provision that allows for homes less than a certain age (10 years for example) to be valued at replacement cost. This has been done in part because some companies recognize that construction methods have changed over the years and that the home is newer. It’s kind of like getting new car replacement on your auto policy, but only for late models.

DP-1 Basic Form
Perils insured against are fire, lightning, and internal explosion.

DP-2 Broad Form
This dwelling coverage form covers perils included under the DP-1 with ECE and optional VMM endorsement attached,

plus: burglars; falling objects; weight of snow, ice, sleet; accidental discharge or overflow of water or steam; sudden and accidental tearing apart, cracking, burning or bulging of a steam or hot water heating system, or an air conditioning or automatic fire protective sprinkler system, or an appliance for heating water; freezing of a plumbing, heating, air conditioning, or automatic fire protective sprinkler system, or of a household appliance; and sudden and accidental damage from artificially generated electrical current.

DP-3 Special Form
covers the dwelling and other structures on an open perils basis, except for the perils specifically excluded.

Basic Form
covers these 11 “perils” or causes of loss: Fire or Lightning, Smoke, Windstorm or Hail, Explosion, Riot or Civil Commotion, Aircraft (striking the property), Vehicles (striking the property), Glass Breakage, Vandalism & Malicious Mischief, Theft, and Volcanic Eruption.

Broad Form
covers the same 11 perils, but adds 6 more: Falling objects, Weight of ice, snow or sleet, accidental discharge or overflow of water or stream from within plumbing or related systems; does not include discharge or overflow of water from a sump, sudden and accidental rupture of heating, air conditioning, fire protective sprinkler, or hot water heating system. Freezing of plumbing or related systems. And Sudden and accidental damage from artificially generated electrical current.

Special Form
does not specifically list perils, rather it is “all risk” coverage unless otherwise specifically excluded.

HO-2 Policy
home insurance policy covers only your home and personal property against threats specifically named on the policy’s declarations page. named peril policy — the covered threats are specifically listed. Below are the 16 named perils covered:.
Lightning or fire
Hail or windstorm
Damage caused by aircraft
Explosions
Riots or civil disturbances
Smoke damage
Damage caused by vehicles
Theft
Vandalism
Falling objects
Volcanic eruption
Damage from the weight of snow, ice, or sleet
Water damage from plumbing, heating, or air conditioning overflow
Water heater cracking, tearing, and burning
Damage from electrical current
Frozen pipes
These policies are uncommon. Most insurance companies only write an_____ if they deem the risk presented by you and your property to be too great for a higher-level policy. An __ policy can leave you and your belongings vulnerable to many unnamed perils.

HO-3 Policy
Homeowners Policy Special Form — part of the Insurance Services Office, Inc. (ISO), homeowners forms portfolio, the _ insures the described owner-occupied dwelling, private structures in connection with the dwelling, unscheduled personal property on and away from the premises, and loss of use. Personal liability coverage and medical payments coverage are also provided by this policy. Coverage of the dwelling, related structures, and scheduled personal property is on an all risks basis, while coverage of unscheduled personal property is on a broad named perils basis. Losses to the dwelling and other structures are paid on a replacement cost basis, with no deduction for depreciation if certain conditions apply. Losses to personal property are paid on an actual cash value (ACV) basis, unless amended by endorsement.

HO-4 Policy
Renters policy. Personal property covered for broad perils.

HO-5 Policy
policies are written on open-perils forms, which means it lists the perils that your insurance doesn’t cover. Common Exclusions:
Earth movement
Ordinance or law
Water damage from flood, sewer backup, or water seepage
Power failure
War
Nuclear hazard
Intentional loss
Government action
Collapse
Theft to a dwelling under construction
Vandalism or malicious mischief if vacant more than 60 days
Mold, fungus, or wet rot
Neglect, wear and tear, and deterioration
Mechanical breakdown
Smog, rust, and corrosion
Smoke from agricultural smudging and industrial operations
Discharge, dispersal, or seepage of pollutants
Settling, shrinking, bulging, or expanding of your home’s foundation
Infestation of birds, vermin, rodents, or insects
Animals owned by insured

HO-6 Policy
is home insurance for owners of co-ops or condominiums. It provides personal property coverage, liability coverage and specific coverage of improvements to the owner’s unit. … An HO-6 policy will cover interior damage to your unit, improvements, additions and alterations you’ve made and your personal property.

HO-8 Policy
form is a modified version that provides coverage for homeowners unable to attain an HO-3 policy for their older home — typically more than 40 years old.
Under an HO-8 policy, the insured’s dwelling, personal property, liability, and loss of use are covered. However, it should be noted this insurance policy will not go as far in covering your home and personal belongings as an HO-3 or HO-5 policy. An______ will at least provide certain key coverages against the most common perils (causes of loss)

Florida No-Fault Tort Exemption
Those who comply with the law are granted limited immunity from suits of others through PIP coverage.

4 Exceptions to Tort Exemption(Threshold of No-Fault)

  1. Significant and Permanent loss of bodily function.
    2.Permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement.
    3.Significant and Permanent scarring or disfigurement.
    4.Death

What does NFIP stand for?
National Flood Insurance Program

Form SR-22
Drivers Convicted of DUI or a traffic felony over the prior 3 years are required to have 100/300/50 coverage or a certificate of self insurance of $350,000.

Contents of a CGL Contract
1.Declarations Form
2.Common Policy Conditions Form

  1. One of:A.Occurrence Form
    B.Claims Made Form
    4.Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion Endorsement.

Declarations of a CGL Contract(4)
1.Named Insured(including address)
2.Policy Period
3.Premium
4.Limits of Coverage

7 Common CGL Conditions
1.Cancellation(30 Days by insurer option, 10 Days By no payment).
2.Changes
3.Examination of Books
4.Inspections and Surveys
5.Premiums
6.Transfer
7.Nuclear Endorsement

CGL Coverage A
Bodily Injury and Property Damage Insuring Agreement

The 3 Conditions that define work as “completed”
1.When all work called for in the contract is completed.
2.When all work to be done at the site has been completed if one contract calls for work at more than one site.
3.When that part of the work done at a job site has been put to its intended use by any person or organization other than another contractor or subcontractor.

Occurance
An accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same general harmful conditions.

accident
Sudden, unexpected event

The Difference between “Occurance” and “Claims Made” CGL Coverages
The Coverage Trigger:The Occurance Form applies to BI and PD regardless of any later time at which the claim is made.The Claims-Made Form applies only to BI and PD that occurs on or after the “Retro-Active date”

Retro-Active Date
The date on which the coverage legally began.

Basic Extended Reporting Period for CGL
60 Days after expiration

Why is the term “Coverage Trigger” misleading?
Because it intends to refer to the time period during which the insurance contract is in effect.

A Homeowners Policy consists of(3 components):
1.Declarations
2.One of 6 Homeowners forms
3.Mandatory and optional endorsements

What are the two main divisions of a Home Owners Form?
Section I-Property&Section II-Liability

4 Subsections of Section I of a Property Coverage Policy

  1. Coverage
    2.Perils Insured Against
    3.Exclusions
    4.Conditions

Who determines how much HO-6 coverages a Condominium Owner needs?
The Association

Homeowners Coverage A
“Dwelling” covers the dwelling building and structures attached; also construction materials and supplies on or adjacent to the premises.

Homeowners Coverage B
Other Structures or Appurtenant Structures (10% of Coverage A)

Homeowners Coverage C
(Actual Cash Value) Personal Property Coverage: Usually for 50% of coverage A (in addition)

Homeowners Coverage D
Loss of Use-

What is the standard limit of Homeowner’s Coverage D for: HO-2, HO-3 & HO-5?
30% of Coverage A

When might “Loss Settlement” cover buildings under Coverages A & B to Full Replacement Cost?
If the limit of Insurance at the time of Loss is equal to 80% or more of the replacement value of the building.

Statute that requires that when Property is Insured for replacement cost is deemed a total loss, the full replacement cost without reservation or holdback of depreciation must be paid.
627.7011

Four Additional Homeowners Coverages

  1. Claims Expense
  2. First Aid Expenses
  3. Damage to Property of Others
  4. Loss Assessment

Does Hurricane Coverage Occur on a Per Occurrence or an Annual Basis
An annual basis

What if there is more than one applicable deductible?
Only the highest deductible applies.

What must the Insured do if they wish to completely reject Windstorm Coverage?
Hand write “I DO NOT WANT THE INSURANCE ON MY (HOME/MOBILE HOME/CONDOMINIUM UNIT) TO PAY FOR DAMAGE FROM WINDSTORMS OR HURRICANES. I WILL PAY THOSE COSTS. MY INSURANCE WILL NOT.”

How much notice must the insurer give the insured of non-renewal of a homeowner’s Policy?
120 Days

4 Elements of a Valid Contract?
1.A manifestation of assent to its terms by parties who make the contract.
2.A sufficient consideration (value or payment) for each promise.
3.Legal Capacity of the parties to contract.
4.Legal Subject matter.

Valued Policy Law
requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law

Beginning statement of a liability insurance policy
Insurer agrees “to pay on behalf of the insured all sums the insured becomes legally obligated to pay as damages” or equivalent wording.

Coinsurance
A policy for less than the entire value of the insured property and cover pro-rata whether or not other insurance exists. 80% actually means (pro-rata share)/80%

Three Ways in which the limits to a liability insurance policy Insuring Agreement can be expressed?
1.single limit
2.split limit
3.Aggregate limit

2 Types of Tort Liability
1.Negligent Liability(Unintentional)
2.Strict Liability(Intentional)

What is the difference between Common Law and Statute Law?
Common Law is based on stare decisis, whereas statutory law is explicit with a statute number.

What are the two broad classifications of damages that a plaintiff can seek in an action for money damages?
1.Compensatory
2.Punitive

Two main defenses against Negligence

  1. Assumption of Risk
    2.Comparative Negligence

Why is it common to have the attorney’s name on the settlement draft?
Because should the insurer pay over the money solely to the claimant, the attorney may sue the company for the fee

Contracts wherein the parties are of unequal bargaining power are called?
Contracts of Adhesion

What is the rule of law’s attempt to counter balance a contract of Adhesion?
To have any ambiguities resolved in favor of the insured.

Two types of Waivers
1.Explicit
2.Implied

Statute 627.409
Statute covering misrepresentation by the insured. Only a defense for the insurer if they didn’t know and it would have affected the coverage offer.

How long does a residential property policy have to be in effect to hold the insured immune to 627.409(fraud by insured)
90 Days

6 Responsibilities of the Public Adjuster
1.Evaluate
2.Substantiate
3.Determine values
4.Negotiate
5.Recommend(upgraded insurance)
6.Re-Open Claims

626.8796
Public Adjuster Fraud Statement

How long must a Public Adjuster wait after an event that leads to a claim to contact the claimant?
48 hours. (626.854(13))

What must Public Adjuster Contracts Contain regarding fraud by insured
Felony Warnings (626.8796) is the requirement for the Public Adjuster. 817.234 is the felony, 775.082, 775.083 & 775.084 are the punishments.

What is the limit to the Public Adjuster’s share of a re-opened claim
20% (626.854(10)(a)).

How long does the client have to cancel the Public Adjuster’s Contract
3 Business Days 626.854 (6)

How long must the Public Adjuster keep his written estimate of the claimant’s Loss.
5 years 626.854 (11)

If a time consuming process to resolution is more lucrative, may the Public Adjuster loan the client an advance on the claim?
No 626.854 (8)

Can the Public Adjuster acquire an interest in Salvaged Property, for example as payment for Services?
Not without written consent and a signed affidavit. 626.854 (16)

Insurer’s 3 Goals when handling a claim

  1. Comply with the Contract
  2. Control Costs
  3. Cultivate Good Customer Relations

3 Basic Claims Handling activities?

  1. Investigate
    2.Evaluate
    3.Negotiate

5 Technical Expertise for a successful negotiation
1.The Insurance Contract
2.Reparable from replacement requiring damages.
3.Law
4.Insurer’s goals
5.Computer Estimating Systems being utilized by the insurance industry.

Duration of the statute of limitations to claim windstorm damage.
3 years (627.70132)

5 Questions to establish the contract coverage
1.Did a covered Peril Occur?
2.When?
3.Were there more than one?
4.Which one was the proximate cause?
5.Was there a mix of covered and uncovered losses?

5 Ways to appraise damages
1.Survey and Estimate of Determination
2.Acceptance of Cost or Quality shown by records.
3.Actual repair or replacement
4.Sale of Salvage
5.Appraisal(after 2 parties have failed to agree).

7 Settlement and Release Options
1.Full release Settlement
2.Open Ended Release
3.Payment of PD, BI pending
4.No Release
5.Advanced Payment
6.Structured Settlement
7.Rehabilitation, including provisions for rehabilitative treatment of the claimant.

What is called when 2 or more contracts cover the same claim and have to pay proportionate amounts?
Apportionment

What are the principles that guide apportionment to avoid controversy that could delay adjustment called?
The Guiding Principles

What is the maximum injury to a minor that can be settled out of court, preferably with both parents.
$15,000 (statute 744.387)

A contract by whereby the person executing the instrument gives up a right, claim or privilege to the person against whom it might have been demanded or enforced is called a:
Release

What must a release be supported by to be a binding contract?
Valuable Consideration

5 Practices that the Insured are protected from under the “Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act.”.
1.failing to act promptly
2.denying claims without reasonable investigation
3.failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled thereto
4.failure to explain claim denials in writing
5.failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures, such as keeping accurate records of complaints

The Department requires each adjusting firm and each of it’s branches to designate an Adjuster to be responsible for the supervision of all individuals within an adjusting firm. This individual is called the:
Primary Adjuster(626.8695)

How long do Insurance Companies have to acknowledge Claims?
14 Days(627.70131)

How long do Insurance Companies have to pay or deny property claims?
90 Days

7 Ethics to the code of Ethics

  1. No negotiating with an attorney’s client
  2. No misleading in any way.
    3.No legal advice
    4.No special releases, fill in the blanks only
    5.No exploiting incapacitated clients
    6.Advise the client of rights under the contract and by the state.
    7.Act with no bias.

6 Rights of the Insured

  1. Acknowledgement in 14 Days
  2. Approval or denial in 30 Days
  3. Full payment as applicable in 90 Days
    4.Free Mediation
    5.a neutral evaluation of a sinkhole claim
    6.Availability of assistance from the department of consumer services

What does the Homeowners Flood Insurance Affordability Act of 2014 do?
Allows private carriers to write off four different types of Flood Coverages.

FAJUA
Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association

FIGA
Florida Insurance Guaranty Association

FRPCJUA
Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association. Merged with FWUA to become Citizens

FWUA
Florida Windstorm Underwriting Association. Merged with the FRPCJUA as Citizens.

Insurance Contracts
In an ____, one party, the insured, pays a specified amount of money, called a premium, to another party, the insurer. The insurer, in turn, agrees to compensate the insured for specific future losses. The losses covered are listed in the contract, and the contract is called a policy.

Insurance Policy Conditions
The section of an insurance policy that identifies general requirements of an insured and the insurer on matters such as loss reporting and settlement, property valuation, other insurance, subrogation rights and cancellation and non-renewal.

Actual Cash Value
original cost of lost or damage property minus the depreciation of the property at the time of loss, for purposes of determining repayment or reimbursement.

Annual limit
The maximum a policy will pay for covered losses per year

Annuity
a fixed sum of money (usually a settlement) paid to someone every year, spreading a full benefit out over time

Appraisal
The act of assessing (giving an expert estimate of) the value of property

Assessed Value
The estimated monetary worth of a property (both real and personal) established by a taxing entity

Surcharge
additional cost added to the basic premium, usually due to at-fault claims or legal action

Structured Settlement
A monetary legal agreement often paid out as an annuity rater than in a lump sum

Actuary
Someone who uses statistics and mathematical models to calculated insurance risks and premiums

Company and Independent Adjuster Responsibilities
Investigate the circumstances of insurance claims by consulting with witnesses, reviewing police reports, and compiling evidence from other sources

Public Adjuster Responsibilities
Evaluate existing insurance policies in order to determine what coverage may be applicable to a claim. Prepare document and support the claim on behalf of the insured. Negotiate a settlement with the insurance company on behalf of an insured

Public Adjuster Continuing Education Requirements
5 hours of law and ethics, 19 hrs of elective credits. Every 2 years

Public Adjuster Expiration
An Adjuster license can only hold one appointment at a time. If unappointed for 48 months it will expire

Proof of Loss Requirements
Submit within 30 to 60 days after the damages occur

Commingling
An illegal practice that occurs when an agent mixes personal funds with the insured’s or insurer’s funds.

There are several important statutory requirements pertaining to contracts made by public adjusters:
Must state the type of claim, including an emergency claim, non-emergency claim or supplemental claim.
Requires the signatures of all named insureds.
If the signatures of all named insureds are not available, the public adjuster must submit an affidavit signed by the available named insureds attesting that they have authority to enter into the contract and settle all claim issues on behalf of the named insureds.
An unaltered copy of the contract must be remitted to the insurer within 30 days after execution. This means the contract provided to the insurer must also contain the agreed upon fee percentage.

True or False: Both mediation and sinkhole neutral evaluation are non-binding. Neither the insured nor the insurance company is legally obligated to accept the outcome of the mediation conference.
True

The __ is intended for use by parties who are beginning the process of filing suit against an insurer, when a party feels they have been damaged by specific acts of the insurer. The Notice is intended to meet a portion of legal requirements set forth in Section 624.155, Florida Statutes, which requires a party to file Notice with both the insurer and the Department of Financial Services (DFS) at least 60 days prior to bringing an action against the insurer. The DFS does not involve itself in the pre-suit negotiations or communications related to Notices as such actions are not within the scope of its statutory authority.
Civil Remedies Notice

Mediation Statute 627.7015
The department shall adopt by rule a property insurance mediation program to be administered by the department or its designee. The department may also adopt special rules which are applicable in cases of an emergency within the state. The rules shall be modeled after practices and procedures set forth in mediation rules of procedure adopted by the Supreme Court. The rules shall provide for:(a) Reasonable requirement for processing and scheduling of requests for mediation.(b) Qualifications, denial of application, suspension, revocation of approval, and other penalties for mediators as provided in s. 627.745 and the Florida Rules for Certified and Court-Appointed Mediators.(c) Provisions governing who may attend mediation conferences.(d) Selection of mediators.(e) Criteria for the conduct of mediation conferences.(f) Right to legal counsel.
(5) All statements made and documents produced at a mediation conference shall be deemed to be settlement negotiations in anticipation of litigation within the scope of s. 90.408. All parties to the mediation must negotiate in good faith and must have the authority to immediately settle the claim. Mediators are deemed to be agents of the department and shall have the immunity from suit provided in s. 44.107.
(6)(a) Mediation is nonbinding; however, if a written settlement is reached, the policyholder has 3 business days within which the policyholder may rescind the settlement unless the policyholder has cashed or deposited any check or draft disbursed to the policyholder for the disputed matters as a result of the conference. If a settlement agreement is reached and is not rescinded, it is binding and acts as a release of all specific claims that were presented in that mediation conference.
(b) At the conclusion of the mediation, the mediator shall provide a written report of the results of mediation, including any settlement amount, to the insurer, the policyholder, and the policyholder’s representative if the policyholder is represented at the mediation.
(7) If the insurer fails to comply with subsection (2) by failing to notify a policyholder of its right to participate in the mediation program under this section or if the insurer requests the mediation, and the mediation results are rejected by either party, the policyholder is not required to submit to or participate in any contractual loss appraisal process of the property loss damage as a precondition to legal action for breach of contract against the insurer for its failure to pay the policyholder’s claims covered by the policy.
(8) The department may designate an entity or person to serve as administrator to carry out any of the provisions of this section and may take this action by means of a written contract or agreement.
(9) For purposes of this section, the term “claim” refers to any dispute between an insurer and a policyholder relating to a material issue of fact other than a dispute:(a) With respect to which the insurer has a reasonable basis to suspect fraud;(b) When, based on agreed-upon facts as to the cause of loss, there is no coverage under the policy;(c) With respect to which the insurer has a reasonable basis to believe that the policyholder has intentionally made a material misrepresentation of fact which is relevant to the claim, and the entire request for payment of a loss has been denied on the basis of the material misrepresentation;(d) With respect to which the amount in controversy is less than $500, unless the parties agree to mediate a dispute involving a lesser amount; or(e) With respect to a windstorm or hurricane loss that does not comply with s. 627.70132.

Code of ethics (FAC 69B-220.201)
The work of adjusting insurance claims engages the public trust. An adjuster shall put the duty for fair and honest treatment of the claimant above the adjuster’s own interests in every instance. … (b) An adjuster shall treat all claimants equally.

Florida Insurance Guaranty Association
establishes and maintains a service-oriented operation for processing covered claims of insolvent members. FIGA is a nonprofit corporation created by the Florida Legislature in 1970. FIGA services pending claims by or against Florida policyholders of member insurance companies which become insolvent and are ordered liquidated.

The Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association originally created by this statute shall be known as the Citizens Property Insurance Corporation
The corporation shall provide insurance for residential and commercial property, for applicants who are entitled, but, in good faith, are unable to procure insurance through the voluntary market.

Business auto coverage form Section 3 Physical Damage Coverage
We will pay for “loss” to a covered “auto” or its equipment under:
a. Comprehensive Coverage From any cause except: (1) The covered “auto’s” collision with another object; or (2) The covered “auto’s” overturn.
b. Specified Causes Of Loss Coverage Caused by: (1) Fire, lightning or explosion; (2) Theft; (3) Windstorm, hail or earthquake; (4) Flood; (5) Mischief or vandalism; or (6) The sinking, burning, collision or derailment of any conveyance transporting the covered “auto”.
c. Collision Coverage Caused by: (1) The covered “auto’s” collision with another object; or (2) The covered “auto’s” overturn.

Part D – Coverage for damage to your auto
the insurance company agrees to pay an amount in excess of your deductible for direct and accidental loss to your covered car or any other car specified in the agreement. Thus, it pays for damage or theft to your car.

627.70131 Insurer’s duty to acknowledge communications regarding claims; investigation.
(1) Upon an insurer’s receiving a communication with respect to a claim, the insurer shall, within 14 calendar days, review and acknowledge receipt of such communication unless payment is made within that period of time or unless the failure to acknowledge is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent such acknowledgment. If the acknowledgment is not in writing, a notification indicating acknowledgment shall be made in the insurer’s claim file and dated. A communication made to or by an agent of an insurer with respect to a claim shall constitute communication to or by the insurer.
(2) Such acknowledgment shall be responsive to the communication. If the communication constitutes a notification of a claim, unless the acknowledgment reasonably advises the claimant that the claim appears not to be covered by the insurer, the acknowledgment shall provide necessary claim forms, and instructions, including an appropriate telephone number.
(3) Unless otherwise provided by the policy of insurance or by law, within 10 working days after an insurer receives proof of loss statements, the insurer shall begin such investigation as is reasonably necessary unless the failure to begin such investigation is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent the commencement of such investigation.
(4) For purposes of this section, the term “insurer” means any residential property insurer.
(5)(a) Within 90 days after an insurer receives notice of an initial, reopened, or supplemental property insurance claim from a policyholder, the insurer shall pay or deny such claim or a portion of the claim unless the failure to pay is caused by factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevent such payment. Any payment of an initial or supplemental claim or portion of such claim made 90 days after the insurer receives notice of the claim, or made more than 15 days after there are no longer factors beyond the control of the insurer which reasonably prevented such payment, whichever is later, bears interest at the rate set forth in s. 55.03. Interest begins to accrue from the date the insurer receives notice of the claim. The provisions of this subsection may not be waived, voided, or nullified by the terms of the insurance policy. If there is a right to prejudgment interest, the insured shall select whether to receive prejudgment interest or interest under this subsection. Interest is payable when the claim or portion of the claim is paid. Failure to comply with this subsection constitutes a violation of this code. However, failure to comply with this subsection does not form the sole basis for a private cause of action.
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (4), for purposes of this subsection, the term “claim” means any of the following:1. A claim under an insurance policy providing residential coverage as defined in s. 627.4025(1);2. A claim for structural or contents coverage under a commercial property insurance policy if the insured structure is 10,000 square feet or less; or3. A claim for contents coverage under a commercial tenant policy if the insured premises is 10,000 square feet or less.
(c) This subsection shall not apply to claims under an insurance policy covering nonresidential commercial structures or contents in more than one state.

Valuation of Mobile/Manufactured Homes
If the manufactured home’s homeowners’ policy has a value on it, and you’re in a valued policy state, the insurance company will pay up to the limit listed on the policy if the home is deemed a total loss.
Some manufactured home policies will have a provision that allows for homes less than a certain age (10 years for example) to be valued at replacement cost. This has been done in part because some companies recognize that construction methods have changed over the years and that the home is newer. It’s kind of like getting new car replacement on your auto policy, but only for late models.

DP-1 Basic Form
Perils insured against are fire, lightning, and internal explosion.

DP-2 Broad Form
This dwelling coverage form covers perils included under the DP-1 with ECE and optional VMM endorsement attached,

plus: burglars; falling objects; weight of snow, ice, sleet; accidental discharge or overflow of water or steam; sudden and accidental tearing apart, cracking, burning or bulging of a steam or hot water heating system, or an air conditioning or automatic fire protective sprinkler system, or an appliance for heating water; freezing of a plumbing, heating, air conditioning, or automatic fire protective sprinkler system, or of a household appliance; and sudden and accidental damage from artificially generated electrical current.

DP-3 Special Form
covers the dwelling and other structures on an open perils basis, except for the perils specifically excluded.

Basic Form
covers these 11 “perils” or causes of loss: Fire or Lightning, Smoke, Windstorm or Hail, Explosion, Riot or Civil Commotion, Aircraft (striking the property), Vehicles (striking the property), Glass Breakage, Vandalism & Malicious Mischief, Theft, and Volcanic Eruption.

Broad Form
covers the same 11 perils, but adds 6 more: Falling objects, Weight of ice, snow or sleet, accidental discharge or overflow of water or stream from within plumbing or related systems; does not include discharge or overflow of water from a sump, sudden and accidental rupture of heating, air conditioning, fire protective sprinkler, or hot water heating system. Freezing of plumbing or related systems. And Sudden and accidental damage from artificially generated electrical current.

Special Form
does not specifically list perils, rather it is “all risk” coverage unless otherwise specifically excluded.

HO-2 Policy
home insurance policy covers only your home and personal property against threats specifically named on the policy’s declarations page. named peril policy — the covered threats are specifically listed. Below are the 16 named perils covered:.
Lightning or fire
Hail or windstorm
Damage caused by aircraft
Explosions
Riots or civil disturbances
Smoke damage
Damage caused by vehicles
Theft
Vandalism
Falling objects
Volcanic eruption
Damage from the weight of snow, ice, or sleet
Water damage from plumbing, heating, or air conditioning overflow
Water heater cracking, tearing, and burning
Damage from electrical current
Frozen pipes
These policies are uncommon. Most insurance companies only write an_____ if they deem the risk presented by you and your property to be too great for a higher-level policy. An __ policy can leave you and your belongings vulnerable to many unnamed perils.

HO-3 Policy
Homeowners Policy Special Form — part of the Insurance Services Office, Inc. (ISO), homeowners forms portfolio, the _ insures the described owner-occupied dwelling, private structures in connection with the dwelling, unscheduled personal property on and away from the premises, and loss of use. Personal liability coverage and medical payments coverage are also provided by this policy. Coverage of the dwelling, related structures, and scheduled personal property is on an all risks basis, while coverage of unscheduled personal property is on a broad named perils basis. Losses to the dwelling and other structures are paid on a replacement cost basis, with no deduction for depreciation if certain conditions apply. Losses to personal property are paid on an actual cash value (ACV) basis, unless amended by endorsement.

HO-4 Policy
Renters policy. Personal property covered for broad perils.

HO-5 Policy
policies are written on open-perils forms, which means it lists the perils that your insurance doesn’t cover. Common Exclusions:
Earth movement
Ordinance or law
Water damage from flood, sewer backup, or water seepage
Power failure
War
Nuclear hazard
Intentional loss
Government action
Collapse
Theft to a dwelling under construction
Vandalism or malicious mischief if vacant more than 60 days
Mold, fungus, or wet rot
Neglect, wear and tear, and deterioration
Mechanical breakdown
Smog, rust, and corrosion
Smoke from agricultural smudging and industrial operations
Discharge, dispersal, or seepage of pollutants
Settling, shrinking, bulging, or expanding of your home’s foundation
Infestation of birds, vermin, rodents, or insects
Animals owned by insured

HO-6 Policy
is home insurance for owners of co-ops or condominiums. It provides personal property coverage, liability coverage and specific coverage of improvements to the owner’s unit. … An HO-6 policy will cover interior damage to your unit, improvements, additions and alterations you’ve made and your personal property.

HO-8 Policy
form is a modified version that provides coverage for homeowners unable to attain an HO-3 policy for their older home — typically more than 40 years old.
Under an HO-8 policy, the insured’s dwelling, personal property, liability, and loss of use are covered. However, it should be noted this insurance policy will not go as far in covering your home and personal belongings as an HO-3 or HO-5 policy. An______ will at least provide certain key coverages against the most common perils (causes of loss)

Florida No-Fault Tort Exemption
Those who comply with the law are granted limited immunity from suits of others through PIP coverage.

4 Exceptions to Tort Exemption(Threshold of No-Fault)

  1. Significant and Permanent loss of bodily function.
    2.Permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement.
    3.Significant and Permanent scarring or disfigurement.
    4.Death

What does NFIP stand for?
National Flood Insurance Program

Form SR-22
Drivers Convicted of DUI or a traffic felony over the prior 3 years are required to have 100/300/50 coverage or a certificate of self insurance of $350,000.

Contents of a CGL Contract
1.Declarations Form
2.Common Policy Conditions Form

  1. One of:A.Occurrence Form
    B.Claims Made Form
    4.Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion Endorsement.

Declarations of a CGL Contract(4)
1.Named Insured(including address)
2.Policy Period
3.Premium
4.Limits of Coverage

7 Common CGL Conditions
1.Cancellation(30 Days by insurer option, 10 Days By no payment).
2.Changes
3.Examination of Books
4.Inspections and Surveys
5.Premiums
6.Transfer
7.Nuclear Endorsement

CGL Coverage A
Bodily Injury and Property Damage Insuring Agreement

The 3 Conditions that define work as “completed”
1.When all work called for in the contract is completed.
2.When all work to be done at the site has been completed if one contract calls for work at more than one site.
3.When that part of the work done at a job site has been put to its intended use by any person or organization other than another contractor or subcontractor.

Occurance
An accident, including continuous or repeated exposure to substantially the same general harmful conditions.

accident
Sudden, unexpected event

The Difference between “Occurance” and “Claims Made” CGL Coverages
The Coverage Trigger:The Occurance Form applies to BI and PD regardless of any later time at which the claim is made.The Claims-Made Form applies only to BI and PD that occurs on or after the “Retro-Active date”

Retro-Active Date
The date on which the coverage legally began.

Basic Extended Reporting Period for CGL
60 Days after expiration

Why is the term “Coverage Trigger” misleading?
Because it intends to refer to the time period during which the insurance contract is in effect.

A Homeowners Policy consists of(3 components):
1.Declarations
2.One of 6 Homeowners forms
3.Mandatory and optional endorsements

What are the two main divisions of a Home Owners Form?
Section I-Property&Section II-Liability

4 Subsections of Section I of a Property Coverage Policy

  1. Coverage
    2.Perils Insured Against
    3.Exclusions
    4.Conditions

Who determines how much HO-6 coverages a Condominium Owner needs?
The Association

Homeowners Coverage A
“Dwelling” covers the dwelling building and structures attached; also construction materials and supplies on or adjacent to the premises.

Homeowners Coverage B
Other Structures or Appurtenant Structures (10% of Coverage A)

Homeowners Coverage C
(Actual Cash Value) Personal Property Coverage: Usually for 50% of coverage A (in addition)

Homeowners Coverage D
Loss of Use-

What is the standard limit of Homeowner’s Coverage D for: HO-2, HO-3 & HO-5?
30% of Coverage A

When might “Loss Settlement” cover buildings under Coverages A & B to Full Replacement Cost?
If the limit of Insurance at the time of Loss is equal to 80% or more of the replacement value of the building.

Statute that requires that when Property is Insured for replacement cost is deemed a total loss, the full replacement cost without reservation or holdback of depreciation must be paid.
627.7011

Four Additional Homeowners Coverages

  1. Claims Expense
  2. First Aid Expenses
  3. Damage to Property of Others
  4. Loss Assessment

Does Hurricane Coverage Occur on a Per Occurrence or an Annual Basis
An annual basis

What if there is more than one applicable deductible?
Only the highest deductible applies.

What must the Insured do if they wish to completely reject Windstorm Coverage?
Hand write “I DO NOT WANT THE INSURANCE ON MY (HOME/MOBILE HOME/CONDOMINIUM UNIT) TO PAY FOR DAMAGE FROM WINDSTORMS OR HURRICANES. I WILL PAY THOSE COSTS. MY INSURANCE WILL NOT.”

How much notice must the insurer give the insured of non-renewal of a homeowner’s Policy?
120 Days

4 Elements of a Valid Contract?
1.A manifestation of assent to its terms by parties who make the contract.
2.A sufficient consideration (value or payment) for each promise.
3.Legal Capacity of the parties to contract.
4.Legal Subject matter.

Valued Policy Law
requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law

Beginning statement of a liability insurance policy
Insurer agrees “to pay on behalf of the insured all sums the insured becomes legally obligated to pay as damages” or equivalent wording.

Coinsurance
A policy for less than the entire value of the insured property and cover pro-rata whether or not other insurance exists. 80% actually means (pro-rata share)/80%

Three Ways in which the limits to a liability insurance policy Insuring Agreement can be expressed?
1.single limit
2.split limit
3.Aggregate limit

2 Types of Tort Liability
1.Negligent Liability(Unintentional)
2.Strict Liability(Intentional)

What is the difference between Common Law and Statute Law?
Common Law is based on stare decisis, whereas statutory law is explicit with a statute number.

What are the two broad classifications of damages that a plaintiff can seek in an action for money damages?
1.Compensatory
2.Punitive

Two main defenses against Negligence

  1. Assumption of Risk
    2.Comparative Negligence

Why is it common to have the attorney’s name on the settlement draft?
Because should the insurer pay over the money solely to the claimant, the attorney may sue the company for the fee

Contracts wherein the parties are of unequal bargaining power are called?
Contracts of Adhesion

What is the rule of law’s attempt to counter balance a contract of Adhesion?
To have any ambiguities resolved in favor of the insured.

Two types of Waivers
1.Explicit
2.Implied

Statute 627.409
Statute covering misrepresentation by the insured. Only a defense for the insurer if they didn’t know and it would have affected the coverage offer.

How long does a residential property policy have to be in effect to hold the insured immune to 627.409(fraud by insured)
90 Days

6 Responsibilities of the Public Adjuster
1.Evaluate
2.Substantiate
3.Determine values
4.Negotiate
5.Recommend(upgraded insurance)
6.Re-Open Claims

626.8796
Public Adjuster Fraud Statement

How long must a Public Adjuster wait after an event that leads to a claim to contact the claimant?
48 hours. (626.854(13))

What must Public Adjuster Contracts Contain regarding fraud by insured
Felony Warnings (626.8796) is the requirement for the Public Adjuster. 817.234 is the felony, 775.082, 775.083 & 775.084 are the punishments.

What is the limit to the Public Adjuster’s share of a re-opened claim
20% (626.854(10)(a)).

How long does the client have to cancel the Public Adjuster’s Contract
3 Business Days 626.854 (6)

How long must the Public Adjuster keep his written estimate of the claimant’s Loss.
5 years 626.854 (11)

If a time consuming process to resolution is more lucrative, may the Public Adjuster loan the client an advance on the claim?
No 626.854 (8)

Can the Public Adjuster acquire an interest in Salvaged Property, for example as payment for Services?
Not without written consent and a signed affidavit. 626.854 (16)

Insurer’s 3 Goals when handling a claim

  1. Comply with the Contract
  2. Control Costs
  3. Cultivate Good Customer Relations

3 Basic Claims Handling activities?

  1. Investigate
    2.Evaluate
    3.Negotiate

5 Technical Expertise for a successful negotiation
1.The Insurance Contract
2.Reparable from replacement requiring damages.
3.Law
4.Insurer’s goals
5.Computer Estimating Systems being utilized by the insurance industry.

Duration of the statute of limitations to claim windstorm damage.
3 years (627.70132)

5 Questions to establish the contract coverage
1.Did a covered Peril Occur?
2.When?
3.Were there more than one?
4.Which one was the proximate cause?
5.Was there a mix of covered and uncovered losses?

5 Ways to appraise damages
1.Survey and Estimate of Determination
2.Acceptance of Cost or Quality shown by records.
3.Actual repair or replacement
4.Sale of Salvage
5.Appraisal(after 2 parties have failed to agree).

7 Settlement and Release Options
1.Full release Settlement
2.Open Ended Release
3.Payment of PD, BI pending
4.No Release
5.Advanced Payment
6.Structured Settlement
7.Rehabilitation, including provisions for rehabilitative treatment of the claimant.

What is called when 2 or more contracts cover the same claim and have to pay proportionate amounts?
Apportionment

What are the principles that guide apportionment to avoid controversy that could delay adjustment called?
The Guiding Principles

What is the maximum injury to a minor that can be settled out of court, preferably with both parents.
$15,000 (statute 744.387)

A contract by whereby the person executing the instrument gives up a right, claim or privilege to the person against whom it might have been demanded or enforced is called a:
Release

What must a release be supported by to be a binding contract?
Valuable Consideration

5 Practices that the Insured are protected from under the “Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act.”.
1.failing to act promptly
2.denying claims without reasonable investigation
3.failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled thereto
4.failure to explain claim denials in writing
5.failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures, such as keeping accurate records of complaints

The Department requires each adjusting firm and each of it’s branches to designate an Adjuster to be responsible for the supervision of all individuals within an adjusting firm. This individual is called the:
Primary Adjuster(626.8695)

How long do Insurance Companies have to acknowledge Claims?
14 Days(627.70131)

How long do Insurance Companies have to pay or deny property claims?
90 Days

7 Ethics to the code of Ethics

  1. No negotiating with an attorney’s client
  2. No misleading in any way.
    3.No legal advice
    4.No special releases, fill in the blanks only
    5.No exploiting incapacitated clients
    6.Advise the client of rights under the contract and by the state.
    7.Act with no bias.

6 Rights of the Insured

  1. Acknowledgement in 14 Days
  2. Approval or denial in 30 Days
  3. Full payment as applicable in 90 Days
    4.Free Mediation
    5.a neutral evaluation of a sinkhole claim
    6.Availability of assistance from the department of consumer services

What does the Homeowners Flood Insurance Affordability Act of 2014 do?
Allows private carriers to write off four different types of Flood Coverages.

Insurance Contracts
In an ____, one party, the insured, pays a specified amount of money, called a premium, to another party, the insurer. The insurer, in turn, agrees to compensate the insured for specific future losses. The losses covered are listed in the contract, and the contract is called a policy.

Insurance Policy Conditions
The section of an insurance policy that identifies general requirements of an insured and the insurer on matters such as loss reporting and settlement, property valuation, other insurance, subrogation rights and cancellation and non-renewal.

Actual Cash Value
original cost of lost or damage property minus the depreciation of the property at the time of loss, for purposes of determining repayment or reimbursement.

Annuity
a fixed sum of money (usually a settlement) paid to someone every year, spreading a full benefit out over time

Appraisal
The act of assessing (giving an expert estimate of) the value of property

Assessed Value
The estimated monetary worth of a property (both real and personal) established by a taxing entity

Surcharge
additional cost added to the basic premium, usually due to at-fault claims or legal action

Structured Settlement
A monetary legal agreement often paid out as an annuity rater than in a lump sum

Actuary
Someone who uses statistics and mathematical models to calculated insurance risks and premiums

Company and Independent Adjuster Responsibilities
Investigate the circumstances of insurance claims by consulting with witnesses, reviewing police reports, and compiling evidence from other sources

Public Adjuster Responsibilities
Evaluate existing insurance policies in order to determine what coverage may be applicable to a claim. Prepare document and support the claim on behalf of the insured. Negotiate a settlement with the insurance company on behalf of an insured

Public Adjuster Continuing Education Requirements
5 hours of law and ethics, 19 hrs of elective credits. Every 2 years

Public Adjuster Expiration
An Adjuster license can only hold one appointment at a time. If unappointed for 48 months it will expire

Proof of Loss Requirements
Submit within 30 to 60 days after the damages occur

Commingling
An illegal practice that occurs when an agent mixes personal funds with the insured’s or insurer’s funds.

Severability
Insurance applies separately to each insured as if other insureds did not exist.

Abandonment
Property insurance policies usually contain a(n) __ clause, stating the insured cannot dump damaged property on the insurer and demand its full value.

Insurable Interest
One wherein economic loss would be suffered from an adverse happening to the subject.

Liberalization
States that if the insurer adopts a revision which would broaden coverage without additional premium within some period of time prior to the policy period or during the policy period, the insured receives the benefit of such broadened coverage..

Doctrine of Proximate Cause
States that when there is an unbroken connection between an occurrence and damage that grows out of the occurrence, then the resultant damage is all a part of the occurrence.

Actual Cash Value
The Loss Settlement Valuation that subtracts an allowance for depreciation

Warranty
A policy condition, either based on information in the insured’s application or inserted by the insurer

Conditional Contract
The Insurer’s responsibility to pay for a property loss may be conditioned on the insured having used reasonable means to avoid the loss, to protect the property against further loss, and to give the insurer proof of the loss is defined as?

Under Mechanical Breakdown Coverage, new cars are eligible for service up to:
36 Months/36,000 Miles

Used vehicles: 12 Months/12,000 Miles

If financial responsibility doesn’t exist at the time of an accident, what happens?
The legally valid claims of others must be satisfied (10/20/10)

The owner and operator must provide certification of future responsibility for future accidents

As to required proof for future accidents by purchase of auto liability insurance, the insurer must make a filing (Form SR-22) certifying that coverage is in effect, and this certification must remain on file for __ years
3

The Business Automobile Policy includes all of the following coverage forms except:
The Trailer Interchange Coverage Form

Personal Injury Protection, or PIP, has a __ per person, per accident limit.
10,000

Used to insure businesses engaged in selling, servicing, repairing, parking or storing automobiles:
Garage Coverage Form

The following examples are referred to as __ liability limits: 25/50/25 or 10/20/10.
Split

10/20/10 =
10,000 per person injured
20,000 all injuries combined
10,000 property damage
Example of straight liability limit = $30,000

Jeremy has a not at fault accident. If he has PIP with a $1,000 deductible, how much can he expect his PIP coverage to pay toward his medical bills that total $3,000?
$1,600

3000 (bills) – 1000 (deductible) =
2000 x .80 (eighty percent)

Frank has a not-at-fault accident, he has basic PIP, no deductible and Med pay of $5,000. How much will his Med Pay contribute to medical bills of $15,000?
$5,000

Medical Payment limits apply per person; Frank will receive full amount towards medical bills.

Which of the following is not one of the rating factors for a Homeowner’s Policy?
Age & Gender of Insured

On a Homeowner’s Policy, covers items that are not permanently attached to the dwelling. This is defined as:
Other Structures

Examples include sheds, fences, pool houses, detached car ports, etc.

A lender has an insurable interest in a home and finds protection in the:
Mortgagee Clause

Mortgagee – Homeowner’s policy
Loss Payee – Automobile policy

Which of the following forms is “all-risk” on the dwelling policy?
DP-3, or the Special Form

When the basic liability limits provided by the policy are insufficient for an insureds needs, two coverage forms are used to provide the additional amounts of coverage:
A. Excess Liability
B. Umbrella
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
Both A & B

Which of the following is not covered under Coverage C, Personal Property?

A. A fire breaks out in the residence and an overnight guest loses his clothes in the fire
B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food
C. The insureds daughters tennis racket is stolen from her locker
D. The insureds suitcase and clothing, valued at $1,500, are stolen from his hotel
B. A fish dies because he has been left alone for a week without food

Animals are listed as an “exclusion” under a Homeowner’s policy.

All of the following are eligible for a Homeowner’s Policy, except?

A. An apartment tenant
B. A condominium owner
C. Four-family dwelling owner-occupant
D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company
D. A business condo owned by a local insurance company

Commercial property is not eligible for a Homeowner’s policy.

Which of the following are characteristics of Homeowner’s Insurance?

A. Protects against economic loss to residences and household property and legal liabilities
B. Owner-occupants of 1-4 family dwellings
C. Renters who maintain residential occupancy in any type of building
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Also included: personal, non-business risk, no more than 2 roomers/boarders, condominium unit owners and cooperative apartment occupants

Jeremy owns a home that is recently damaged due to a hurricane. The repair estimate is averaged at $25,000 and Jeremy decides to stay in a hotel because most of the damage is to his bedroom and kitchen. Under a Homeowner’s Policy, what coverage will pay for the hotel room bill?
A. Fair Rental Value
B. Value Obligation
C. Loss of Use
D. Insurers Duties
C. Loss of Use
The insurer will pay any necessary and reasonable expenses associated with a daily living routine.

An insured who wishes to purchase flood insurance, but is located in a moderate or low risk flood zone may do so by purchasing a:
Preferred Risk Flood Policy

Although Flood Insurance is provided by the Federal Government, those who are not in a “flood zone” may purchase a preferred risk policy to cover them for a flood claim.

Used only for Commercial Condominiums, it covers the unit-owners business personal property and the personal property of others in the insured’s care, custody or control:
Condominium Unit Owners Form

The Commercial Property Contract includes all of the following, except:

A. Common Policy Conditions
B. Commercial Property Conditions
C. Coverage Form
D. Commercial Loss Schedule
Commercial Loss Schedule

Also included: Declarations, Causes of Loss Form, Endorsements

Insures a condominium association against direct physical loss or damage to buildings, business personal property and personal property of others in the care, custody or control of the association and located at the premises:
Condominium Association Form

This, along with Condo Unit Owners Form, is located under Condo Coverage.

Sometimes referred to as commercial fire and allied lines, this is the form of insurance that covers direct and indirect losses related to properties other than one-to-four family dwellings and farm properties:
Commercial Property Insurance
(the question is the definition for this term)

Under Commercial Property Policies, Florida law requires an insurer to give the insured at least __________days advance written notice of non-renewal.
A. 25
B. 90
C. 45
D. None of the Above
C. 45
Also, notice must state reasons the policy is not to be renewed.

When a business’s personal property values fluctuate, a single, fixed amount of insurance could produce either over- or under-insurance at any given time. With this option, the limit of coverage is set at an amount somewhat higher than expected peak values.
Value Reporting

Replacement Cost is incorrect b/c it calculates monetary value of one’s personal property

Liberalization states, “The insured gets the benefit of any broadened coverage if the company, within __ days of inception, adopts a form revision that is broader and without increase in premium.”
45 days

Used to cover buildings in the course of construction
Builders Risk Policy

Includes: structure being built (including foundations), fixtures and machinery, equipment to service building, owned materials and supplies used for construction. Temporary structures built or assembled on site are also included if not covered by insurance.

First developed as an extension of Ocean Marine coverage, to provide coverage for cargo traveling over land, instead of by sea.
Commercial Inland Marine Coverage

Definition: to help identify kinds of risks which are eligible for either Ocean or Inland Marine insurance.

Protects against loss of business income that results from damage to covered property from a covered cause of loss. (BIIC)
Business Income Insurance Coverage

Period of restoration begins 72 hours after date of direct damage. In effect, coverage has a 72 hour deductible.

Coverage ends on either 1. date when damaged property could be repaired, rebuilt, or replaced 2. date business resumes operations at new, permanent location (whichever comes first)

What payment covers several areas of costs related to claims, and are payable in addition to the policy limits?
Supplementary

Generally, all costs of litigation are covered (court costs, prejudgment interest, judgement interest, cost of bonds to release attachments)

Three full-time employees from a local furniture company are horsing around and one is pushed into a machine that cut his foot. How will the company’s General Liability respond?
The GL policy will not pay

Coverage excludes liabilities under Workers Comp or similar law or arising from injuries to employees of the insured. The employees would have to file through Workers Comp.

Which of the following can be found in a Commercial General Liability Contract?
A. Declarations
B. Common Policy Conditions
C. Occurrence and Claims-Made Forms
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Also included: Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement (other endorsements may be attached)

There is __ coverage for injury, damage or clean-up costs caused by pollutants, subject to minor exceptions.
0%

Under a Commercial General Liability Policy, a basic limit of __ per person applies to Medical Payments:
$5,000

The Commercial General Liability __ identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply.
Declarations

The Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement, in general, __ all hazards related to nuclear energy.
Excludes

Firms involved in Nuclear activities receive protection from special insurer pools organized for that purpose.

Toxic wastes escaped from a gas station disposal tank. The insured operator discovers the leak and cleans up the spill. Unfortunately, the waste quickly seeped into the ground and has caused illness among the residents of a neighboring community This is an example of?
Known Loss

Insurer should have been notified and further investigation of the spill and effective clean-up would have been observed.

Applies to BI or PD which occurs during the policy period, regardless of any later time at which a claim is made:
Occurrence Form

vs. Claims-Made: applies only to BI or PD occurring on or after retroactive date for which claim is received/recorded during policy period

Applies only to a BI or PD which occurs on or after the retroactive date, and for which the claim is received or recorded by an insured or the company during the policy period:
Claims-Made

Retroactive date is stated in Declarations and will normally be same date as issuing company’s first claims-made effective date for insured.

All of the following are components of Workers Compensation, except:

A. Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits
B. Reimbursement for Medical Expenses incurred
C. Reimbursement for lost wages on percentage basis
D. Funeral costs up to $7,500
Up to $750,000 in Death Benefits
Compensation for death is payable if death results within one year of an accident or if it follows disability within five years of accident.

The following are classes of disability, except:
Temporary Full

Also included: Temporary Partial

The measure to determine disability benefits is the __ of the employee at the time of injury:
Average Weekly Wage

Disability – incapacity due to injury to earn same or any other employment wages that employee was receiving at time of injury.

Mandatory for risks exceeding certain annual premiums, recognizes the prior loss experience of the risk and applies either a debit for unfavorable experience or a credit for better-than-expected loss results. This is defined as:
The Experience Rating Plan

This, along with Retrospective Rating Plan, is a manual rating process until premiums reach a certain level.

Under workers compensations, a rate is charged for every __ of payroll to employees.
$100

The National Council on Compensation Insurance enforces this rating.

Under Workers Compensation, Part Four Your Duties if Injuries Occur, an employer is required to:

A. Provide the names/addresses of injured persons and witnesses
B. Promptly provide any legal papers
C. Cooperate and assist as insurer requests
D. All of the Above
All of the Above

Also included: immediate contact with insurer, providing immediate medical or other services, do nothing to interfere with insured’s right of recovery, make no voluntary payments or assume any obligation except at employer’s own cost.

Under Workers Compensation, Employers Liability includes:

A. Claims by others for the liabilities to insureds employees
B. Claims by relatives of injured employees for consequential damages
C. Claims made by employees that are not subject to Workers Comp Laws
D. All of the Above
All of the Above

Samantha eats uncooked chicken at a local barbecue joint and becomes violently ill. Which of the following workers compensation benefits would pay for this occurrence?

A. A products and completed operations form
B. A premises and operations form
C. An owners and contractors protective liability form
D. None of the Above
None of the Above

Samantha is not an employee of the barbecue joint; Workers Comp does not apply.

An optional alternative providing for adjustment of premium after expiration, based on a guaranteed basic premium to the insurer to which is added the actual losses incurred by the insured. This is defined as:
Retrospective Rating Plan

Under Employer’s Liability, the minimum limits of liability are:
A. 100/100/500

$100,000 for all claims in each accident
$100,000 per employee for disease
$500,000 for all disease claims

Under Inside The Premises – Robbery or Safe Burglary of Personal Property, a special limit of __ per occurrence applies to articles whose principal value is precious metals, precious or semiprecious stones, pearls or furs, and to the physical or intrinsic value of manuscripts, drawings or records:
$5,000

Under Crime Insurance, losses must be discovered within 1 year. This is defined as:
The Discovery Period

Crime Insurance is _ over any other Insurance coverage.
Excess

A situation may arise where another form of insurance will pay claim – that insurance would be primary.

Cover only losses that both occurred and were discovered during the policy period, or within one year of its expiration. This is defined as:
Loss Sustained

One exception to the rule is that Loss Sustained forms will also cover losses that occurred under previous (expired) crime policies and that were discovered during current policy year, as long as crime coverage had continued w/o interruption

Any loss discovered during the policy period or within 60 days after its expiration (one year after expiration for losses connected with employee benefit plans) is covered regardless of when it occurred. This is defined as:
Discovery

If XYZ restaurant discovers stolen goods taken over a year ago, this is within 2 years of inception date and found within policy period so it’s covered.

Under Crime Insurance, the insured is covered for loss by:

A. Theft
B. Burglary
C. Robbery
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Unless the loss is specifically excluded or limited

Provides for loss of money and securities outside the premises in the care, custody and control of a messenger or armored car service resulting from theft, disappearance or destruction. This is defined as:
Outside the Premises

Also covers robbery of other property under the circumstances.

Taking or attempted taking of property from within a locked safe or vault, by unlawful entry, with visible marks of forcible entry, or taking of the safe or vault from inside the premises. This is defined as:
Safe Burglary

Exclusions: accounting errors, giving/surrendering property, voluntarily parting, fire (except damage to safe/vault), vandalism, transferring property to someone based on unauthorized instructions or from threat to harm

Covers for all types of property, when surrendered away from the premises as a result of a threat to do bodily harm to the insured or an employee, or to a relative or invitee of either, who is (or allegedly is) being held captive. This is defined as:
Extortion

Also triggered by threats to damage the premises or property within the premises.

Employee Theft Coverage may be written in the following ways:

A. Scheduled Persons Coverage
B. Scheduled Position Coverage
C. Blanket Coverage
D. All May Apply
D. All May Apply

Employee Theft may be written in three ways.

Which of the following are NOT a type of bond?
Apprentice

Contract – fulfill obligation
Fiduciary – make good to court for any deficiencies found in performance
Court – protect opposing party from loss

Which of the following are characteristics of a License Bond?

A. To guarantee the licensee will act according to laws
B. Protect public from unfair business practice
C. Proper collection and payment of taxes
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Guarantees the performance between the principle and the obligee:
Surety

aka Bonding Company; Surety is a “guarantee”

This bond guarantees indemnification to the obligee for any losses resulting from the principal’s failure to complete the contract work in accord with specifications:
Performance

Considered a contract bond

One who undertakes to perform, to fulfill a contract or to meet an obligation is known as:
Principal

Obligee – needs guarantee principal will perform
Surety – guarantees performance between principal and obligee

This form of bond is required to accompany a bid for a contract which will require that the successful bidder furnish further bond if awarded the job:
Bid

May act as part of the bonding party and agrees to reimburse the surety for any loss it may suffer from having bonded the principal:
Indemnitor

Which of the following are parties to a Bond?

A. Principal
B. Obligee
C. Surety
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Principal – undertakes to perform/fulfill
Obligee – guaranteed principal will perform
Surety – guarantees performance
*Indemnitor – may act as additional party; agrees to reimburse surety for any loss

This type of bond covers streets, sidealks, sewers, etc.:
Subdivision

Falls under Maintenance Bond

When a person has lost stock certificates, bonds or similar instruments, a bond is generally required by the issuing company to reissue the document. This is known as a:
Lost Instrument Bond

Also guarantees to save issuer from any loss growing out of lost instrument

A __ is a selected group of hospitals and medical practitioners in a given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs.
PPO

Most plans provide that emergency treatment will be paid even if treated party does not go to service provider on approved list.

Define the coverage that pays a flat amount per day for hospitalization, regardless of expenses or other insurance:
Hospital Indemnity

This optional provision states that if the insured becomes totally disabled, premiums are waived but the coverage remains in force
Waiver of Premium

Provides coverage for expenses, including loss of income, arising from an accident. This is defined as?
Accident Insurance

Typical exclusions would be: hernia, war, disease and bacterial infections, suicide attempts, air travel injuries, accidents while committing felony, accidents while under the influence

This type of provision states the insurer can refuse to renew the policy only under certain conditions. The policy must state the conditions under which the policy will not be renewed. This is defined as?
Conditionally Renewable

vs. Optionally: company may not cancel during term but reserves right to non-renew upon expiration
vs. Guaranteed: insurer required to renew policy at stated age (typically 65); company reserves right to increase premium

The coverage that is intended to afford protection against catastrophic losses is defined as?
Major Medical

Some forms designed to supplement basic policies; others provide both basic and catastrophic coverage

A policy may contain a provision which states a period of time between issuance and acceptance before sickness benefits begin. This is defined as:
A. Waiting Period
B. Elimination Period
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above
C. Both A & B

This helps keep premiums reasonable by eliminating chance of persons buying coverage only when they are sick

Characteristics of an HMO plan usually include:

(HINT: S F P B C)
S – Small of non-existent Deductibles
F- Fewer Exclusions
P – Insurance services to members through employed physicians
B – Broad coverage
C – Coinsurance provisions

Provides indemnification to the insured for basic hospitalization of room and board in the hospital, nursing care, laboratory fees, operating room, medical supplies, etc. This is defined as?
Hospitalization Expense

Associated with a daily limit, not to exceed specified maximum

A(n) __ provides comprehensive health services to its members for a prepaid fixed fee, equivalent to an insurance premium.
HMO

Referred to as an emerging and increasingly important non-insurance alternative to dealing with risk of health care costs

Established in 1973, this association was created for applicants who are unable to obtain insurance in the private market:
FAJUA

In 2002, the Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association (FRPCJUA) and the Florida Windstorm Joint Underwriting Association (FWUA), were combined to create:
Citizens

Passed during a legislative session in 1993, this association was created for employers who cannot obtain workers compensation insurance in the private market:
FWCJUA

A General Lines Agent instructs a licensed Customer Representative 4-40 to thoroughly cover the details of a new life insurance product with every Homeowner customer who calls or visits the office. The agent provides training on the new product. Although the Customer Representative does not have a Life License, he or she feels comfortable with the training and does as requested.
Which of the following is true?

A. This practice is acceptable if done in the office under supervision of General Lines Agent

B. This practice is acceptable because adequate training and product knowledge was provided

C. This practice is unacceptable and may result in the suspension or revocation of the Customer Representative’s license

D. This practice is only acceptable if the product training was certified by the Life Insurance Company
C. This practice is unacceptable and may result in the suspension or revocation of the Customer Representative’s license

Unlike a Customer Representative, a General Lines Claim Adjuster need not be appointed with the Department of Financial Services.

A. True
B. False
B. False

While selling an Automobile policy to a customer, an agent tells them that they are also required to purchase an Emergency Road Service Plan, even though that is not true. This is an example of:
Sliding

A licensed General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to complete how many hours of continuing education every two years?
24

Once a Customer Representative 4-40 has been licensed and appointed for at least 3 years, he or she may transact insurance in the home of an existing customer.

A. True
B. False
B. False

After pleading guilty or no contest to a felony, a licensed individual has _ days to inform the Department?
30

Must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and can transact AUTO insurance only in the Office Only.
Limited Customer Representative 4-42

Defaming a competitor company or agent is not only unprofessional, it can also result in a license suspension.

A. True
B. False
A. True

A General Lines Claim Adjuster is required to obtain the same number of Continuing Education hours as a licensed Customer Service Representative.

A. True
B. False
B. False

An Insurance Company which is formed under the laws of the State of Illinois, and has its Home Office there, is considered a:
Foreign Company

Domestic: this state (FL)
Foreign: other state (still in US)
Alien: elsewhere

One who is involved in the investigation, adjustment, negotiation and/or trial preparations of claims arising under insurance policies is defined as:
Claims Adjuster

Establishing a dollar value on a claim is defined as:
Evaluation

For bodily injury and uninsured motorist claims, a settlement range will be set rather than a single dollar amount

Damaged property that may be retrieved, reconditioned and sold to reduce an insured loss is defined as:
Salvage

Efficient disposal of salvage reduces amount of loss to either insured or insurer

The voluntary or intentional relinquishment of a known right is defined as a(n):
Waiver

The law recognizes two types: express and implied.

The principle of utmost good faith on which an insurance contract is based places serious responsibilities on the claims adjuster in regards to:

A. Conduct
B. Work Habits
C. Claim Handling Activites
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

The adjusters basic activities in claims handling are:

A. Investigation
B. Evaluation
C. Negotiation
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Investigation – establish coverage, determine liability, verify damages qualify
Evaluation – determine fair payment in accordance with contract and law
Negotiation – settlement based on facts discovered during evaluation

Under the Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act, penalties are provided for misrepresentation of business practices, which include all of the following except:

A. Failing to act promptly
B. Failure to explain claim denials in writing
C. Denying claims with reasonable investigation
D. Failure to maintain complaint handling procedures
C. Denying claims with reasonable investigation

An adjuster who represents the financial interests of the insured named in the policy is defined as a(n):
Public Adjuster

When investigating liability insurance claims, which of the following three major elements are determined: (CLD)
Coverage
Liability
Damages

A relationship that requires maintenance of a high degree of fidelity and loyalty to the interests of the principal, whether or not the adjuster is a direct employee is defined as:
Fiduciary

Should always be maintained whether or not the adjuster is a direct employee

An adjuster who is self employed and not affiliated with either insurers or bureaus is defined as a(n):
Independent Adjuster

The adjuster’s investigation may include all of the following except:

A. Verification of Bills and Estimates
B. Photographs
C. Witness Canvasses
D. Policy Cancellation
Policy Cancellation

The assertion of an alleged legal right against an insurer, which carries with it a demand for appropriate relief, is defined as:
Claim

Relieving the financial burden on the claimant by making certain payments to the claimant even before the claim can be negotiated is defined as:
Advanced Payment

The process of disposing of an insurance claim is defined as:
Adjusting

Also “the negotiation period that results in an agreement”

All of the following are requirements for the “Code of Ethics,” except:

A. Adjusters should not give legal advice
B. Adjusters may negotiate with a claimant who is represented by an attorney
C. A witness who requests a copy of a statement given must be provided with one
D. Adjusters will keep an unprejudiced and open mind
B. Adjusters may negotiate with a claimant who is represented by an attorney

Adjusters MAY NOT. Bad, adjuster, bad!

A written statement given by the insured to the insurer acknowledging that money received in the settlement of damages is received, not as a final payment, but as an advance pending an outcome of a claim against the person responsible for the damage. This is defined as a(n):
Loan Receipt

Enables insurer to bring an action for recovery against a third party

Duties and functions of the Department of Financial Services include all of the following except:

A. Approve the issuance of licenses
B. Rating and underwriting rules
C. Claims Supervision
D. Investigate charges of unethical behavior
Rating and underwriting rules

An adjuster who is a salaried employee under the supervision of the home, branch, or regional claims department of insurers is defined as a(n):
Company or Staff Adjuster

Which of the following are not considered to be an adjuster:

A. Employee or Staff Adjuster
B. Independent Adjuster
C. Public Adjuster
D. General Lines Adjuster
D. General Lines Adjuster

Bureau Adjusters are also considered adjusters.

An applicant for a license as an adjuster may qualify as an adjuster in the following fields (but not limited to):

A. All lines of insurance except life and annuities
B. Property and Casualty
C. Workers Compensation Insurance
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

Also: motor vehicle physical damage and health insurance

A motor vehicle or mobile home which is a total loss is defined as:
Salvage

It cannot be restored to prior condition

When making any payment for damage to an automobile for a partial loss, the insurer shall have printed on the loss settlement, “Failure to use the insurance proceeds in accordance with the security agreement, if any, could be a violation of s.812.014, Florida Statutes.” This is payment for a(n):
Third Party Claim

The District of Columbia and any state or territory of the United States in which an insurance agent maintains his or her principal place of residence or principal place of business and is licensed to act as an insurance agent. This is defined as:
Home State

Any material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal or for its component parts, or a combination of the two. This is defined as:
Derelict

An individual appointed by a general lines or agency to assist that agent or agency in transacting the business of insurance from the office of that agent or agency is defined as:
Customer Representative
(4-40 license)

The authority given by an insurer or employer to a licensee to transact insurance or adjust claims on behalf of an insurer or employer is defined as:
Appointment
Licensees are given authority through the appointment process

The Department may issue a nonrenewable temporary license authorizing the appointment of a general lines insurance agent, life agent, or an industrial fire or burglary agent, for a period not to exceed:
6 Months

How many continuing education hours must an insurance adjuster complete every 2 years?
24

Which of the following are considered unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices:

A. False Statements
B. Unfair Discrimination
C. Unlawful Rebates
D. All of the Above
D. All of the Above

A customer representative appointed by a general lines agent or agency in transacting only the business of private passenger motor vehicle insurance from the office of that agent or agency is defined as:
Limited Customer Service Representative

An individual representing an insurer as to life insurance and annuity contracts, including agents appointed to transact life insurance, fixed-dollar annuities, or variable contracts by the same insurer is defined as:
Life Agent

Charging an applicant for a specific ancillary coverage or product, in addition to the cost of the insurance coverage provided for, without the informed consent of the applicant is a practice of:
Sliding

Which of the following are reasons for refusal, suspension or revocation of a license or appointment?

A. Lack of Qualifications
B. Failure to Pass State Examinations
C. Fraudulent or Dishonest Practices
D. All of the Above
All of the Above

Every licensee shall notify the department, in writing, after a change of name, residence address, principal business street address and/or mailing address within how many days?
30

An agent who transacts any one or more of the following types of insurance: Property, Casualty, Surety, Marine, and Health is defined as a(n):
General Lines Agent

An agent representing a health maintenance organization, or as to health insurance only, an insurer transacting health insurance is defined as a(n):
Health Agent

An applicant for a temporary license must be:

  1. A natural person at least 18 years of age
  2. A US citizen or legal alien

One who is duly authorized by a subsisting certificate of authority issued by the department to transact insurance in this state. This is defined as a(n):
Authorized

Actual Cash Value
Replacement cost minus depreciation

Subrogation
When an insured has a right to collect damages from another party but elects to claim damages under his/her insurance policy; rights transfer to the insurer

Loss Payee Clause
Provides, in event of payment being made under the policy in relation to insured risk, that payment will be made to a third party rather than the beneficiary

Mortgagee Clause
Protects a lender who has an insurable interest in a home
Grants special protection for the interest of a mortgage named in the policy; setting up a separate content between insurer and mortgagee

Liability
Negligence of the insured

Other Structures
Homeowner’s Policy, covers items not permanently attached to main dwelling (shed, fence, etc.)

Commercial Inland Marine
Identifies risks which are eligible for either ocean or inland marine insurance
Developed as extension to Ocean Marine coverage to provide coverage for cargo traveling over land instead of by sea

Umbrella Policy
Covers much higher limit and goes above/beyond claims directly relating to home and auto; protects assets from unforeseen events

Known Loss
Prevents insured from coverage if insured knew the loss was probable at time of contract

Commercial Property Insurance
Sometimes referred to as Commercial Fire and Allied Lines; Covers direct and indirect losses related to properties other than 1-4 family dwelling and farm properties

Value Reporting
Limit of coverage set at an amount higher than expected peak values

Employee Theft
Provides coverage for loss or damage to money, securities, and other property resulting from theft committed by an employee

Bid
Form of bond required to accompany a bid for a contract which will require that successful bidder furnish further bond if awarded job.
Agreement to fulfill a contractual obligation used frequently in construction and supplying goods

PPO
(Preferred Provider Organization)
Selected group of hospitals and medical practitioners in given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs

HMO (pre-paid fixed fee)
(Health Maintenance Organization)
Provides comprehensive health services to its members for a prepaid fixed fee equivalent to an insurance premium

Domestic
Insurer formed under laws of this state

Foreign
Insurer formed under laws of another state, district territory, or commonwealth of U.S.

Alien
Insurer other than domestic or foreign (outside U.S.)

Sliding
Selling an item and stating that it is required by law

Waiver
Voluntary relinquishment or surrender of some right or privilege

Fiduciary
A relationship that requires maintenance of a high degree of fidelity and loyalty to the interests of the principal, whether or not the adjuster is a direct employee

Evaluation
Establishing a dollar value on a claim.
Determines the fair payment in accordance with the contract and applicable law

Negotiation
A quality settlement based on facts discovered during the evaluation process

Estoppel
An equitable principle to the effect that if one intentionally or unintentionally creates the impression that a certain fact exists, an innocent party relies on that impression and is damaged as a result, the guilty party may be legally prohibited (estopped) from asserting that the fact does not exist.

Junk
Any material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, with or without all component parts, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal

Salvage
Damaged property that may be retrieved, reconditioned and sold to reduce an insured loss.
Motor vehicle or mobile home is a total loss

Appointment
Authority given by an insurer or employer to a licensee to transact insurance or adjust claims on their behalf

Derelict
Material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, with or without all component parts, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal or component parts or both

Implied Waiver
May result from some act of neglect on part of the adjuster

Express Waiver
Occurs when insurer or its representative knowingly gives up a known right under insurance contract

Mechanical Breakdown Coverage
Covers repairs to mechanical parts of your vehicle that break; even covers in events not related to an accident

Identify examples of peril.
Fire, windstorm, flood after hurricane, etc.
(something that causes a loss)

How long does one have to notify the Department of Financial Services for a name and/or address change?
30 days

What is the coinsurance clause and how might it apply to a given scenario?
A coinsurance clause on a property policy requires the policyholder to carry, at minimum, a specified percent of the dwelling’s replacement cost. Failure results in monetary penalty.
Almost without exception, the percentage is 80% in coinsurance clauses of homeowner policies – this means the insured should carry 80% of replacement cost if they don’t want to be penalized at the time of loss.

What are the minimum requirements for the Financial Responsibility Law? (there are two)

  1. legal valid claims of others must be satisfied up to the 10/20/10 requirements
  2. owner/operator must provide certification of financial responsibility for future accidents

What is PIP and how may it apply to a given scenario?
Personal Injury Protection with limit of $10,000 per person, per accident
If Jeremy has a not-at-fault accident and he has PIP with a $1000 deductible, he can expect PIP to pay $1,600 of his $3,000 medical bill.
(3,000 – 1,000 = 2,000 x .80 = 1,600)

What is the difference between PIP and Workers Compensation? Which one is excess?
PIP is primary against all other forms of medical and disability insurance coverage. Florida courts have held PIP is excess over Workers Comp. To eliminate duplicate recoveries, the law prohibits persons who have received PIP from recovering same amounts from others in legal liability actions.

What are the basic PIP benefits?

  1. Medical; 80% of reasonable expenses are paid for necessary medical, surgical, x-ray, dental, and rehab services
  2. Work Loss; 60% of any loss of gross income and loss of earning capacity is reimbursed
  3. Replacement Services; 100% for cost of having household services performed by others which the injured person would have normally performed
  4. Death; $5,000 IN ADDITION to the $10,000 in medical/disability benefits afforded by PIP

How does PIP apply to pedestrians (in and out of state)?
PIP applies to Florida residents if struck by insured’s motor vehicle while not occupying a self-propelled vehicle (a pedestrian).
In situations wherein PIP does not apply, named insured and relatives occupying or struck by others vehicles out-of-state; nonresident passengers out-of-state; and nonresidents as pedestrians in Florida – The No-Fault Law has no applicability and usual legal remedies and other insurance coverage’s are to be relied upon.

When can Other-Than-Collision (Comprehensive Coverage) be used?
When there is damage to your vehicle not caused by a collision (hail storm damages hood, animal runs into car, windshield replacement)

What are the penalties for not complying with the No-Fault Law? (3)

(Hint: I L S)

  1. Owner is denied immunities from legal liabilities that are granted to those who comply
  2. Owner is personally liable for payment of PIP benefits to those entitled
  3. Owner’s driver’s license and vehicle registration are subject to suspension

What is the PIP Death Benefit amount?
Effective 1/1/13, the death benefit will be $5,000 IN ADDITION to the $10,000 in medical and disability benefits afforded by PIP.
Example: Joe is seriously injured in an accident and incurs $50,000 in medical bills. He passes away a few days later. PIP would pay its maximum amount of $10,000 and, in addition, pay an extra $5,000 for death benefit.

Who administers the Financial Responsibility Law?
The Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles

What are the characteristics of a Homeowner’s policy?
-protects against economic loss to residence and household property and legal liabilities
-owner/occupants of 1-4 family dwellings
-renters who maintain residential occupancy in any type of building
-other structures (not permanently attached)

What are the benefits under the Workers Compensation Law?
-Medical Expenses: needed medical treatment with no dollar limit
-Disability Benefits: compensation for wage loss
-Death Benefits: if death results within one year of accident or, if it follow continuous disability, within five years after the accident

What are the requirements for continuing education for a 6-20 license?
A licensed General Lines Claims Adjuster is required to complete 24 hours of education every 2 years.

Who might have an insurable interest in a property?
Anyone who would suffer an economic loss from an adverse happening to the property

What do the Declarations of a policy outline?
The declarations identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply

Which parties are associated with a bond?
-Principal: one who undertakes to perform, fulfill a contract, or meet an obligation
-Obligee: one who is guaranteed that the principal will perform
-Surety (Bonding Company): guarantees performance
-Indemnitor: may act as additional party at times; agrees to reimburse the surety for any loss it may suffer from having bonded the principal

What are the features of Major Medical Insurance?
Major Medical Insurance is intended to afford protection against catastrophic losses.
Some forms are designated to supplement basic hospital/surgical policies; others intend to provide both basic and catastrophic coverage
These policies are characterized by a deductible, high maximum limit, and percentage participation or coinsurance. It may contain internal limits for hospital daily room charge and surgical services.

What associations make up Citizens Property and Insurance?
Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association (FRPCJUA) and
Florida Windstorm Joint Underwriting Association (FWUA)

What are the characteristics of a Personal Automobile Policy Declaration page?
Liability (bodily injury), property damage, uninsured motorist, medical payments, PIP, collision deductible, comprehensive deductible, towing coverage, and rental coverage

What are some examples of transacting insurance?

  1. solicitation and inducement
  2. preliminary negotiations
  3. effectuation of a contract of insurance
  4. transaction of matters subsequent to effectuation of contract of insurance
  5. mailing or otherwise delivering written solicitation to any person in this state by an insurer or any person acting on their behalf for fee or compensation

What is the website for the Florida Department of Financial Services?
www.myfloridacfo.com

What are the thresholds of the No-Fault Law?
(1) Significant and permanent loss of a bodily function, or
(2) Permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement, or
(3) Significant and permanent scarring or disfigurement, or
(4) Death.

What is the Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act?
Under this Act, penalties are provided for misrepresentation of business practices including:
-Failing to act promptly
-Failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled thereto
-Failure to explain claim denials in writing
-Failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures, such as keeping accurate records of complaints

What perils are covered by Comprehensive Coverage? Does the deductible apply to them all?
Comprehensive Coverage applies to damage not caused by collision (an animal runs into your vehicle, hail damages your hood, glass claims, etc.)
In Florida, windshields are replaced for free and you ARE NOT responsible for paying a deductible.

What is the time frame for a Non-Renewable Temporary License?
A period not to exceed 6 months

What types of insurance licenses are offered by the Department and how do they differ?

  1. General Lines Agent 2-20: licensed to write property/casualty, surety or health insurance.
  2. Customer Representative 4-40: must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and may assist in transactions in the OFFICE ONLY
  3. Limited Customer Representative 4-42: must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and transact AUTO insurance in the OFFICE ONLY.
  4. All Lines Claims Adjuster 6-20: investigates, Evaluates and Negotiates Claims

What are some reasons for suspension, revocation, or termination of a license?

  1. Transacting insurance outside of scope of one’s license
    ►For example, an individual cannot sell life insurance if he or she has a Customer Service license but has not obtained a life license.
  2. Misrepresentation or Fraud.
  3. Participating in unfair methods of competition.
    ►Using discriminatory practices, making false entries on an insurance application or defaming others.
  4. Sliding: Selling an item and stating that it is required by law (when it is not).
  5. Demonstration of unworthiness or lack of fitness.
  6. Misappropriation of funds.
  7. Failure to inform Department of Financial Services, within 30 days, after pleading guilty or no contest to a felony.

Compare/contrast different types of adjusters.

  1. Independent Adjuster – self-employed and not affiliated with either insurers or bureaus
  2. Company/Staff Adjuster – salaried employee under supervision of home, branch, regional claims department of insurers
  3. Public Adjuster – represents the financial interests of the insured
    named in the policy
  4. Claims Adjuster – one who is involved in the investigation, adjustment, negotiation and/or trial preparations of claims arising under insurance policies
  5. Bureau Adjuster – agent of adjustment bureau which serves multiple
    company clients
    *Independent and Bureau are both “Fee Adjusters”

What is an Insurance Contract?
Insurance is a contract whereby one undertakes to indemnify another or pay or allow a specified amount or a determinable benefit upon determinable contingencies

What are the components that make up the investigation process?
Inquiry, verification, comparison

What are the Code of Ethics for adjusters?
Formal rules which impact on adjuster practices

  1. Adjusters may not directly negotiate with a claimant who is represented by an attorney.
  2. In interviewing witnesses, adjusters must avoid any actions tending to induce a suppression or deviation from the truth. A witness who requests a copy of a statement given must be provided with a copy.
  3. Adjusters shall not give legal advice.
  4. Adjusters shall not draft special releases; they are permitted only to fill in blanks of forms provided by the insurer.
  5. Adjusters will not take advantage of an incapacitated claimant which would be to the detriment of the claimant.
  6. Adjusters will not knowingly fail to advise claimants of their rights under contracts and laws of the state.
  7. Adjusters will approach all aspects of the process with an unprejudiced and open mind, make truthful and unbiased reports, handle all processes with integrity and accept no remuneration other than that to which there is legal entitlement, and act with diligence and due dispatch in achieving proper disposition of claims.
  8. The adjuster must put the duty for fair and honest treatment of the claimant above the adjuster’s own interests, in every instance.

Peril
Something that causes a loss.

Hazard
Something that increases the probability that a loss will occur.

Warranty
A policy condition, either based on information in the insureds application or inserted by the insurer. It is a guarantee of a fact.

Misrepresentation
An untrue statement by the insured, made in an application for insurance but which does not become a part of the policy.

Concealment
The failure of the insured to reveal relevant facts known to the insured in applying for insurance.

Abandonment
Property insurance policies usually contain an abandonment clause, stating the insured cannot dump damaged property on the insurer and demand its full value.

Severability
The insurance applies separately to each insured as if other insureds did not exist.

Proximate Cause
The cause having the most significant impact in bringing about the loss under a first-party property insurance policy, when two or more independent perils operate at the same time (i.e., concurrently) to produce a loss. Courts employ a set of rules to resolve causation disputes when a property policy states that it covers or excludes losses “caused by” a peril and there is more than one peril at work in a fact pattern. Under common law, whether the policy provides coverage depends on which peril is chosen as the proximate cause.

Direct Loss
Physical harm to tangible property.

Indirect Loss
Economic loss which flows as a result of direct loss.

Actual Cash Value(ACV)
Replacement Cost minus Depreciation

Coinsurance
The amount, generally expressed as a fixed percentage, an insured must pay against a claim after the deductible is satisfied. It’s ultimately a way for the insured and insurer to share responsibility for the risk. It can also help reduce the cost of the insurance policy premium. Coinsurance can be written on an 80/20, 90/100, or 100% rule.

Personal Contract
Policies cover people who own and operate things, such as automobiles.

Conditional Contract
Also called a hypothetical contract, is a contract agreement that only requires performance once the delineated conditions are met. This legal agreement requires prior performance of another agreement or clause in order to be enforceable. If the other agreement or condition is performed, then the conditional contract is enforceable and the parties are bound to carry out the terms of the contract.

Contract of Indemnity
Principle of insurance that provides that when a loss occurs, the insured should be restored to the approximate financial condition he/she occupied before the loss occurred, no better or no worse.

Insurable Interest
the reasonable concern of a person to obtain insurance for any individual or property against unforeseen events such as death, losses, etc.

Waiver
1.) Implied voluntary relinquishment, abandoning a legal advantage, need, claim or right.
2.) Agreement or added clause of a policy that excludes some losses or limits the sum of a claim, or extends coverage to add items not in a normal policy.

Express Waiver
Occurs when the insurer or its representative knowingly gives up a known right under the insurance contract.

Implied Waiver
A waiver that is assumed to be in effect from a person’s behavior and shows he is waiving a right.

Damages
Monetary compensation that is awarded by a court in a civil action to an individual who has been injured through the wrongful conduct of another party.

Subrogation
When an insured has a right to collect damages from another party, but instead elects to claim the damages under his insurance policy, his rights against the other party are transferred to the insurer.

Changes
All policies provide that any changes to the policy be made by the insurer, in writing.

Policy Period
The condition states that coverage applies only to losses or occurrences that take place during the policy period. (Prior to the stated date and time of termination).

Policy Territory
Condition limiting coverage to occurrences or losses that take place only within a stated geographical region.

Other Insurance
The principle of indemnity dictates against duplicate recovery for the same loss.

Cancellation
The insured may cancel at any time, for any reason, without advance notice. If the conpany wishes to cancel, it must provide some degree of advance notice so the insured will have time to replace the coverage.

Appraisal
A written contract of or written agreement for or effecting insurance, or the certificate thereof, by whatever name called, and includes all clauses, riders, endorsements and papers which are a part thereof.

Insurance
Is a contract whereby one undertakes to indemnify another or pay or allow a specified amount or a determinable benefit upon determinable contingencies.

Binder
Acts as a temporary contract until the policy is issued.

How many days should an insurer give for prior notice of cancellation of a binder?
5 days.

Property Insurance
Any insurance wherein payment by the insurer will be paid directly to the insured or other specifically named interests.

Liability Insurance
Payment will be on behalf of the insured to another, based upon the insureds liability to the recipient. Simply stated, Liability is “Negligence of the Insured”.

Loss Payee Clause
A Clause in a contract of insurance that provides, in the event of payment being made under the policy in relation to the insured risk, that payment will be made to a 3rd party rather than to the insured beneficiary of the policy.

Mortgage Clause
A property insurance provision granting special protection for the interest of a mortgagee named in the policy, in effect setting up a separate content between the insurer and the mortgagee.

Other Structures
Covers items that are not permanently attached to the main dwelling, such as a shed, fence, etc.

Commercial Inland Marine
Helps identify the kinds of risk which are eligible for either ocean or inland Marine insurance.

Building Ordinance Coverage
This endorsement covers the insured for enforcement of laws which require demolition of undamaged portions of buildings.

Umbrella Policy
Covers a much higher limit and goes above and beyond claims directly relating to your home and auto, it provides your assets from an unforeseen event, such as a tragic accident in which you are held responsible for damages or bodily injuries.

Known Loss
Prevents an insured from coverage if the insured knew the loss was probable at the time of the insurance contract.

Value Reporting
The limit of coverage is set at an amount somewhat higher than expected peak values.

Commercial Property Insurance
Covers direct and indirect losses related to properties other than one to four family dwellings and farm properties.

Employee Theft
Provides coverage for loss of or damage to money, securities, and other property resulting from theft committed by an employee. Theft is defined as the unlawful taking of money, securities or other property to the deprivation of the insured.

Bid
Aggreement to fulfill a contractual obligation used frequently in construction and supplying goods.

Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Provides comprehensive health services to its members for a prepaid fixed fee, equivalent to an insurance premium.

Preferred Provider Organization
(PPO)
A selected group of hospital’s and medical practitioners in a given area who have joined together in an effort to reduce medical costs.

Estoppel
Is an equitable principle to the effect that if one intentionally or unintentionally creates the impression that a certain fact exists, and an innocent party relies on that impression and is damaged as a result, the guilty party may be legally prohibited(estopped) from asserting that the fact does not exist.

Salvage
Motor vehicle or mobile home is a total loss.

Junk
Any material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, with or without all component parts, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal.

Fiduciary Agent
Agent for a principal/Client. The legal or special relationship of trust, confidence, or responsibility between 2 or more parties.

Domestic Insurer
Insurer is one formed under the laws of its this state.

Foreign Insurer
Insurer is one formed under the laws of any state, district territory, or commonwealth of the United States other than this State.

Alien Insurer
Insurer is an insurer other than a domestic or foreign insurer.

Appointment
The authority given by an insurer or employer to a licensee to transact insurance or adjust claims on behalf an insurer or employer.

Derelict
Material which is or may have been a motor vehicle or mobile home, with or without all component parts, which is inoperable and which material is in such condition that its highest or primary value is either in its sale or transfer as scrap metal or component parts or both.

Mechanical Breakdown Coverage
Covers repairs to mechanical parts of your vehicle that break. Even covers break in events not related to an accident.

Sliding
Selling an item and stating that it is required by law.

What is the Death Benefit amount for PIP ?
$5,000

What is the amount for medical and disability benefits afforded by PIP ?
$10,000

Who is the Financial Responsibility Law administered by ?
The Department of Highway Safety and Motor Vehicles.

What are the Basic PIP Benefits ?
-Medical-80% of responsible expenses are paid for necessary medical, surgical, X-Ray and dental.
-Work Loss-60% of any loss of gross income and loss of earning capacity reimbursed.
-Replacement Services-100% for the cost of having household services performed by others.
-Death-Effective 01/01/2013 the death benefit will be $5,000 in addition to the $10,000 in medical and disability benefits afforded by PIP.

Company or Staff Adjuster
Are salaried employees under the supervision of the home, branch or regional claims department of insurers.

Fee Adjusters
Offer their services on a fee-for-service basis. They represent many insurers.

Bureau Adjuster
Employee or agent of an adjustment bureau which serves multiple company clients such as the GAB Business Services, Inc and Underwriters Adjusting Company both national firms.

Independent Adjuster
Are Self-Employed and are not affiliated with either insurers or bureaus. They serve as adjuster representatives of insurers, and their services are compensated on a fee-plus-expenses basis for each loss handled.

Public Adjuster
Is a claims adjuster who is an advocate for the policyholder in appraising and negotiating an insurance claim.

What are the Characteristics of a Personal Auto Policy Declaration Page ?
-Liability(Bodily Injury)
-Property Damage
-Uninsured Motorist
-Medical Payments
-Personal Injury Protection
-Collision Deductible
-Comprehensive Deductible
-Towing Coverage
-Rental Coverage

What are examples of Transacting Insurance?
-Solictitation of Insurance
-Negotiation of Insurance
-Effecting Coverage (Binding insurance coverage)
-Transacting Insurance Matters(during and after insurance is bound).

What are thresholds of the No-Fault Law ?
-Significant and permanent loss of a bodily function or
-Permanent injury other than scarring and disfigurement or
-Significant and permanent scarring or disfigurement or
-Death

What is the adjusters investigation limited too ?
A simple verification of bills and estimates or it may be expanded to include photographs, witness canvasses, or recorded statements as the circumstances require.

What are the componets of a investigation process ?
-Inquiry
-Verification
-Comparison

What are some reasons for suspension, revocation or termination of a license ?
-Transacting Insurance outside of scope of one’s license
-Misrepresentation or fraud
-Sliding
-Demonstration of unworthiness or lack of fitness
-Misappropriation of funds
-Failure to inform Department of financial services, within 30 days, after pleading guilty or no contest to a felony.

Florida Unfair Insurance Trade Practices Act
Describes certain practices, penalties are provided for misrepresentation to insureds and claimants and business practices such as
-Failing to act promptly
-Failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled there to
-Failure to explain claim denials in writing
-Failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures such as keeping accurate records of complaints.

Comprehensive Coverage
Covers all loss except collision or overturn. Standard deductible is $100 per car, $500 per occurrence applies to losses from theft, mischief, and vandalism.

What is the minimum requirements for the Financial Responsibility Law ?
-The legally valid claims of others must be satisfied(up to the 10/20/10 requirements)
-The owner and operator must provide certification of financial responsibility for future accidents. If not satisfied operator’s driver’s license and the registrations of all owned vehicle’s are suspended.

What are the basic activities in claims handling ?
-Investigation to establish coverage, determine legal liability, and verify if the alleged damages qualify the loss for payment.
-Evaluation to determine the fair payment in accordance with the contract and applicable law.
-Negotiation of a quality settlement based on facts discovered during the evaluation process.

Claim
Is the assertion of an alleged legal right against an insurer, which carries with it a demand for appropriate relief.

Claims Adjuster
One who is involved in the investigation, adjustment, negotiation and/or trial preparations of claims arising under insurance policies.

Adjusting
Process of disposing of an insurance claim.

Loan Receipt
A written statement given by the insured to the insurer acknowledging that money received in the settlement of damages is received, not as a final payment, but as an advanced pending the outcome of a claim against the person responsible for the damage.

Apportionment
Is a provision for computing and assigning to each of two or more contracts covering a claim its proportion of the amount of the loss.

How to settle a claim for an Injured Minor ?
Under Fl Law, the adjuster should settle a third-party liability claim of an injured minor child with both parents of the injured child, presuming the settlement is for an amount not in excess of $15,000. If it is more than that it must be consummated through the Circuit or County Courts.

What are the violations of the Unfair Trade Practices Act ?
-Failing to act promptly.
-Failure to affirm or deny a claim when an insured is entitled thereto.
-Failure to explain claim denials in writing.
-Failure to maintain complaint-handling procedures, such as keeping accurate records of complaints.

Section 624.155 of the Florida Statues provides ?
That any person who is damaged by certain insurer practices is granted a right to sue the insurer for damages.

The Principle Of Utmost Good Faith
An insurance contract is based, places serious responsibilities on the claim adjuster with regard to conduct, work habits, and specific claims handling activities.

What does 10/20/10 mean ?
10=10,000 Livability per person injured-amount that will be paid out for injuries to one person.

20=20,000 Combined Total Liability for all injuries-this is the most paid out for injuries for an accident.

10=10,000 Property Damage-the most paid out for damage caused to property of others.

What is SR-22 ?
A form of coverage known as a NAMED NOOWNER policy is required, this form offers insurance coverage only while the insured is operating automobiles owned by others.

What are the two things that need to happen for financial responsibility that did not exist at the time of the accident ?
-The legally valid claims of others must be satisfied(up to the 10/20/10 requirements).
-The owner and operator must provide certification of financial responsibility for future accidents.

What are the main elements of the FL Law ?
-Those who comply with the law have limited immunity from tort suits.
-As one may not be able to seek legal liability damages against another for bodily injuries, the law substitutes, under one’s own insurance, the coverage defined as Personal Injury Protection(PIP)

How many days does a Non-Resident’s vehicle physically present in FL have subject to the No-fault law ?
90 days.

What are the three penalties for non-compliance with the compulsory insurance requirements ?
-The owner is denied the immunities from legal liabilities that are granted to those who comply.
-The owner is personalltly liable for payment of PIP benefits to those entitled to such benefits.
-The owner’s driver’s license and vehicle registration are subject to suspension, as under the Financial Responsibility Law.

What does Extended PIP do ?
-Increases medical benefits from 80% to 100%.
-Increases income loss from 60% to 80%.
-Applies only to named insured and family members.

What does additional PIP do ?
-Increases the $10,000 limit by amounts such as $10,000, $25,000, $40,000, and $90,000(again, for a premium increase).
-Increases do not impact $5,000 death benefit.
-Applies only to insured and family members.

Personal Auto Policy
Used to insure the automobile exposures of individuals and families.

Business Auto Policy
Insurers the automobile exposures of Business.

What are the kinds of autos owned by businesses and covered under a Business Auto Policy ?
-Private Passenge Type Auto-Station Wagons, jeeps, pickups, panel trucks, vans, and utility trailers.
-Public Auto- Buses and Taxicabs
-Commercial Auto- truck tractors, semi-trailers, commercial trailers, and Service trailers.
-Special types of vehicles like cherry pickers, air compressors.

Garage Coverage Form
Used to insure businesses engaged in selling, servicing, repairing, parking or storing autos.

Truckers Coverage Form
Used to insure businesses that are hired to transport goods for someone else.

Business Auto Coverage Form
Used to insure the automobile exposures of all businesses other than garage or trucking businesses.

What does Commercial General Liability contract includes ?
-Declarations
-Common policy conditions
-One of the two coverage forms, Occurrence, or Claims-Made
-A Nuclear Energy Liability Exclusion endorsement
-Various other endorsements may be attached to broaden or restrict the coverage provided by these basic forms.

Declarations
Identifies the named insured and address, states the policy period and premium and miscellaneous information about the insured, and specifies the limits of coverage that apply.

The policy states that if a company wishes to cancel, How many days must it give prior notice ?
30 days.

Nuclear Endorsement
Excludes all hazards related to nuclear energy.

What is Coverage A ?
Bodily Injury and Property Damage Insuring Agreement.

Bodily Injury(BI)
Physical harm and includes sickness or disease or death resulting there from.

Property Damage(PD)
Physical injury to tangible property, including loss of use of that property.

Occurrence
An accident, including. continues or repeated exposure to substantially the same general harmful conditions.

Accident
A sudden, unexpected event.

Coverage Territory
Is the U.S. and its territories or possessions , Puerto Rico and Canada, including international waters and airspace between these places.

The Coverage Trigger
Determines how policy will respond.

The Occurrence form
Applies to BI or PD which occurs during the policy period, regardless of any later time at which a claim is made.

The Claims-Made form
Applies only to a BI or PD which occurs on or after the retroactive date, and for which the claim is received or recorded by an insured or the company during the policy period.

Retroactive Date
Establishes the original policy date for a serious of claims made policies.

Intentionally Injury
Coverage excludes injury or damage which is expected or intended by the insured.

liquor Liability
If the insured is in the business of manufacturing, distributing, selling, serving or furnishing alcoholic beverages, liability associated with serving liquor to intoxicated or underage persons or in violation of a law is excluded.

Employee Injuries
Coverage excludes liabilities under a workers compensation or similar law or arising from injuries to employees of the insured.

Pollution
There a basically no coverage for injury, damage or clean up costs caused by pullutants, subject to minor exceptions.

What is Coverage B ?
Personal and Advertising Injury.

What is Coverage C ?
Medical Payments.

What are the General Liability Insurance Forms ?
-Owners and Contractors Protective Liability(OCP)Form.
-Liquor Liability Coverage Form.
-Products/Completed Operations Liability Coverage Form
-Pollution Liability Coverage and Pollution Limited Form.

Professional Liability Insurance Coverage
Covers liability arising from rendering of or failure to render professional services.

Farm Liability Coverage Form
Provides coverage for BI or PD arising out of farming operations of personal activities.

The Custom Farming Endorsement
Provides coverage for liability arising from the insureds performance of farming operations for another, for a charge under any contract or agreement.

The Farm Employers Liability/Medical Payments Endorsement
Applies the basic Liability and Medical Payments coverages to injuries to farm employees, but not to employees eligible to receive workers compensation benefits.

Employment Related Practices Liability
This Form provides employers witg claims- made coverage for liability arising out of claims for injury to an employee because of an employment-related offense.

Unauthorized Entity
An entity that is required to be licensed or registered with the Florida Office of Insurance Regulation but is operating without the proper authorization is identified as an unauthorized insurer.

To be Authorized and transact business in FL what must you have ?
Certificate of Authority.

General Lines Agent 2-20
Licensed to write property/casualty, surety, or health insurance.

Customer Representative 4-40
Must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and may assist in transactions in the OFFICE ONLY.

Limited Customer Representative 4-42
Must be licensed, appointed by a General Lines Agent and transact AUTO insurance in the OFFICE ONLY.

All Lines Claims Adjuster 6-20
Investigates, Evaluates, and Negotiates Claims.

A General Lines Adjuster is required to do what ?
Participate in 24 hrs of continuing education every 2 years.

A licensee must notify the Department in writing in how many days for change of name, address, phone number or email ?
30 days.

Loss Sustained
Cover only losses that both occurred and were discovered during the policy period, or within one year of it’s expiration.

Discovery
Any loss discovered during the policy period or within 60 days after it’s expiration is called regardless of when it occurred.

Property Covered
The policy covers only property the named insured owns or holds or for which the insured is legally liable, and for the benefit of the insured.

Safe Depository
Covers the named insureds legal liability if it is the safe depository for customers property. Perils covered include burglary, robbery, destruction on damage.

Valuation
Money is valued at its face value; securities at their value on the day loss is discovered; and other property at actual replacement cost or, if less, cost to repair.

Government Crime
A slightly different set of basic Crime Coverage Forms is tailored for insuring governmental entities.

Guests’ Property
Covers the named insureds legal liability for guest’s property while in a safe deposit box or while the property is inside the premises or in the named insureds possession.

Commercial Crime Forms
Crime Insurance may be written as a separate policy, with it’s own Declaration and Conditions, or as a package policy, bundled together with Employee Dishonesty.

Forgery Or Alteration
Provides coverage for loss by forgery or alteration of negotiable instruments, such as checks, drafts, promissory notes or similar instruments calling for payment of a sum certain in money.

Computer Fraud
Will pay for the loss of or damage to money, securities and other property resulting from using a computer to fraudulently transport from inside the insureds promises to a person or place outside the premises, which encompasses anywhere in the world.

Extortion
Covers for all types of property, when surrendered away from the premises as a result of a threat to do bodily harm to the insured or an employee, or to a relative or invitee of either, who is being held captive.

Clients Property
Offers coverage for non-owned property for which the insured is legally liable while the property is on the premises of the insureds client.

Lesses of Safe Deposit Boxes
Covers theft, disappearance, or destruction of securities; and burglary or robbery of property other than money or securities, all from within designated places of safe depository.

Funds Transfer Fraud
Is designed to cover loss due to the fraudulent transfer of funds through the use of a telephone or fax machine.

Securities Deposited with Others
Covers theft, disappearance, or destruction of securities, which have been deposited with a custodian, such as a bank or stockbroker.

The deductible
The dollar amount that the insured pays before the insurer is required to pay the remainder of the loss is known as?

Replacement cost
Which loss settlement provides new for old?

the claims adjuster’s role in the insurance industry includes
Give appropriate legal advice and write binding contracts

following are examples of a peril
Lighting, Explosion and Fire

The abandonment clause
The clause that prohibits the insured from dumping damaged property on the insurance company and demanding to be paid in full is?

Liberalization
When a policy change results in broadened coverage with no additional premium, the insured automatically receives the benefit under the principle of?

Risk
The chance of financial loss is known as?

Percentage
Hurricane insurance in coastal areas in Florida is written subject to which of the following deductibles?

The principle of proximate cause
When there is an unbroken connection between an occurrence and the damage that arises from the occurrence, and all the resulting damage happened on account of that occurrence, this is known as?

characteristics of a contract
Consideration must be given to at least one party

Primary
When two or more policies apply to the same loss, the one that pays first is called?

Mortgagee Clause
The clause that protects the lender in a real property policy is the?

Indemnity
The concept that one should not profit from the payment provided by an insurance policy is known as?

Property or first-party insurance
Payment the insurance company makes directly to the insured is?

Written
To be considered an insurance contract, a policy must be?

Subrogation
When the insured transfers his/her rights to collect for damages to the insurer, it is known as?

The insured
If an insurance policy is unclear or ambiguous, in whose favor does the policy respond?

Insurable interest
A partial owner of a building cannot receive full value for the building in the event of a loss because of?

Comparative negligence
Reduces the insured’s damages by the degree of negligence

the following are part of an insurance policy
Exclusions, Declarations and Endorsementd

ACV
replacement cost minus depreciation

The insured’s house is totally destroyed in a fire. The house is insured for $200,000. The adjuster who investigates the claims determines the ACV of the home is $185,000.
The Florida Valued Policy Law requires the insurer to pay $200,000

describe a franchise deductible
No payment is made until the loss equals or exceeds the amount of the deductible and then the loss is paid in full

All of the following are characteristics of an insurance contract EXCEPT? Personal, Private, Conditional, Adhesion?
Private

If a claimant is represented by an attorney, the adjuster should?
Only meet with the client when the attorney is present

Adjusters should advise claimants on?
claims information

An adjuster is required to notify a claimant when a claim is denied. The notification must be?
Written

The term ethics refers to?
service to others, personal respect and proper mode of conduct

When an adjuster deals with a claimant who is not a policyholder, this claim is known as an?
third party claim

The successful adjuster/negotiator should understand that communication includes all of the following EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. Verbal and non-verbal messages
B. Questioning
C. Listening
D. Decision-making
Decision-making

Which of the following is not a duty of the claims adjuster?
Select one:
A. Investigating
B. Evaluating
C. Negotiating
D. Counseling
Counseling

The adjuster’s duty to the insurer is best described as?
Select one:
A. Friendly
B. Factual
C. Fun
D. Fiduciary
Fiduciary

Errors and Omissions claims are a result of?
Select one:
A. unethical behavior
B. lack of knowledge or information
C. Both unethical behavior and lack of knowledge or information are correct
D. Neither unethical behavior and lack of knowledge or information are correct
Both unethical behavior and lack of knowledge or information are correct

Unethical behavior affects?
Select one:
A. The claimant
B. The adjuster
C. All of the above
D. The entire company
All of the above

All of the following are components of negotiating EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. The issue should be negotiable
B. There must be an exchange of value for value
C. The parties should trust each other
D. The claimant must be satisfied
The claimant must be satisfied

The Civil Remedies Provision of the Insurance Code states that adjusters should not?
Select one:
A. Handle claims in a prompt manner
B. Accompany claims payments with statements explaining coverage
C. Settle claims in good faith
D. Try to influence settlements
Try to influence settlements

The insured, a resident of Florida, was in an accident in Georgia. The Florida car was insured with liability limits of 10/20/10. Georgia’s minimum liability limits are 20/40/10. How will the Florida policy respond?
Select one:
A. 10/20/10
B. 20/40/10
C. No coverage
D. 20/40/20
20/40/10

Under a PAP, when does the insurance company cease to defend the insured?
Select one:
A. The insurance company is not obligated to defend the insured
B. After the case has been resolved
C. When the policy limit is exhausted
D. At the policy’s expiration
When the policy limit is exhausted

The Florida Financial Responsibility Law is triggered by?
Select one:
A. Registration of the vehicle
B. Purchase of the vehicle
C. An accident involving bodily injury or property damage
D. Purchase of an auto policy
An accident involving bodily injury or property damage

The insured is an owner and is insured for PIP. She is injured in an accident and has the following damages? medicals-$12,000, lost wages-$6,000. How much will PIP pay if there is a $1,000 deductible?
Select one:
A. $11,200
B. $12,400
C. $9,600
D. $10,000
$10,000

Trucker insurance premiums are based on all EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. Radius
B. Age of the driver
C. Type of business
D. Territory garaged
Age of the driver

Joe works for Sinks-R-Us, Inc. As part of his compensation package, he is supplied with a company car, which he gets to take home every night. Joe wants to make sure the Liability coverage under his PAP covers him while driving his company car. What coverage would you add to Joe’s PAP?
Select one:
A. Named Non-owned coverage
B. Extended Non-owned Liability coverage
C. Drive Away Liability coverage
D. False Pretense coverage
Extended Non-owned Liability coverage

Dan has a Personal Auto Policy with Liability of 10/20/10 and basic PIP with a $1,000 deductible. He is running one day when a car strikes him. A week later he dies. Medical bills are $7,500 and lost wages are $1,000. How much, if any, will PIP pay in this claim?
10,800.00

Joe is an owner insured for PIP. In which of the following situations does Joe have his PIP benefits available to him?
Select one:
A. In a slip and fall accident in the mall in Florida
B. In an accident while riding his motorcycle
C. Struck as a pedestrian in Georgia
D. In an accident while riding as a passenger in a friend’s car in Florida
In an accident while riding as a passenger in a friend’s car in Florida

The insured bought a new car with a Mechanical Breakdown Policy. When the odometer reaches 40,000 the car has a serious breakdown involving the transmission. How does the Mechanical Breakdown Policy respond?
Select one:
A. No coverage because the policy expired
B. No coverage because a transmission is not covered
C. ACV coverage will apply
D. Replacement cost coverage will apply
No coverage because the policy expired

An insured borrows his neighbor’s trailer to pick up his new furniture. Which of the following best describes the insured if he has an accident?
Select one:
A. His PAP will extend coverage if the proper endorsement is added
B. Only the liability of the PAP extends to the trailer
C. His auto is insured, but not the borrowed trailer
D. His PAP extends liability to the trailer and Part D-Physical Damage extends $1,500 coverage to the borrowed trailer
His PAP extends liability to the trailer and Part D-Physical Damage extends $1,500 coverage to the borrowed trailer

Jane is driving Mary’s car. Jane has an at-fault accident with Bob. Mary has liability limits of 10/20/10. Jane has liability limits of 100/300/100. If Bob has $40,000 in bodily injury, how much will be collected from Jane’s policy? (IGNORE PIP)
Select one:
A. $30,000
B. $10,000
C. $50,000
D. $20,000
$30,000

Jim owns an auto and he is involved in an auto accident. He suffered $4,000 in medical expenses and $4,000 of lost income. How much does his insurance pay if he has Extended PIP? Select one:
A. $7,200
B. $8,200
C. $4,200
D. $5,200
$7,200

If an insured has $100,000 of unstacked UM coverage with three cars on the policy, how much is available under a UM claim?
Select one:
A. $0-
B. $300,000
C. $100,000
D. $200,000
$100,000

The insured has a PAP with single liability of $50,000. The following loss occurs: $37,000-BI pedestrian; $3,000-Display window; $10,000-Sports car; $1,500-Legal defense. How much would his policy pay for the loss?
Select one:
A. $51,500
B. $37,000
C. $40,000
D. $50,000
$51,500

The insured is driving down the road when a low hanging branch strikes and cracks his windshield. The cost to replace the windshield is $650. The insured has a $500 collision deductible and a $250 other than collision deductible. The insurance company will pay…?
Select one:
A. $250
B. No coverage
C. $500
D. $650
$650

Which of the following is covered under PAP liability?
Select one:
A. Intentional damage
B. Permissive use of insured’s automobile
C. Damage to property owned by the insured
D. Injury to an employee in the course of employment
Permissive use of insured’s automobile

Joe is injured when the jack slips as he is changing a tire in his driveway. The bill for his treatment in the emergency room is $450. Where will Joe go first to collect for his medical expenses?
Select one:
A. Worker’s Compensation
B. His PIP insurance
C. His homeowner insurance
D. His health insurance
His PIP insurance

All of the following UM options are available to an insured, EXCEPT?
Select one:
A. May purchase UM coverage less than liability limits
B. May purchase UM coverage more than liability limits
C. May reject UM coverage in writing
D. May elect non-stacked UM coverage in writing
May purchase UM coverage more than liability limits

The Truckers form that provides liability coverage for damage to non-owned trailers is called?
Select one:
A. Interchange coverage
B. Commercial Trailer coverage
C. Trailer Interchange coverage
D. Trailer coverage
Trailer Interchange coverage

Hail damage to an auto is an example of?
Select one:
A. An exclusion to Part A-Liability
B. An exclusion to Part D-Physical Damage
C. Other than collision
D. Collision
Other than collision

Tom is injured in a not at-fault auto accident and has temporary injuries. What can be recovered in a tort claim if he has $16,000 in medical bills with a $1,000 PIP deductible?
Select one:
A. $6,000
B. $5,000
C. $15,000
D. $10,000
$6,000

The coverage that provides Liability, Medical Payments and Uninsured Motorist for a named individual who does not own an automobile is?
Select one:
A. Extended Non Owned
B. Driver Other Car
C. Named Non Owned
D. Extended PIP
Named Non Owned

Uninsured Motorists coverage is used to cover the insured for?
Select one:
A. Bodily injury only
B. Bodily injury and property damage
C. Medical payments
D. Liability
Bodily injury only

Sam is an owner and not insured for PIP. Sam borrows Fred’s car, which is insured for PIP. Sam has an at-fault accident when he strikes Betty’s car. Betty is insured for PIP. As a result of Sam’s negligence, Betty is injured and has $5,000 in medical bills. Which of the following is true?
Select one:
A. Sam does not have Tort Exemption
B. Betty may sue Sam and Fred for $5,000
C. Betty must use her own PIP to pay her medical bills
D. Sam may recover any damages from Fred’s PIP
Betty must use her own PIP to pay her medical bills

Susie is driving down the street when a dog runs in front of her car. She swerves to avoid the dog and hits a tree. This is an example of?
Select one:
A. Collision
B. Both A and B
C. Other than collision
D. Neither A or B
Collision

Which of the following is not eligible for a homeowners policy?
Select one:
A. Tom who owns the house he rents to his neighbor
B. Joe who lives is a garage apartment
C. A husband and wife who own a vacation home in Georgia
D. Betty who rent a condominium unit
Tom who owns the house he rents to his neighbor

Homeowner policies are rated on all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Location of the dwelling
B. Age of the homeowner
C. Fire protection available
D. Construction of the dwelling
Age of the homeowner

The insured lives in his principal residence 80% of the year. A flood loss would be paid at which of the following?
Select one:
A. At 80% coinsurance
B. Replacement Cost
C. ACV
D. Valued Policy
Replacement Cost

Under a Dwelling Policy, all of the following are eligible, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. A rental apartment in a commercial building
B. A 1-6 family dwelling
C. A two-family dwelling owned by a corporation
D. A mobile home
A 1-6 family dwelling

When a community applies for flood coverage, until they are approved they are under:
Select one:
A. The Regular Program
B. The Special Program
C. The Emergency Program
D. The Flood Program
The Emergency Program

If an insured sells his house to another person, the buyer is prohibited from receiving the seller’s insurance policy because insurance is a contract of:
Select one:
A. Conditions
B. Adhesion
C. Indemnity
D. A personal nature
A personal nature

All of the following are eligible for a Homeowner Policy, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Renters who maintain resident in any type of building
B. Dwellings owned by a corporation
C. Owner-occupants of 1-4 family dwellings
D. Condominium unit owners
Dwellings owned by a corporation

Outdoor equipment used to service the premises is covered under:
Select one:
A. Coverage C
B. Coverage A
C. Coverage B
D. Coverage D
Coverage C

A contract condition of the Homeowners policy which provides that the insured gets the benefit of broadened coverage if the company adopts a broader form without an increase in premium is:
Select one:
A. Subrogation
B. Liberalization
C. Assignment
D. Coinsurance
Liberalization

The coverage territory for Personal Inland Marine Insurance (PAF) is:
Select one:
A. Whatever is specified in the policy
B. Worldwide
C. United States
D. U.S., Canada, and U.S. territories
Worldwide

What condition must be met in a HO Policy for replacement cost to settle the loss?
Select one:
A. The insured must replace the item lost or damaged
B. All of these answers are correct
C. The insured must file the claim within 10 days
D. The insured must carry insurance of at least 80% of the cost to replace the dwelling
The insured must carry insurance of at least 80% of the cost to replace the dwelling

Which HO form covers a condo owner?
Select one:
A. HO-3
B. HO-2
C. HO-6
D. HO-4
HO-6

Joe had a Dwelling Policy with $40,000 Coverage A limit. A covered loss occurred that totaled the dwelling and the detached garage. The loss to the detached garage was $6,000. How much will be paid to Joe to cover this loss?
Select one:
A. $44,000
B. $40,000
C. $46,000
D. There is no coverage
$44,000

Tommy and Chris leave their golf clubs in the trunk of Tommy’s car when they stop to eat lunch. Both sets of clubs are stolen. Which policy covers Chris’ clubs?
Select one:
A. Tommy’s HO
B. Tommy’s auto
C. Chris’ auto
D. Chris’ HO
Chris’ HO

Which of the following is not covered under Coverage C of a HO Policy?
Select one:
A. An aquarium is knocked over and the fish die
B. A student away at school has his golf clubs stolen
C. An insured’s luggage is stolen from his hotel room
D. A weekend guest loses his hearing aid during a fire
An aquarium is knocked over and the fish die

The clause that protects the lender in a real property policy is the:
Select one:
A. Coinsurance Clause
B. Loss Payee Clause
C. Appraiser Clause
D. Mortgagee Clause
Mortgagee Clause

Under an HO3 policy, if Coverage A is $250,000, Coverage B is:
Select one:
A. $10,000
B. None of the above
C. $20,000
D. $25,000
$25,000

An HO-4 Policy is designed for a:
Select one:
A. Condo owner
B. Home owner
C. All of the above
D. Renter
Renter

What is the deductible for a Personal Articles Floater (PAF)?
Select one:
A. $250
B. $100
C. $500
D. $0
$0

An insured has $200,000 Coverage A dwelling coverage, under his HO-3 Policy. He incurs the following damage from a covered peril: fence – $5,000; gazebo – $7,500; tool shed -$15,000. What will his HO Policy will pay?
Select one:
A. $10,000
B. No coverage
C. $25,000
D. $20,000
$20,000

Which situation is not covered for liability under an HO3 policy?
Select one:
A. Mike used a 4-wheel ATV to haul yard clippings to his compost pile. A neighbor is on Mike’s property and Mike accidentally runs into him with the ATV.
B. Mike rents the community center for his son’s wedding reception. A guest falls and the guest sues Mike for injuries.
C. Mike owns a 16 foot. 100 H.P. outboard motor boat and he has an at-fault accident in which he totally destroys another boat. The owner of the boat sues Mike.
D. Someone falls at the house Mike is planning to live in after it is built
Mike owns a 16 foot. 100 H.P. outboard motor boat and he has an at-fault accident in which he totally destroys another boat. The owner of the boat sues Mike.

Which of the following are available as HO hurricane deductibles?
Select one:
A. All of the above
B. 2%
C. 5%
D. $500
All of the above

If flooding is confined to one area, the flood water must cover:
Select one:
A. The building
B. Over three acres of land
C. Over two acres of land
D. Over an acre of land
Over two acres of land

A house under construction is eligible for a Homeowner Policy if:
Select one:
A. None of these answers are correct
B. The builder doesn?t qualify for a Commercial Property Policy
C. The builder is licensed
D. The insured will be the owner-occupant
D. The insured will be the owner-occupant

If an Umbrella Policy serves as primary coverage, what part of the policy allows the insurer to apply a deductible?
Select one:
A. The Stand Alone Form
B. The Follow Form
C. The Self-insured Retention
D. None of these answers are correct
The Self-insured Retention

The provision in the Builders Risk Coverage Form that penalizes the insured for underinsurance is called:
Select one:
A. Coinsurance
B. Full Reporting
C. Agreed Value
D. Adequate Insurance Clause
Adequate Insurance Clause

The insured has a building that has been vacant for 75 days. Which of the following are covered?
Select one:
A. Theft
B. Glass breakage
C. Weight of ice and snow
D. Vandalism
Weight of ice and snow

The insured owns a fireworks factory, which is especially busy during the months of June and July. Which endorsement should he purchase to cover his inventory during these months?
Select one:
A. Building Ordinance
B. Value Reporting
C. Peak Season
D. Inflation Guard
Peak Season

The Builders Risk coverage form covers:
Select one:
A. Contractors
B. Buildings under construction
C. Investors
D. Builders
Buildings under construction

The Builders Risk Coverage Form assumes which coinsurance provision:
Select one:
A. 90%
B. 100%
C. 80%
D. 70%
. 100%

In the event that the Condominium Association Coverage form and the Condominium Unit Owners Coverage form both cover a loss, which of the following is true?
Select one:
A. Both forms pay equally
B. The Unit Owner form is primary and the Association form is excess.
C. The two forms are prorated
D. The Association form is primary and the Unit Owner form is excess
The Association form is primary and the Unit Owner form is excess

Both commercial property and liability were combined into one policy, thus saving money on underwriting expense. What is this combination called?
Select one:
A. A monocline policy
B. A valid policy
C. A combination policy
D. A package policy
A package policy

Under the Business and Personal Property Coverage Form the provision for suspension for certain perils applies after:
Select one:
A. 60 days vacancy
B. 30 days vacancy
C. 90 days vacancy
D. 120 days vacancy
60 days vacancy

Under Business Income Coverage, the period of restoration begins:
Select one:
A. 72 hours after reporting the loss
B. 72 hours after the date of direct damage
C. 48 hours after the date of direct damage
D. 48 hours after reporting the loss
72 hours after the date of direct damage

All of the following are included in the definition of a building, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Floor coverings
B. Wall treatments (wallpaper)
C. Temporary structures on or within 100 feet of the premises
D. Copy machines
Copy machines

Three types of property are covered under the Building and Personal Property coverage form. They are:
Select one:
A. Building; Business Personal Property; Personal Property of Others
B. Building; Your Personal Property; Detached structures
C. Building; Personal Property; Personal Property of Others
D. Building; Your Business Personal Property; Your Personal Property
Building; Business Personal Property; Personal Property of Others

When covered property is damaged, the cost for temporary repairs and the cost to expedite permanent repairs or replacement is covered under:
Select one:
A. Defense Costs
B. Supplementary Payments
C. Automatic Coverage
D. Expediting Expenses
Expediting Expenses

A florist wanted coverage on business contents, which vary in amount over the course of a year. Which form best fits this situation?
Select one:
A. Peak Season Endorsement
B. None of the above
C. Value Reporting Endorsement
D. An automatic increase in insurance
Value Reporting Endorsement

Under the Business and Personal Property Coverage Form, all of the following are additional coverages EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Cost to hire a night watchman
B. Cost to preserve property
C. Debris Removal
D. Fire Department Service Charge
Cost to hire a night watchman

Which exposures are covered by the Leaseholder Interest Coverage Form?
Select one:
A. All of the above
B. A loss of any unused prepaid rent
C. An unused part of tenant improvements
D. A tenant’s loss of a favorable lease/sub-lease
All of the above

A claim is made under a CGL for a slip and fall injury. Two years later the injured person comes back saying the injury has flared-up. Is the reoccurrence covered under CGL Medical Payments?
Select one:
A. Yes, expenses are covered because of proximate cause.
B. No, slip and falls are not covered under Medical Payment coverage
C. Yes, expenses are covered within three years of the injury.
D. No, expenses are covered within one year of the injury.
No, expenses are covered within one year of the injury.

Acme Toys has a CGL policy. They hold a party and one of the guests has a little too much to drink. If the guest injures someone and the injured party sues the Acme Toys, the CGL policy:
Select one:
A. Will cover if the insure has Liquor Liability Coverage
B. Will not cover
C. Will cover if the insured has Legal Liability Coverage
D. Will cover the claim
Will cover the claim

An employee is hurt on the insured’s premises. Three months later the employee dies. Are the employees funeral expenses covered under the company’s CGL Medical Payments?
Select one:
A. Yes, the claim was made within one year time period
B. No, the claim was filed too late
C. Yes, the employee is automatically covered
D. No, employees are not covered for Med Pay
No, employees are not covered for Med Pay

How long does the insured have to request the “Supplemental Extended Reporting Period” after the expiration of the claims-made CGL policy?
Select one:
A. 90 days
B. 30 days
C. 180 days
D. 60 days
60 days

The retroactive date under the CGL established the earliest date a claim will be paid by the insurance company under the:
Select one:
A. Claims-Made form
B. Occurrence form
C. Both the Occurrence and Claims-Made form
D. Products and Completed Operations form
Claims-Made form

hysicians, Surgeons and Dentists Insurance will cover:
Select one:
A. Blood Banks
B. Veterinarians
C. All of these
D. Optometrists
All of these

The basic amount of Medical Payment coverage under a CGL policy is:
Select one:
A. $2,000
B. $3,000
C. $1,000
D. $5,000
$5,000

Tom purchases a CGL – Occurrence form with an effective date of 1-1-03. He purchases a claims-made CGL with an effective date of 1-1-04. An injury from 8-1-03 is filed in 2005 when a claim is made. Which policy covers the injury?
Select one:
A. 1-1-03 policy
B. 1-1-04 policy
C. No coverage
D. 1-1-05 policy
1-1-03 policy

All of the following are covered under Supplemental Payments in a CGL EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Expenses incurred at the company’s request
B. Lost wages up to $100/day
C. Bails bonds up to $250
D. Interest on judgments
Lost wages up to $100/day

Which of the following is not a covered territory for a CGL policy?
Select one:
A. Canada
B. United States
C. Puerto Rico
D. Mexico
Mexico

Mr. Smith buys a CGL claims-made policy on 1-1-04 with a retroactive date of the policy’s inception of 1-1-04. He buys another CGL claims-made policy on 1-1-05 with a retroactive date of 1-1-05. An accident occurs on 7-1-04 and the claimant files this injury on 9-1-05. Which policy covers?
Select one:
A. 1-1-04 claims-made policy
B. 1-1-05 claims made policy
C. 1-1-04 is primary and 1-1-05 policy is excess
D. Neither policy covers
Neither policy covers

What is unique about lawyer’s professional liability insurance?
Select one:
A. It covers claims that existed before the policy was effective.
B. It deducts claims expenses first and the balance is payable for the claim.
C. It covers lawyers for fraudulent activities.
D. It covers only lawyers in group practice.
It deducts claims expenses first and the balance is payable for the claim.

The three parties to a bond are:
Select one:
A. Surety, principal and cosigner
B. Surety, insured and insurer
C. Surety, obligee and indemnitor
D. Surety, obligee and principal
Surety, obligee and principal

Safe Burglary is defined as:
Select one:
A. The taking of property by someone who has caused bodily harm
B. The taking of property by someone who has entered the premises unlawfully as evidenced by visible signs of forced entry
C. The taking of property by someone who has entered the premises unlawfully as evidenced by visible signs of forced entry and caused bodily harm
D. Any act of stealing
The taking of property by someone who has entered the premises unlawfully as evidenced by visible signs of forced entry

All of the following are penalties for non-compliance with Workers Compensation laws, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. The employer may be charged a $1000 fine, plus $100 for each day of non-compliance
B. The employer may be charged with a second-degree misdemeanor
C. The employer’s business property may be seized
D. The employer’s business may be closed
The employer’s business property may be seized

Under Workers Compensation, what is the waiting period for disability benefits to begin?
Select one:
A. 30 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
7 days

A fourth party to a bond is called a:
Select one:
A. Surety
B. Principal
C. Indemnitor
D. Obligee
Indemnitor

Bill sent a cashier’s check through the mail, but it never arrived at the destination of the recipient. Under which bond can the cashier’s check be replaced?
Select one:
A. Fiduciary bond
B. Blue Sky bond
C. Lost Instrument bond
D. Payment bond
Lost Instrument bond

A Florida employee was sent Boston to work for one week. While in Boston, they were injured on the job. How is the injury covered under WC benefits?
Select one:
A. The injury is covered under Florida’s WC law
B. There is no coverage under either state law
C. The injury is covered under Massachusetts WC law
D. None of the above
The injury is covered under Florida’s WC law

Contract bonds include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Permit bond
B. Performance bond
C. Bid bond
D. Maintenance bond
Permit bond

In the non-construction industry, all of the following employments are exempt from Workers Compensation EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Pro athletes
B. Casual labor completed in 30 days for $750
C. Labor under sentence of a court order
D. Domestic servants in private homes
Casual labor completed in 30 days for $750

Which bond protects the consumer against misrepresentation of a securities dealer?
Select one:
A. Blue Sky bond
B. Permit bond
C. Payment bond
D. Lost Instrument bond
Blue Sky bond

Under Part One of the WC policy, what is the limit for recovery of medical bills incurred by an employee as a result of work related injuries?
Select one:
A. $100, 000
B. $150,000
C. No limit
D. $250,000
No limit

An employee is injured on the job and is out of work for 10 days. How many days’ wages can this employee recover?
Select one:
A. No recovery
B. 5 days
C. 3 days
D. 10 days
3 days

Am employee of ABC Financing altered and cashed a check for $2000. The loss is payable under which insuring agreement?
Select one:
A. No coverage
B. Robbery Inside the Premises
C. Forgery or Alteration
D. Employee Theft
Employee Theft

Bill was employed by Jane’s Flower Shoppe for two days when he receives a work related injury. Bill misses 14 days of work. How long does Bill have to wait before he can begin receiving WC benefits?
Select one:
A. 14 days
B. He wasn’t employed long enough to have WC coverage
C. 21 days
D. 7 days
7 days

On the way to the bank to make a deposit, an employee loses the bank bag. How is this money covered?
Select one:
A. Money and Securities
B. Robbery
C. Burglary
D. Employee Theft
Money and Securities

Failure to comply with the Workers Compensation Law is:

Select one:
A. A third-degree felony
B. A second-degree felony
C. A first-degree misdemeanor
D. A first-degree felony
A third-degree felony

Employees of ABC Manufacturing are required to wear steel-toed shoes when they are in the factory. An employee who injures their foot because they are not wearing safety shoes while in the plant would have their benefits reduced by:
Select one:
A. 20%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 15%
25%

What is the amount allotted for funeral expenses under Workers Compensation benefits?
Select one:
A. $2,500
B. $10,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
$7,500

What is the maximum death benefit payable to eligible dependents under WC?
Select one:
A. $250,000
B. $200,000
C. $150,000
D. $100,000
$150,000

Bond underwriting usually looks at the three C’s which include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Contingency
B. Collateral/Capital
C. Capability
D. Character
Contingency

Which bond guarantees performance in conformity with the law?
Select one:
A. A Conservation Bond
B. A Blue Sky Bond
C. A License Bond
D. A Franchise Bond
A License Bond

Joe is off the job for 27 days due to a work related injury. Joe can receive WC benefits for how many days?
Select one:
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 27 days
27 days

Workers Compensation in Florida is regulated by:

Select one:
A. The Department of Labor
B. The Department of Labor Security
C. The Department of Labor & Employment Security
D. The Division of Workers’ Compensation of the Department of Financial Services
The Division of Workers’ Compensation of the Department of Financial Services

Securities were purchased for $150,000. They were stolen and sold for $175,000. On the day the theft was reported the securities were valued at $162,000. How much would be paid?
Select one:
A. $150,000
B. No coverage
C. $175,000
D. Conditionally renewable
E. $162,000
$162,000

How many people can a private employment hire before they are required to purchase WC?
Select one:
A. 1
B. 4
C. 12
D. 8
4

Jettison is defined as:
Select one:
A. Fraud by the ship’s master or crew
B. Throwing cargo overboard to save the ship
C. Taking the insured property by force
D. Winds, waves, collision or sinking
Throwing cargo overboard to save the ship

Which Commercial Inland Marine policy protects those who ship and receive goods on an annual basis?
Select one:
A. Trip Transit
B. Motor Truck Cargo
C. Annual Transit
D. Trailer Interchange
Annual Transit

All of the following are among the broad classes of Ocean Marine Insurance, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Cargo
B. Barratry
C. Freight
D. Hull
Barratry

An insured wants to fly to Canada and then down to Mexico. Will he have coverage available for this trip?
Select one:
A. He cannot go outside the U.S.
B. There is coverage in Canada, but not in Mexico
C. There is coverage in Canada, and 100 miles into Mexico
D. There is coverage in Mexico, but not in Canada
There is coverage in Canada, and 100 miles into Mexico

Admitted Liability is:
Select one:
A. Requires a legal action for injuries
B. None of the above
C. Applicable to passengers carried for hire
D. Not applicable to passengers carried for hire
Not applicable to passengers carried for hire

The minimum basic liability limit for a Boiler and Machinery policy is:
Select one:
A. $500,000
B. $1,000,000
C. $250,000
D. $100,000
$500,000

he Valuation Clause in Boiler and Machinery coverage provides for replacement cost if:
Select one:
A. Property is repaired or replaced within 18 months
B. Property is repaired or replaced within 24 months
C. Property is repaired or replaced within 36 months
D. Property is repaired or replaced within 48 months
Property is repaired or replaced within 18 months

Which Commercial Inland Marine policy would cover those who ship and receive goods on a single trip basis?
Select one:
A. Motor Truck Cargo
B. Trip Transit
C. Trailer Interchange
D. Annual Transit
Trip Transit

One category of Commercial Inland Marine insurance is “Instrumentalities of Transportation and Communication. All of the following are covered under this form, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Tractor trailer trucks
B. Pipelines
C. Radio and TV towers
D. Bridges and tunnels
Tractor trailer trucks

Covered losses in a Boiler and Machinery Policy include:
Select one:
A. Explosion, overheating, burning and cracking
B. Leaking at the valve, fitting or shaft
C. The functioning of a safety device
D. Depletion, deterioration and wear and tear
Explosion, overheating, burning and cracking

The master of the ship voluntarily sacrifices the ship’s cargo to save the ship. If the loss is settled with each interest paying a pro-rata share of the loss, it is known as:
Select one:
A. Sue and Labor
B. Particular Average
C. General Average
D. Demurrage
General Average

Perils of the Sea includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Wind
B. Collision and sinking
C. Fire
D. Waves
Fire

Under Boiler and Machinery insurance, an “accident” is defined as:
Select one:
A. Occurring within the policy period of an occurrence policy
B. A continuous and repeated exposure to the same condition
C. A sudden and accidental breakdown of a part
D. A one-time occurrence
A sudden and accidental breakdown of a part

Underwriting an aircraft hull policy includes all of the following considerations, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Pilot’s age
B. Age and condition of the plane
C. Type of plane
D. Size of the plane
Pilot’s age

The coverage for damage to an aircraft under the care, custody and control of the insured while the plane is in storage is:
Select one:
A. Hangerkeepers Liability
B. Extra Expense Endorsement
C. Admitted Aircraft Liability
D. Storage Endorsement
Hangerkeepers Liability

Which of the following describes a Guaranteed Renewable Policy?
Select one:
A. The insurer is required to renew to a stated age with no increase in premiums
B. None of the above
C. The insurer is required to renew to a stated age, but may increase premium
D. The insurer cannot cancel during the policy term, but reserves the right to non-renew
The insurer is required to renew to a stated age, but may increase premium

Which best describes health insurance?
Select one:
A. Disability Insurance
B. Property insurance
C. Liability insurance
D. None of the above
Disability Insurance

All of the following are true concerning Joint Underwriting Associations, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Policyholders must be unable to purchase insurance on the open market
B. Citizens replaced FRP&CJUA and Florida Windstorm
C. It is not possible to purchase Homeowner policies under JUA, only Dwelling policies
D. JUA operations are overseen by a Board of Governors
It is not possible to purchase Homeowner policies under JUA, only Dwelling policies

Health insurance protects against all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. Bodily injury
B. Disablement
C. Death by accident
D. Injury of the job
Injury of the job

A selected group of hospitals and doctors in a given area who have joined together to reduce medical costs is:
Select one:
A. A Professional Practitioner Group
B. An HMO
C. A Health Managed Hospital
D. A PPO
A PPO

A homeowner could not find coverage on the open market and looked to the residual market for coverage. What Joint Underwriting Association would handle this risk?
Select one:
A. Citizens
B. The Florida Residential Property and Casualty Joint Underwriting Association
C. The Florida Workers Compensation Joint Underwriting Association
D. The Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association
Citizens

Joe pays his health insurance premium on a monthly basis. If he forgets to pay this month’s premium, how long will the policy remain in force after the premium date?
Select one:
A. 10 days
B. It cancels immediately
C. 31 days
D. 7 days
10 days

Under Medicare Supplement insurance, the maximum waiting period before coverage applies to pre-existing conditions is:
Select one:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 9 months
6 months

An organization that provides comprehensive health services to its members for a prepaid fixed fee, equivalent to an insurance premium is:
Select one:
A. A Professional Practitioner Group
B. A PPO
C. A Health Managed Hospital
D. An HMO
An HMO

Which is the largest limit available for commercial vehicles in the residual market?
Select one:
A. Any higher limits required by any law
B. 100/300/50
C. 250/500/250
D. 250/500/100
Any higher limits required by any law

Which of the following is not a requirement to qualify for the FWCJUA?
Select one:
A. Must have been unable to obtain coverage from at least three other carriers
B. Must have been unable to obtain coverage from at least two other carriers
C. Must not be indebted for any previous unpaid WC premiums
D. Must be an employer
Must have been unable to obtain coverage from at least three other carriers

The Residual Market that is a source for persons who are unable to purchase auto insurance through normal channels is:
Select one:
A. FRPCJUA
B. FWUA
C. FWCJUA
D. FAJUA
FAJUA

If a health insurance policy cannot be cancelled and can be renewed at the option of the insured to a stated age with no premium increases, this policy is:
Select one:
A. Guaranteed renewable
B. Optionally renewable
C. Noncancelable
D. Conditionally renewable
Noncancelable

ane has a health insurance policy that prevents cancellation during the policy period, but reserves the right of the insurer to non-renew the policy once it expires. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. Conditionally renewable
B. Noncancelable
C. Optionally renewable
D. Guaranteed renewable
Optionally renewable

Joe wrote a policy through the Florida Automobile Joint Underwriting Association, and the company issued the policy. What is the company issuing the policy called?
Select one:
A. A non-standard carrier
B. A non-servicing carrier
C. A servicing carrier
D. A standard carrier
A servicing carrier

How is funding determined for Tier Three employers?
Select one:
A. It is based on an assessment of Tier Three participants
B. None of the above
C. It is based on an assessment of Tier One participants
D. It is based on an assessment of Tier Two participants
It is based on an assessment of Tier Three participants

Bob has a basic health insurance policy. He has a covered accident in which he suffers an injury to his mouth that requires dental treatment. Which of the following is true?
Select one:
A. Dental expenses will be paid after the first $500
B. Dental expenses will not be paid
C. Dental expenses will be paid after the first $100
D. Dental expenses will be paid
Dental expenses will be paid

Which is not a requirement for licensure as an adjuster?
Select one:
A. Be a bonafied resident of Florida
B. Be appointed by a company
C. Be appointed by an office manager
D. Take an approved course and pass a state exam
e appointed by a company

If an adjuster terminates their insurance appointment, how long from the date of the termination do they have to reactivate their appointment?
Select one:
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 3 years
D. 1 year
4 years

Which of the following is not one of the basic claims activities of the adjuster?
Select one:
A. Defining claims
B. Negotiating claims
C. Evaluating claims
D. Investigating claims
Defining claims

Which of the following is not one of the duties of FLDFS?

Select one:
A. To investigate charges of unethical conduct of adjusters
B. To set rates for various company products
C. To license adjusters
D. To supervise the claims activity of adjusters
To set rates for various company products

Which of the following would not result in license suspension?
Select one:
A. Selling a product for which one is not licensed
B. Calling another agent or adjuster a crook
C. Representing a policy truthfully
D. Making false entries on an insurance application
Representing a policy truthfully

A company had its certificate of authority revoked because of bad sales practices. This type of company is known as:
Select one:
A. An admitted company
B. An unedited company
C. An unauthorized company
D. An authorized company
An unauthorized company

Which is not a fiduciary responsibility of a claims adjuster?
Select one:
A. Maintain loyalty to the company
B. Reveal all underwriting facts to the underwriter
C. Withhold pertinent information from the company
D. Properly account for all monies
Withhold pertinent information from the company

What is a foreign insurance company?
Select one:
A. A company that is not an alien company
B. A company chartered outside the state of Florida
C. A company chartered inside the state of Florida
D. A company chartered in another country
A company chartered outside the state of Florida

The continuing education requirement to maintain an adjuster’s license in Florida is:
Select one:
A. Five hours every two years
B. Twenty four hours every two years
C. Ten hours every two years
D. Not required for any adjuster license
Twenty four hours every two years

What is the minimum age that a person can obtain an adjuster’s insurance license?
Select one:
A. 23
B. 21
C. 25
D. 18
18

What is the function of the insurance department?
Select one:
A. To pass insurance laws
B. To administer insurance laws
C. To negotiate ethical standards within the insurance industry
D. To act as an advocate for agents and adjusters
To administer insurance laws

Who does the adjuster represent when they are working on a claim?
Select one:
A. The company
B. The insurance agent
C. The customer
D. The State of Florida
The company

A company was incorporated in Massachusetts and has their home office in that state. What type of company is this when they do business in Florida?
Select one:
A. They are an unauthorized company
B. They are a domestic company
C. They are a foreign company
D. They are an alien company
They are a foreign company

An adjuster moved from one city on Florida to another. What length of time does she have to notify FLDFS of the address change?

Select one:
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
30 days

Representing to an applicant that a specific ancillary coverage or product is required by law in conjunction with the purchase of a motor vehicle insurance when such a coverage or product is not required by law is known as:
Select one:
A. Churning
B. Rebating
C. Twisting
D. Sliding
Sliding

A public adjuster represents the interest of:
A. The insurer
B. The Insured
C. The employer
D. The interest of the general public
B. The insured

Which of the following is the type of report that indicates the initial results of a claim investigation?
A. Field Report
B. Interim Report
C. Full Report
D. None of the above
A. Field Report

States have adopted statutes regarding claims adjusting. To avoid unfair treatment to a
claimant the adjuster must not:
A. Promptly investigate the claim.
B. Follow the laws regarding the number of days in which to commence an investigation.
C. Deny the claim until a fair and prompt investigation has commenced.
D. Pay the claim within a reasonable number of days after the final proof of loss has been
received.
C. Deny the claim until a fair and prompt investigation has commenced.

Which of the following is not a claim settlement option?
A. Forcing the insured to sue by offering less than the claim is worth.
B. Repairing property.
C. Replacing with like kind and quality.
D. Replace with new
A. Forcing the insured to sue by offering less than the claim is worth.

The giving up of a known right is called:
A. Estoppel
B. Violation of policy conditions
C. Rebating
D. Waiver
D. Waiver

An innocent party relies on certain statements made by the adjuster and is damaged as a
result. The guilty party may be legally prohibited from asserting that the fact does not exist
because of:
A. Waiver
B. Estoppel
C. Duties of the adjuster
D. Law of contract
B. Estoppel

Should an insured fail to report a claim in a timely fashion the adjuster will usually:
A. Deny the claim.
B. Send the insured a reservation of rights letter.
C. Cease investigating.
D. Seek the advice of the company’s attorney.
B. Send the insured a reservation of rights letter.

A company adjuster primarily represents the interests of:
A. The insured.
B. The claimant.
C. The insurer.
D. The public.
C. The insurer.

An adjuster’s license will usually be revoked for which of the following reasons:
A. Denying claims that are not covered.
B. Failing to report a change of address.
C. Having been convicted of a misdemeanor.
D. Having been convicted of a felony.
D. Having been convicted of a felony.

The insured has been involved in an automobile accident and has sustained bodily injuries
and damage to the insured vehicle. The adjuster will usually:
A. Withhold any payment until all the bills have been reviewed for payment.
B. Pay to repair the vehicle and pay the medical bills later.
C. Pay for the repair of the vehicle and require a release for all claims.
D. Pay to repair the damage to the vehicle and obtain a partial release and settle the
medical payments later and then seek a final release.
D. Pay to repair the damage to the vehicle and obtain a partial release and settle the
medical payments later and then seek a final release.

Mr. Jones has damaged his vehicle by striking a tree. He can:
A. Take the car to a repair garage recommended by the insurer.
B. Take the car to a garage of his/her choice.
C. Accept the payment based on the adjuster’s estimate.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

In case of a total loss to a vehicle the adjuster will pay the insured/claimant which of the
following?
A. The cost to replace the vehicle with like kind and quality if a current year
model.
B. Use the most recent publication of an “Official Used Car Guide”.
C. If not listed in the “guide”, obtain quotations from automobile dealers.
D. All of the above depending on the circumstances.
D. All of the above depending on the circumstances.

Which of the following is NOT a claim settlement option for liability claims?
A. Lost wages
B. Excessive amounts claimed
C. Loss of use
D. Disfigurement
B. Excessive amounts claimed

Which of the following results in immediate payment when the claimant signs a release
relinquishing his or her right to sue?
A. Scheduled Payment Release
B. Full Release Settlement
C. Advanced Payment
D. Structured Settlement
B. Full Release Settlement

Which of the following relieves the financial burden on the claimant by making certain
payments to the claimant even before the claim can be negotiated?
A. No Release or Walk-Away
B. Rehabilitation
C. Advanced Payment
D. Open-Ended Release
C. Advanced Payment

Which of the following statements is correct?
I. The Business Auto Policy uses 10 symbols to define covered vehicles
II. Symbols 30 and 31 apply to the Garage Policy.

A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Neither I nor II.
D. Both I and II.
D. Both I and II.

Which of the following is not a Business Auto endorsement?
A. Drive Other Car.
B. Change Other Driver.
C. Individual Named Insured.
D. Mobile Equipment.
B. Change Other Driver.

Under the Business Auto Policy, each of the following is true about classification of
“covered autos,” except:
A. “Any auto” is the broadest coverage classification.
B. An insured may select different classifications for different coverages.
C. All classes of newly acquired autos are automatically covered.
D. “Hired autos” includes autos the insured leases, hires, rents or borrows.
C. All classes of newly acquired autos are automatically covered.

According to the Business Auto definitions, an “accident”:
A. Includes continuous or repeated exposure to the same conditions.
B. Must be sudden and unexpected.
C. Must be unexpected and unpreventable.
D. Is any event that causes injury or damage.
A. Includes continuous or repeated exposure to the same conditions.

Joseph Young, who is insured under a Business Auto policy, is involved in an accident.
He and the insurance company disagree on the amount to be paid for the damage to his
car. Under the terms of the policy, which of the following statements is true:
A. Each party engages an appraiser, and the appraisers will select an umpire.
B. Mr. Young must accept the insurance company’s estimate.
C. Each party engages an appraiser, and the appraisers will decide the amount.
D. The estimates of both parties will be averaged.
A. Each party engages an appraiser, and the appraisers will select an umpire

Under Form MCS-90, a _ notice to the other party is required for cancellation of
coverage on the part of either the insurer or insured.
A. 10 day
B. 72 hour
C. 14 day
D. 35 day
D. 35 day

Which of the following is considered a “garage operation”?
I. Ownership, maintenance or use of garage premises.
II. Sale of products or services in connection with garage operations.
III. Ownership or maintenance of covered autos.
IV. Production or support of racing or competitive operations.
A. I and II only.
B. I, II, and III only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.
B. I, II, and III only.

Which of the following would be covered under a Garage Liability Policy?
A. Damage to property the insured is transporting to another location.
B. The use of covered autos leased to another party except as a replacement for a car
under repair.
C. Products and completed operations.
D. Covered autos used in organized racing.
C. Products and completed operations.

Which of the following pollution losses would be covered under the Garage Liability
Policy?
I. Escape of toxic sludge from a dumpsite the named insured utilizes to store garage
waste.
II. Pollution of a creek caused by a gasoline leak from the ruptured fuel tank of a
covered truck following a collision with another vehicle.
A. I only.
B. Both I and II.
C. Neither I nor II.
D. II only.
D. II only.

Garagekeepers coverage excludes all of the following losses, except:
A. Loss to a high-value stereo system permanently installed in a customer’s auto.
B. Loss to CDs from a covered auto.
C. Faulty work performed by a mechanic.
D. Theft of equipment from a covered auto by a garage employee.
A. Loss to a high-value stereo system permanently installed in a customer’s auto.

Extra Expense insurance covers the cost of:
A. Relocation.
B. Temporary location.
C. Research costs to replace lost information.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

The Special Cause of Loss form excludes all of the following, except:
A. Loss of market.
B. Loss due to artificially generated electric current.
C. Agricultural smudging.
D. None of these are exclusions.
D. None of these are exclusions.

Earth movement is covered under which of the following Cause of Loss forms?
A. None
B. Basic
C. Broad only
D. Basic and Broad
A. None

  1. Volcanic action is covered under which of the following Cause of Loss forms?
    A. None
    B. Basic
    C. Broad only
    D. Both Basic and Broad
    D. Both Basic and Broad

Sprinkler leakage is covered under which of the following Cause of Loss forms?
A. Basic
B. Broad
C. Special
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

All of the following provide an additional amount of insurance under the Commercial Building
and Personal Property form, except:
A. Lottery Tickets
B. Newly acquired property
C. Property off-premises
D. Outdoor Property
A. Lottery Tickets

Which of the following forms cover flood and earthquake damage?
A. Building and Personal Property form
B. Special form
C. Broad form
D. None of the above
D. None of the above

The Earthquake and Volcanic Eruption endorsement provides coverage:
A. Against earthquake from volcanic eruption
B. For commercial buildings and other covered property when used in conjunction with
another Cause of Loss forms
C. For damage caused by shocks that occur within 168-hours after policy expiration if
these shocks began during the policy period
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

The Commercial Building and Personal Property Coverage form excludes all of the following
types of property, except:
A. Securities
B. Property of others in the insured’s care, custody and control
C. Land
D. Patios or other paved surfaces
B. Property of others in the insured’s care, custody and control

Under the Commercial Building and Personal Property form, coverage for the “building”
includes:
A. Additions and extensions to the building
B. Property used to service the building
C. A heating system
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Under the Commercial Building and Personal Property form, coverage for “business
personal property” includes:
A. Furniture
B. Machinery
C. Stock
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sinkhole collapse is covered under which of the following Cause of Loss forms?
A. Basic
B. Broad
C. Special
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

A building valued at $100,000 was insured for $80,000 with a policy containing 80%
Coinsurance clause. Disregarding any deductibles, what would the company pay on a
$20,000 loss?
A. $7,500
B. $5,000
C. $15,000
D. $20,000
D. $20,000

All of the following are excluded under the Commercial Building and Personal Property
form, except:
A. Furniture and fixtures.
B. Petty cash and IOUs.
C. A watch dog.
D. The insured’s panel truck.
A. Furniture and fixtures.

Which of the following is not covered property under a Commercial Property form?
A. Accounts, bills and currency.
B. Animals not held for sale.
C. Cost of foundations.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

The insured has transported a portion of his property to an exhibition trade show. It is
destroyed by a fire. What coverage would apply?
A. Property off the premises is not covered
B. Fire is not covered for this exposure
C. A limit of $10,000 would apply to cover the loss
D. Special coverage would have to be purchased to cover property off the premises
C. A limit of $10,000 would apply to cover the loss

The deductible under the revised Commercial Property forms is:
A. $500
B. $1,000
C. $250
D. $750
A. $500

The insured has suffered a loss as the result of a cracked steam boiler. What coverage
would apply under the Commercial Property Cause of Loss forms?
A. The loss would be covered
B. The loss is not covered
C. Only part of the loss is covered
D. Covers only the extra expense in replacing the boiler
B. The loss is not covered

Before legal action may be taken against an insurer, an insured must have complied with all
terms of the policy. Any legal action must begin within __ following a loss.
A. 6 months
B. 5 years
C. 2 years
D. 12 months
C. 2 years

If the civil authority blocks access to the insured’s premises because of a covered peril that
has damaged a building down the street, what period of time will the Business Income forms
pay the insured for loss of income at his/her premises?
A. One week
B. Two consecutive weeks
C. Four consecutive weeks
D. Three consecutive weeks
C. Four consecutive weeks

Under the Condominium Association form, coverage is based on:
A. The Commercial Property form
B. The association agreement and bylaws
C. The Special Cause of Loss form
D. State and local ordinances
B. The association agreement and bylaws

What is generally excluded on the Condominium Commercial Unit-Owners form?
A. The improvements and betterments of the unit-owner
B. Hostile fire damage
C. Building coverage
D. Inside appliances and fixtures
C. Building coverage

If both the Condominium Association form and the Condominium Unit-Owner form cover
the same property, how will the loss be handled?
A. Each policy will pay pro-rata
B. The Association policy will be excess over the Unit-Owners
C. Each policy will share equally in the loss
D. The Unit-Owners policy will be excess over the Association policy
D. The Unit-Owners policy will be excess over the Association policy

Which of the following losses to perishable stock would be covered by the Spoilage
Endorsement?
A. Power outage
B. Mechanical breakdown or contamination
C. Changes in temperature, humidity, or contamination resulting from a power outage on
or off the premises
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

With Commercial Property insurance, how would the insured receive replacement cost
loss settlement on damage (as a result of a covered peril) to the Personal Property of
Others left in the insured’s care custody and control?
A. Request a separate replacement cost endorsement on the Personal Property of
Others coverage on the policy,
B. Request the Replacement Cost endorsement on Business Personal Property
C. Insure the Property of Others for at least 100% of the cost to replace it.
D. Send in periodic reports to the insurer on the value of the property of others left in
the insured’s care custody and control
A. Request a separate replacement cost endorsement on the Personal Property of
Others coverage on the policy,

Which of the following statements regarding aircraft insurance is incorrect?
A. The physical damage coverage is written with a flat deductible.
B. Coverage for passengers can be excluded.
C. Special coverage must be arranged for Air Meet liability coverage.
D. Wear and tear is excluded.
A. The physical damage coverage is written with a flat deductible.

Most aircraft hull policies are written on a:
A. Replacement cost basis
B. Market value
C. Valued basis
D. Actual cash value basis
C. Valued basis

A deductible that is commonly used in aircraft physical damage insurance is usually:
A. A percentage of the value
B. A flat deductible
C. A disappearing deductible
D. A franchise deductible
A. A percentage of the value

The hull physical damage deductible applies to which of the following losses?
A. Pilferage
B. Fire
C. Collision
D. Fire and explosion (except when caused by collision)
C. Collision

The covered territory for aircraft coverage does not apply to which of the following?
A. United States
B. Canada
C. Mexico
D. Puerto Rico
D. Puerto Rico

Which of the following describes admitted aircraft liability?
A. Negligence is not a factor
B. Must prove legal liability
C. Based on a board review
D. Based on a limited threshold of damage
A. Negligence is not a factor

What coverage under aircraft coverage can cover the injuries to crew members as an
optional coverage?
A. Liability coverage
B. Admitted liability
C. Medical payments
D. Workers compensation
C. Medical payments

What type of physical damage coverage is needed by a company that repairs aircraft for
damage to customer’s property?
A. Garage liability coverage
B. Hangarkeeper’s liability
C. General liability
D. Garagekeeper’s legal liability
B. Hangarkeeper’s liability

Aircraft liability coverage is very similar to auto insurance coverage with the following
exception:
A. Usually written with a deductible
B. Does not apply to property damage of others
C. Liability to passengers is treated as a separate exposure
D. Cannot exclude passenger liability
C. Liability to passengers is treated as a separate exposure

Which of the following is not covered under aircraft hull insurance?
A. Personal effects
B. Fuselage
C. Wheels
D. Propeller
A. Personal effects

Common carriers are responsible for damage to customer goods they transport except for
damage resulting from:
A. Acts of God
B. Traffic Accidents
C. Load shifting
D. Poor vehicle maintenance
A. Acts of God

Which of the following commercial inland marine coverage forms covers sums due the
insured from customers which are uncollectible due to loss or damage of records?
A. Equipment dealers
B. Electronic data processing
C. Valuable papers and records
D. Accounts receivable
D. Accounts receivable

The Commercial Inland Marine coverage form “jeweler’s block” excludes loss resulting
from:
A. Earthquake
B. Shortage found upon taking inventory
C. Unexplained disappearance
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

The Commercial Inland Marine coverage form “valuable papers and records” includes
coverage for:
I. Money and securities
II. Deeds, drawings and maps
III. Books, files and mortgages
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II only
C. II and III

The ______is an ideal form of protection for the frequent shipper of goods.
A. Trip transit policy
B. Annual transit policy
C. Monthly transit policy
D. Common Carrier motor truck cargo policy
B. Annual transit policy

Mr. Jones owns a jewelry store. His wife takes a very valuable necklace and wears it to a
party. It is stolen. How will the jeweler’s block policy respond to cover this loss?
A. The policy will cover the loss.
B. The loss will be denied
C. The policy will pay the loss on an actual cash value basis
D. The policy will pay replacement cost less depreciation
B. The loss will be denied

XYZ Road Construction Company has a fleet of equipment that consists of bulldozers,
backhoes, and road scrapers. The owner desires physical damage coverage to cover the
equipment. Which of the following types of insurance contracts would be appropriate to
provide the proper coverage?
A. Commercial property coverage
B. General liability coverage
C. Auto physical damage coverage
D. Contractors equipment floater
D. Contractors equipment floater

Savage Construction Company has delivered and installed a large boiler in a commercial
building. The owner has not yet accepted nor paid for the work. What type of policy should
Savage Construction purchase to cover the work until accepted?
A. Builders risk
B. Installation floater
C. Dealer floater
D. Transportation floater
B. Installation floater

Community Cleaners is a new dry cleaning and laundry service business. They have vehicles
that pick up customer’s property to be processed and then delivered back to the customer.
What type of policy would you recommend they purchase to cover the customer’s
property?
A. A business owners policy
B. A commercial property policy
C. A bailee policy
D. A trip transit policy
C. A bailee policy

Global Electronics has a large piece of equipment that needs to be transported from their
plant to their customer. They are using a rented U-Haul truck and one of their drivers is to
make the delivery. What type of policy would be needed to cover this one time trip
exposure?
A. A trip transit policy
B. An annual trip policy
C. Motor truck cargo
D. Bailee policy
A. A trip transit policy

The Equipment Dealers Form covers all of the following types of property, except:
A. A farm tractor
B. A Snow removal truck
C. A customer’s bulldozer in the insured’s repair shop
D. An inventory of hats and jackets
B. A Snow removal truck

Which of the following statements regarding the Equipment Dealers Form is incorrect?
A. Coverage is on an “open peril basis”
B. Coverage applies on a world wide basis
C. Contractor’s equipment can be covered
D. Covers similar property owned by others and on the insured premises
B. Coverage applies on a world wide basis

In crime insurance, all of the following situations would be considered theft, except:
A. A store’s year-end inventory coming up short by 5%.
B. Merchandise being stolen with evidence of forced entry.
C. A clerk witnessing a customer shoplifting merchandise.
D. A clerk being robbed at gunpoint.
A. A store’s year-end inventory coming up short by 5%.

A prospective insured wishes to protect her firm against criminals taking money from a
messenger going from the firm to a bank. In this situation, the prospect should purchase
coverage for:
A. Fidelity
B. Robbery
C. Assault
D. Burglary
B. Robbery

Under a Fidelity Bond, which of the following parties receives protection?
A. A subcontractor
B. An employee
C. An employer
D. A creditor
C. An employer

Which of the following losses would be covered under a Robbery and Safe Burglary
coverage?
A. Valuables kept in a locked safe are destroyed by fire.
B. Cash disappears from a locked safe, with no explanation.
C. Jewelry is stolen from a locked safe that shows no signs of forced entry.
D. Rare manuscripts are stolen from a locked safe that shows signs of forced entry.
D. Rare manuscripts are stolen from a locked safe that shows signs of forced entry.

Which of the following losses would be covered under a crime policy’s “Inside the Premises
Robbery or Safe Burglary of Other Property” coverage?
A. Broken windows on the insured premises caused by a burglar.
B. Theft of money and securities.
C. Fire damage to the insured building caused by a burglar.
D. Vandalism to a trailer on the insured premises caused by a burglar.
A. Broken windows on the insured premises caused by a burglar.

In crime insurance, which of the following individuals is NOT considered to be a
“custodian”?
A. Sales clerk
B. Janitor
C. Partner
D. Named insured
B. Janitor

To be defined as a burglary, an event must include which of the following conditions?
A. Robbery
B. Fear or threat of violence
C. Visible signs of forced entry or exit
D. Mysterious disappearance
C. Visible signs of forced entry or exit

The Dye’s host a party. When the guests arrive, they place their coats in the bedroom. Two
days later, Mr. Dye discovers that his ring is missing from the bedroom dresser. This loss is
referred to as a:
A. Mysterious disappearance
B. Burglary
C. Robbery
D. Theft
A. Mysterious disappearance

In crime insurance, a “custodian” is described by which one of the following?
A. Any authorized person outside the premises
B. An authorized person having care of insured property inside the premises
C. An authorized person outside the premises in charge of money
D. An authorized person going to the post office
B. An authorized person having care of insured property inside the premises

Which of the following terms provides the broadest definition of criminal activity?
A. Burglary
B. Robbery
C. Theft
D. Extortion
C. Theft

The Forgery or Alteration insuring agreement protects the insured from losses resulting
from forgery or alteration of:
I. Outgoing checks
II. Drafts
III. Promissory notes
IV. Financial instruments drawn against the insured
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III only
A. I, II, III and IV

Surety bonds guarantee the fulfillment of specific obligations. Each of the following may be
the subject of a Surety bond, except:
A. Payment of debt
B. Protection of funds handled by employees
C. Meeting contractual commitments
D. Completing a construction job
B. Protection of funds handled by employees

Under a Surety bond, the “Principal” is the party who:
A. Agrees to pay damages if default occurs
B. Provides the bond in exchange for a fee
C. Will be paid damages if default occurs
D. Agrees to fulfill an obligation
D. Agrees to fulfill an obligation

A contractor has borrowed funds from a bank in order to finance a construction project.
A Surety bond which guarantees the lender that the contractor will use the borrowed funds
to finish the contract free and clear of liens is known as:
A. A Performance bond
B. Bid bond.
C. Completion bond
D. Labor and materials bond
C. Completion bond

Sue Green has a Commercial Crime Policy on her restaurant, but she only chose the
insuring agreement “Inside the Premises Robbery or Safe Burglary of Other Property.” If an
employee steals some equipment by breaking into the premises during the daytime on a
holiday, the policy would:
A. Cover the loss
B. Not cover the loss, since acts by employees are excluded
C. Not cover the loss, since daytime burglaries are excluded
D. Not cover the loss, since only loss of merchandise is covered
B. Not cover the loss, since acts by employees are excluded

Under the “Inside the Premises Theft of Money and Securities” insuring agreement of a
Crime Policy, which of the following situations would NOT be covered?
A. Cash in the register is destroyed in a fire.
B. Traveler’s checks that have turned up missing.
C. A casino suffers a theft of slot machine tokens.
D. Cash that is taken by employees.
D. Cash that is taken by employees.

In crime insurance terminology, an officer of the company having care and custody of
insured property outside the insured premises is known as a:
A. Scheduled executive
B. Custodian
C. Messenger
D. Insured property executive
C. Messenger

In crime insurance terminology, a salesperson having possession of the insured’s property
on-premises is known as a:
A. Custodian
B. Insured
C. Messenger
D. Watchperson
A. Custodian

In Commercial Crime coverage, the “Inside the Premises Theft of Money and Securities”
insuring agreement would cover loss of all the following, except:
A. Currency
B. Jewelry
C. Tokens and tickets
D. Checks and drafts
B. Jewelry

Which of the following are parties to a contract bond?
I. Principal
II. Surety
III. Obligee
IV. Employee
A. I, II, and III only
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
A. I, II, and III only

The Equipment Breakdown policy is designed to cover equipment __ the insured.
A. Owned by
B. Leased to
C. Operated by
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

If an initial “accident” to a boiler causes three other boilers to have accidents, under the
insurance policy, all four events will be considered:
A. One event.
B. Two events.
C. Three events.
D. Four events.
A. One event.

An “accident” under an Equipment Breakdown policy includes:
A. Sudden breakdown of an object.
B. Gradual breakdown of an object.
C. Leakage of a valve.
D. All of the above.
A. Sudden breakdown of an object.

The maximum amount of coverage provided for spoilage to covered property caused by
contamination under an Equipment Breakdown policy is:
A. $5,000.
B. $10,000.
C. $25,000.
D. The policy limits.
C. $25,000.

The purpose of Equipment Breakdown insurance is:
A. To fill the gaps left by property insurance policies.
B. To cover the maintenance of boilers and machinery
C. To cover damage done to boilers and machinery only
D. To cover the explosions of boilers in non-owned buildings that may cause damage the
insured’s property.
A. To fill the gaps left by property insurance policies.

The insured has suffered a boiler explosion and desperately needs a replacement as soon as
possible. What coverage would respond to assist the insured?
A. Replacement coverage
B. Expediting expenses
C. Extra expense coverage
D. Loss of income coverage
A. Replacement coverage

If a boiler explodes and damages a building, contents and property of others, what coverage
would apply?
A. Only the damage to the boiler is covered.
B. Only the building coverage is provided.
C. Only the insured’s contents are covered.
D. If proper limits are in place the entire loss is covered.
D. If proper limits are in place the entire loss is covered.

Automatic coverage is provided for newly acquired equipment for:
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
C. 90 days

A steam boiler has been inspected and found to be in serious need of repairs. The inspector
“red tags” the item. This means:
A. A 30 day grace period is provided until repairs are made after the coverage is
suspended
B. Coverage is suspended until repairs are made
C. The entire facility must be shut down until repairs are made
D. The company will cancel the entire insurance applicable to all property insured
B. Coverage is suspended until repairs are made

The term “undamaged stock” in Equipment Breakdown coverage refers to:
A. The fact that the insurer is not liable for any damage to the stock
B. The salvage value of the stock
C. The reduction in the value of the stock
D. Losses that are not adjusted on a replacement cost basis
C. The reduction in the value of the stock

The BOP is designed to cover all of the following, except:
A. Gas stations.
B. Small apartment houses.
C. Medium size clothing stores.
D. An office complex with 7,500 square feet in total floor area.
A. Gas stations.

All of the following are exclusions under the standard BOP form, except:
A. Governmental action.
B. Building ordinance
C. Earth movement.
D. Transportation.
D. Transportation.

The Now Company carries a special BOP policy with a liability limit of $500,000. The
company is involved in an occurrence causing $200,000 bodily injury damage and $200,000
property damage. The total amount payable as damages under the policy is:
A. $100,000
B. $200,000
C. $400,000
D. $500,000
C. $400,000

The BOP policy form does not cover:
A. Personal property of the insured
B. Debris removal.
C. Cracking of a steam boiler
D. Personal property of others.
C. Cracking of a steam boiler

Businessowners policies provide “Preservation of Property” coverage when property is
removed from the premises to protect it from a covered cause of loss. The coverage will
apply at other locations for up to:
A. 10 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 20 days.
D. 60 days.
B. 30 days.

An apartment buildings may be covered by a Businessowners Policy (BOP) if it does not
have more than:
A. 15,000 square feet
B. 10,000 square feet
C. 35,000 square feet
D. 30,000 square feet
C. 35,000 square feet

Under the BOP, how much is paid for pollution clean-up and removal in case of a covered
loss?
A. $10,000
B. Any amount that does not exceed the limit of the policy
C. 25% of the loss
D. Not covered
A. $10,000

Under the BOP, up to how many years can the insurer request the insured’s books and
records?
A. Four years.
B. Two years.
C. Three years.
D. Five years.
C. Three years.

Under the BOP, what does the hired and non-owned auto liability endorsement cover?
A. Hired and non-owned auto coverage if the insured is not covered by a commercial auto
policy.
B. Owned autos that are excluded by a commercial auto policy.
C. Primary coverage for an employee using their car on company business.
D. Excess premises liability coverage for mobile equipment.
A. Hired and non-owned auto coverage if the insured is not covered by a commercial auto
policy.

An insured is covered under a BOP policy and has a piece of equipment insured separately
under a floater policy. In case of a loss, what coverage will apply under the BOP policy?
A. It policy will pay its fair percentage of the loss.
B. The BOP will be excess over the floater policy.
C. The loss is completely covered under the BOP.
D. The loss is not covered under the BOP because it is separately insured.
B. The BOP will be excess over the floater policy.

Under the BOP, which type of business would not normally be eligible for coverage?
A. A shoe store
B. A hair salon
C. A small manufacturer
D. A doctor’s office
C. A small manufacturer

The insured is covered under a BOP and sustains a direct loss to his building and contents.
What is the period of time the policy provides loss of income and extra expense coverage?
A. The policy pays for up to 12 months
B. The policy pays for up to 6 months
C. The policy pays for up to 9 months
D. The policy pays for up to 14 months
A. The policy pays for up to 12 months

The BOP contains liability coverage for the insured’s business. On what basis is the
coverage written?
A. Claims made form
B. Occurrence form
C. Modified claims made form
D. No aggregate limit basis
B. Occurrence form

The insured carries the “open peril” BOP policy. On a weekend thieves enter the building
and steal all of the merchandise in the store. What coverages would apply?
A. The loss caused by burglary would not be covered.
B. The loss by burglary and loss of income would apply.
C. The loss of income would not apply.
D. The entire loss would be denied by the insurer.
B. The loss by burglary and loss of income would apply.

The insured’s building is protected by a sprinkler system. The system develops a problem
and is inoperative. When does the insured have to report to the company the fact that the
system does not work?
A. Immediately
B. After 24 hours
C. After 48 hours
D. After 60 hours
C. After 48 hours

An insured carries a DP-2 with $10,000 contents coverage. He owns a canoe and stores it
at a lake in a private non-owned garage. Fire destroys the garage and the boat. How much
coverage will his policy provide?
A. Up to $1,000.
B. Up to $500.
C. Nothing
D. $1,500
C. Nothing

An insured’s home is covered by the DP-3 form. The policy provides $20,000 in coverage
on a home that would cost $50,000 to replace. When high winds destroy the roof, it is
determined that it will cost $2,000 to replace it. Assuming the actual cash value of the roof
is $750, how much will the insured collect for this loss?
A. $2,000
B. $1,600
C. $1,000
D. $1,750
C. $1,000

Mr. Simpson owns a dwelling in a rural area close to a small wooded area. He is covered
under a DP-3 form. A deer sees it’s reflection in a picture window and jumps through and
enters the dwelling causing significant wall and floor damage. Some of the furniture is
damaged and must be replaced. He is covered for $100,000 on the dwelling and $50,000 on
the contents. Which of the following would apply to this loss?
A. The entire loss would be denied.
B. Pay replacement cost on the dwelling and ACV for the contents loss.
C. Pay replacement cost on the dwelling and the contents.
D. Deny the contents claim and pay the dwelling loss on a replacement cost basis.
D. Deny the contents claim and pay the dwelling loss on a replacement cost basis.

The insured is covered under a DP-1 Dwelling Policy with coverage on the dwelling in the
amount of $100,000. He has a detached garage valued at $10,000. Both structures are
destroyed by a fire. What is the total amount recoverable under the policy?
A. $110,000
B. $100,000
C. $95,000
D. $105,000
B. $100,000

An insured lived close to Mount St. Helens and carried a DP-2 policy. When the volcano
erupted, the movement of the earth caused his home to collapse. He reported the claim as
a volcanic eruption loss. What do you feel would be the result of this claim?
A. The claim would be covered under the peril of volcanic eruption
B. A portion of the claim based on a deductible percentage would be paid.
C. The claim would be denied.
D. The claim would be paid for ACV only under these circumstances.
C. The claim would be denied.

A water pipe has burst and the insured has suffered floor and ceiling damage in his two-story
home. He is covered under a DP-2 form with dwelling and contents coverage. The building
codes now require that special piping installation is needed at an additional cost of $500
over and above the normal cost to repair. His dwelling limit is $100,000. What will the
policy pay if the normal cost to repair is $400?
A. The policy will pay a total of $400.
B. The policy will pay a total of $900
C. The policy will pay $500.
D. The policy will pay $700.
B. The policy will pay a total of $900

Mr. Jones purchased a policy on the dwelling in the amount of $40,000. His wife also
purchased a policy in the amount of $20,000 unbeknown to her husband from another
company. In case of a $15,000 loss, what will her company pay on the loss?
A. $5,000
B. $15,000
C. $10,000
D. $7,500
A. $5,000

The insured has purchased a DP-3 form to cover his dwelling that is valued at a replacement
cost of $100,000. He insures it for $60,000 and has a $30,000 fire loss. What can he expect
to be paid?
A. $30,000
B. $25,000
C. $22,500
D. $15,000
C. $22,500

The insured has forgotten to close an upstairs window. A strong storm blows through and
wind and water severely damage the contents and floors of the dwelling. The insured
carries a DP-2 dwelling form. What will be the outcome of this loss?
A. The loss will be paid under the peril of wind.
B. The loss will be paid on an actual cash value for the contents damage.
C. The claim will be denied
D. The dwelling damage is covered on a replacement cost basis if the insured carried 80%
to value and the contents loss will be paid on an ACV basis.
C. The claim will be denied

The insured is covered under a DP-3 with contents coverage. He has a hunting rifle stolen
by forcible entry into the dwelling. The front door is severely damaged and must be
replaced. Which of the following is a true statement regarding this loss?
A. The entire claim will be denied.
B. Only the damage caused by the burglars will be paid
C. The theft of the gun is covered under personal property
D. Both the damage to the door and the theft of the gun will be covered.
B. Only the damage caused by the burglars will be paid

Under the Regular Program, a National Flood Insurance Policy will insure single-family
residences for up to:
A. $185,000
B. $35,000
C. $100,000
D. $250,000
D. $250,000

Under the Emergency Program, a National Flood Insurance policy will insure single-family
residences for up to:
A. $35,000
B. $100,000
C. $150,000
D. $250,000
A. $35,000

The normal waiting period for coverage under a Flood Insurance policy is __ from the
date the application and premium are sent to the NFIP.
A. 45 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
C. 30 days

The standard deductible for the Regular Program under a Flood Insurance policy is:
A. $1,000
B. $250
C. $750
D. $500
A. $1,000

Which of the following is not covered under the Flood Insurance policy?
A. Livestock
B. Motor Vehicles
C. Outdoor Swimming Pools
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

What forms the basic eligibility requirements for all of the residual markets in Florida?
A. Location
B. Construction of the risk
C. Fire protection of the risk
D. Risk is unable to find a market for the required coverage.
D. Risk is unable to find a market for the required coverage.

Which of the following must occur before a risk is eligible for the Florida Workers
Compensation Joint Underwriting Association?
A. The risk has suffered heavy losses
B. The cost of the current rates are prohibitive
C. The employer has been declined by at least two carriers
D. None of the above
C. The employer has been declined by at least two carriers

_ limit an insurer’s liability.
A. Provisions
B. Reinstatements
C. Exclusions
D. None of the above
C. Exclusions

What is Florida’s law pertaining to mechanical breakdown coverage limits?
A. Minimum deductible is $250
B. Coverage must be on an “all risk” basis
C. Flood coverage must be included
D. None of the above
D. None of the above

The stacking of uninsured motorist (UM) limits in Florida is subject to choices made by the
insured. Those choices are:
A. The insured can reject the coverage
B. The insured can elect lower limits than his/her liability coverage
C. The insured can elect “non-stacked” UM coverage
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

A __ health policy affords the greatest degree of continued protection to an insured.
A. Guaranteed renewable
B. Non-cancellable
C. Optionally renewable
D. Conditionally renewable
B. Non-cancellable

Which of the following would not be a basis for the avoidance of performance in a claim
adjustment?
A. Investigating a claim that might be covered
B. Allowing an insured to profit from an intentional claim
C. Paying a claim on a vehicle loaded with illegal drugs
D. An insured is guilty of concealment, fraud or misrepresentation
A. Investigating a claim that might be covered

Churning is best described as:
A. Failing to pay a claim due to late reporting
B. Forcing the insured to accept less than the claim is worth
C. Using policy values in an existing life policy to purchase additional coverage with the same
company for the purpose of earning additional compensation
D. Churning is not considered an unfair or deceptive practice.
C. Using policy values in an existing life policy to purchase additional coverage with the same
company for the purpose of earning additional compensation

In the state of Florida, a Medicare supplement policy cannot limit coverage for more than __
because of pre-existing conditions.
A. one year
B. three months
C. six months
D. 30 days
C. six months

Under Florida law, the minimum deductible allowed for comprehensive claims involving
broken windshields is:
A. $50
B. $100
C. $75
D. No deductible applies
D. No deductible applies

Under a disability income policy, the time between the beginning of a covered injury or
sickness and the beginning of income payments is known as the:
A. Double indemnity
B. Waiting period
C. Waiver of premium
D. Cancellation period
B. Waiting period

In Florida, the death benefit under personal injury protection (PIP) is:
A. $1,000
B. $2,000
C. $5,000
D. $2,500
C. $5,000

A person sustains $4,000 in medical expenses and $5,000 for lost wages under PIP.
This person dies as a result of his injuries. How much death benefit would be paid?
A. $10,000
B. $5,000
C. $1,000
D. $2,500
C. $1,000

A(n) _ is a group of hospitals and physicians who have joined together in an effort to
reduce medical costs.
A. HMO
B. PPO
C. Medicare Supplement
D. None of the above
B. PPO

Under what circumstances would PIP coverage not be considered primary coverage?
A. The “at fault” drivers does not have auto coverage.
B. Workers compensation coverage is applicable to the claim.
C. Medical insurance is in force.
D. Disability income coverage is in force.
B. Workers compensation coverage is applicable to the claim.

Florida statues provide that any person who is damaged by certain insurer practices is
granted a right to sue the insurer for damages. Which one of the following would not apply?
A. Not attempting in good faith to settle claims when it could and should have done so.
B. Refusing to pay an uncovered claim.
C. Making claim payments to insureds that are not accompanied by a statement setting forth
the coverage under which payments are being made.
D. Failing to promptly settle non-liability claims under one portion of coverage, where the
obligation has become reasonably clear, in order to influence settlements under other
portions of coverage.
B. Refusing to pay an uncovered claim.

Which of the following is not considered a person that is transacting insurance and therefore
not required to be licensed?
A. A clerical employee who performs routine filing duties for an insurance company.
B. An attorney who assists in settling claims.
C. A claims adjuster
D. An employee who quotes insurance premiums.
A. A clerical employee who performs routine filing duties for an insurance company.

All the following are correct regarding the continuing education requirements to maintain a
license in Florida, except:
A. Licensees must complete 24 hours of continuing education every two years.
B. The hours required must include five hours of ethics and law.
C. Excess hours may be carrier over to the next compliance period.
D. The law requires that adjusters must complete three hours of basic claims handling.
D. The law requires that adjusters must complete three hours of basic claims handling.

Every insurer must maintain claim files that are subject to examination for the Insurance
Department for:
A. The previous year and the current year.
B. The current year and three previous years.
C. The current year and four previous years.
D. The current year and five previous years.
B. The current year and three previous years.

The law requires that a third party claim involving a minor can be settled with both parents
of the minor when the amount is not in excess of:
A. $25,000
B. $10,000
C. $5,000
D. $7,500
C. $5,000

In order to satisfy the Florida automobile financial responsibility law, the owner of a vehicle
must carry liability limits of at least:
A. $20,000 each person/$40,000 each accident and $10,000 property damage
B. $25,000 each person/$50,000 each accident and $25,000 property damage
C. $10,000 each person/$20,000 each accident and $5,000 property damage
D. $10,000 each person/$20,000 each accident and $10,000 property damage
D. $10,000 each person/$20,000 each accident and $10,000 property damage

Under the Florida automobile no-fault law, there are certain rights that are retained where
the claimant can seek relief regardless the threshold. These include which of the following?
A. Medical expenses
B. Doctor visits
C. Loss of income
D. Pain and suffering
D. Pain and suffering

Which of the following is not an exclusion under the PIP automobile coverage?
A. Coverage does not apply while occupying an uninsured vehicle
B. Injuries to persons operating the vehicle without the insured’s consent are covered
C. Coverage only applies while occupying an insured vehicle
D. Intentional acts or injuries while committing a felony are covered
C. Coverage only applies while occupying an insured vehicle

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding uninsured motorist coverage in
Florida?
A. This coverage can be rejected by the insured
B. The insured can elect lower limits than his/her liability coverage limits
C. The coverage cannot be rejected
D. Non-stacked um coverage differs from stacked um coverage in several ways
C. The coverage cannot be rejected

When cancellation of an automobile policy is permitted, the insurer must send to the insured
a notice at least ______days prior to the effective date of the cancellation.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 45
D. 45

The responsibility to regulate the insurance industry belongs to:
I. The state government.
II. The federal government.
III. The state insurance department.
A. I only.
B. III only.
C. I and II only.
D. I, II, and III.
C. I and II only.

The responsibility of the federal government in regulating the insurance industry is limited
to:
A. Monitoring the ethical conduct of individual insurance adjusters.
B. Fair labor standards and anti-trust matters.
C. Monitoring the financial solvency of insurance companies.
D. Reviewing and approving insurance rates, policies, and forms.
B. Fair labor standards and anti-trust matters.

An insurance company that is formed and domiciled under the laws of a particular state is an
example of a (n):
A. Domestic Insurer.
B. Foreign Insurer.
C. Domiciled Insurer.
D. Alien Insurer.
A. Domestic Insurer.

Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining an agent’s or adjuster’s license?
A. Must be 21 years of age.
B. Must have completed at least two years of college coursework.
C. Must have an insurance producer’s license in the state.
D. Must satisfy the Insurance Commissioner of trustworthiness.
D. Must satisfy the Insurance Commissioner of trustworthiness.

The unethical act of persuading a policyowner to drop a policy solely for the purpose of
selling another policy is known as:
A. Twisting.
B. Rebating.
C. Defamation.
D. Misrepresentation.
A. Twisting.

An insurer that refuses to pay claims without conducting a reasonable investigation based
upon all available information is guilty of:
A. Twisting.
B. Unfair Claim Settlement Practices.
C. A felony.
D. Misrepresentation.
B. Unfair Claim Settlement Practices.

An insurer that distributes a statement that misrepresents the benefits, advantages,
conditions, or terms of any insurance policy would be guilty of:
A. Unfair Claim Settlement Practices.
B. Misrepresentation and False Advertising.
C. Defamation.
D. Coercion.
B. Misrepresentation and False Advertising.

Should an agent or adjuster have a change of address, the obligation to notify the Insurance
Department lies with:
I. The company that employs the adjuster or company that appoints the agent.
II. The licensee.
III. The licensee’s supervisor.
A. I and II.
B. I only.
C. II only.
D. I, II, and III.
C. II only.

An incorporated insurance company with its capital divided into shares is the definition of:
A. A Mutual Company.
B. A Domestic Company.
C. A Stock Company.
D. A Foreign Company.
C. A Stock Company.

The Insurance Department has been advised that an agent is guilty of an insurance code
violation. The Commissioner will:
A. Call for a hearing.
B. Revoke the license pending a hearing.
C. Revoke the license.
D. Fine the agent’s insurance company.
A. Call for a hearing.

Which of the following would be considered an Unfair Trade Practice?
A. Twisting
B. Rebating
C. Coercion
D. All are Unfair Trade Practices
D. All are Unfair Trade Practices

Which of the following is NOT considered to be an unfair claims practice?
A. Misrepresenting pertinent facts or uninsured policy provisions relating to coverages
at issue.
B. Refusing to pay claims without conducting a reasonable investigation based upon all
available information.
C. Attempting to settle claims on the basis of an application that was altered without
notice to or the knowledge of the insured.
D. Failing to honor an uncovered claim.
D. Failing to honor an uncovered claim.

Although their liability is clear, BB&S Insurance Company routinely delays all claim
payments for 90 days, and in doing so:
A. Avoids a lot of little nuisance claims.
B. Substantially eliminates fraudulent claims.
C. Is guilty of an unfair claim settlement practice.
D. Avoids any acts of illegal discrimination between claimants.
C. Is guilty of an unfair claim settlement practice.

Which of the following would be considered unfair or deceptive acts by an adjuster?
A. Requesting that a first party claimant signs a release that extends beyond the subject
matter which gave rise to the claim payment.
B. Advising the claimant that their rights may be impaired if a form of release is not
completed within a specified period of time unless for the purpose of notification of
statute of limitations.
C. Issuing a check or draft, in partial settlement of a loss or claim under specific
coverage that contains language that releases the insurer or insured from total
liability.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

An act of terrorism must be “certified” to be such an act by:
A. The President of the United States.
B. The Senate
C. The House of Representatives.
D. The Secretary of the Treasury.
D. The Secretary of the Treasury.

:All of the following events are considered acts of terrorism, except:
A. Acts of riot and civil commotion
B. Acts considered dangerous to human life, property or infrastructure.
C. Acts resulting in damage within or outside the United States.
D. Acts committed at the premises of any United States mission.
A. Acts of riot and civil commotion

In order to be certified as an act of terrorism under the Federal Terrorism Act, property
and casualty losses must exceed __ for any one event:
A. $500,000
B. $1,000,000
C. $3,000,000
D. $5,000,000
D. $5,000,000

None of the following can be covered by the Federal Terrorism Act insurance program,
except:
A. Most commercial property and casualty risks.
B. Federal crop insurance.
C. Personal insurance policies.
D. Health and life insurance policies.
A. Most commercial property and casualty risks.

No act will be certified by the Secretary as an act of terrorism under the Federal
Terrorism Act if:
A. The act is not committed as part of the course of war declared by Congress.
B. The act is one of terrorism as defined by the Act.
C. The losses that occur relate to commercial property risks.
D. The losses that occur relate to life insurance.
D. The losses that occur relate to life insurance.

All of the following are considered acts of rebating, except:
A. An agent provides an all-expenses paid cruise to a client and his wife in exchange for
writing the coverage on his national chain of restaurants.
B. An agent sends holiday greeting cards to all the clients on his mailing list.
C. An adjuster receives a monthly check from an auto body repair shop for
recommending the repair shop to clients who have a claim.
D. All of these situations are considered acts of rebating.
B. An agent sends holiday greeting cards to all the clients on his mailing list.

Under the extension of the Terrorism Risk Insurance Act the federal government will share
in the losses for a certified act of terrorism if:
A. Total losses for all insurers exceed $100 million dollars
B. An insurer is responsible for the first 20% of losses as a deductible, and then the
government will pay 85% of remaining claim amounts.
C. The total certified acts of terrorism for the program year have not exceeded $100
billion dollars
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

The federal law enacted to control the ways financial institutions and insurance companies
deal with the private information of individuals is:
A. The FAIR Plan
B. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
C. The CAN-Spam Act
D. The Fair Credit Reporting Act
B. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

An incorporated insurance company owned by its policyholders is:
A. A Stock Company.
B. A Reciprocal Insurer.
C. A Mutual Company.
D. A Self Insurer.
C. A Mutual Company.

The federal government sometimes provides insurance that is not ordinarily available from
private insurers. Which of the following is provided by the federal government?
A. Nuclear energy liability insurance
B. Federal flood insurance
C. Federal crop insurance
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

In addition to any administrative action, a person who violates the Federal Fraud and False
Statements regulation will be subject to a civil penalty of up to:
A. $5,000
B. $10,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
D. $50,000

The Pair and Set clause in property insurance contracts notes that the loss to one item
in a pair or set:
A. Constitutes a total loss.
B. Pays the difference between ACV of the property before and after the loss.
C. Does not constitute a total loss.
D. Does not constitute a partial loss.
B. Pays the difference between ACV of the property before and after the loss

Inland Marine insurance is commonly used to insure all of the following, except:
A. Stamps
B. Camera Equipment
C. Jewelry
D. Automobiles
D. Automobiles

The Inland Marine coverage form which provides open perils insurance on a world-wide
basis for unscheduled personal property is a:
A. Personal Effects Floater.
B. Personal Articles Floater.
C. Personal Property Floater.
D. Personal Transportation Floater.
C. Personal Property Floater.

The Inland Marine coverage form which provides open peril insurance for specific
classes of personal property on an itemized and scheduled basis is called a:
A. Personal Articles Floater.
B. Personal Property Floater.
C. Personal Effects Floater.
D. Personal Transportation Floater.
A. Personal Articles Floater.

The Inland Marine coverage form which covers clothing, cameras and other portable
property worn or carried by tourists and travelers is a:
A. Personal Effects Floater.
B. Personal Articles Floater.
C. Camera and Musical Instrument floater.
D. Theatrical Property Floater.
A. Personal Effects Floater.

Sue Stokers owns an expensive collection of jewelry. She is worried about the
fluctuating values of gold, silver and diamonds. She has the collection appraised. Her
agent suggests a Personal Articles Floater to insure these items. If she wants to avoid a
decrease in her coverage due to a decrease in market value, which of the following
clauses should she can have included in her policy?
A. Functional Replacement Cost
B. Actual Cash Value
C. Agreed Amount
D. Diminished Value
C. Agreed Amount

Jim Cress owns an expensive fine arts collection. He has it appraised and covered under
a Personal Articles Floater. He takes his collection to England to have it auctioned.
While the collection is in his hotel room, it is stolen. Which of the following is true?
A. The loss is not covered
B. Fine arts are covered for fire only when outside the covered territory
C. Theft does not apply to fine arts
D. Property awaiting auction is never covered
A. The loss is not covered

An insured owns an expensive rare painting. He has it appraised by an art dealer and has
it insured for $50,000 under a Personal Articles Floater. There is a market decline for
this item. It is destroyed in a fire at his office. The company offers him $40,000 which is
the current market value. Which of the following is true regarding this loss?
A. It will not be covered since it is away from the insured’s residence
B. It will be covered for the full $50,000 amount
C. The company is correct in offering fair market value at the time of the loss
D. The company will ask for a reevaluation of the item based records and
documentation of his cost, the current market value and the appraised value
B. It will be covered for the full $50,000 amount

The daughter of an insured is attending college and her family carries a Tenant’s
Homeowner policy HO-4 with $50,000 contents coverage. The daughter has about
$15,000 of personal belongings consisting of clothing, musical instruments and electronic
equipment, some appliances and other personal items. Which form would be used to
cover her property exposures?
A. Personal Effects Floater
B. Personal Articles Floater
C. Personal Property Floater
D. The Homeowner Form
C. Personal Property Floater

John and Susan have a Homeowner policy with a $5,000 deductible. John has purchased
some expensive camera equipment to take on a cruise for recording their trip. Special
scuba gear and sportswear have also been purchased for both. They are concerned
about fire and theft. What coverage would you recommend?
A. Personal Articles Floater
B. Personal Property Floater
C. Personal Effects Floater
D. Reduce the Homeowner deductible temporarily
C. Personal Effects Floater

An insured has her fur coat specifically covered under a Personal Articles Floater. It
has been stored in a plastic garment bag in her closet during the good weather
months. She decides to take the coat out and hang it outside to freshen up. The next
door neighbor’s dog sees the coat and attacks it and ruins the garment. The insurer
will:
A. Decline the claim because damage by domestic animals is excluded
B. Decline the claim because damage by any animal is excluded
C. Pay the claim because the loss is not excluded
D. Deny the claim because of neglect on the part of the insured
C. Pay the claim because the loss is not excluded

The insureds are retired and do not own a home. They live and travel extensively in
their motor home. To cover their personal items which of the following would you
suggest they purchase?
A. Personal Effects Floater
B. Personal Articles Floater
C. Personal Property Floater
D. Both the Personal Property Floater and the Personal Articles Floater
D. Both the Personal Property Floater and the Personal Articles Floater

An insured has an extensive gun collection. Which of the following would not cover
his collection in case of a flood?
A. The Personal Articles Floater
B. The Personal Effects Floater
C. The Personal Property Floater
D. None of the forms would cover flood
C. The Personal Property Floater

In Ocean Marine Insurance, which of the following is considered the most important implied
warranty?
A. Seaworthiness
B. Condition of the cargo
C. Legality
D. All of the above
A. Seaworthiness

  1. In Ocean Marine Insurance, the term “average” means:
    A. The ACV of the ship
    B. The annual premium for the insurance policy
    C. Loss or damage
    D. That coverage is written on a named peril basis
    C. Loss or damage

Protection and Indemnity Coverage contained in an Ocean Marine policy covers:
A. Liability against injuries to seamen.
B. Injury to stevedores, longshoreman and harbor workers
C. Cargo, if lost or damaged through negligence
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Protection and Indemnity Coverage contained in an Ocean Marine policy covers:
A. Guarantees the purpose of the voyage
B. Loss of the shipper’ fees.
C. Marine legal liability for damages caused by the ship
D. Damage to another vessel caused by collision
C. Marine legal liability for damages caused by the ship

Although Ocean Marine Hull and Cargo coverages are usually written on an open peril basis,
they exclude losses caused by inherent vice. The term “inherent vice” means:
A. The potential of property to self-destruct.
B. Negligence by masters or members of the crew.
C. Losses caused by the dishonesty of crewmembers.
D. Any loss resulting from illegal activities.
A. The potential of property to self-destruct.

In Ocean Marine Insurance, what is the purpose of the IVEL clause?
A. To pay for the loss of shipper’s fees
B. To require the insured to take all reasonable steps to protect the property from further
loss.
C. To provide excess hull and collision liability coverage
D. To cover bulk shipments
C. To provide excess hull and collision liability coverage

What is meant by “break bulk” cargo?
A. Cargo shipped in a tanker ship
B. Cargo that is loosely packed such as ores
C. Loose cargo such as cartons
D. Containerization cargo
C. Loose cargo such as cartons

Which of the following is not essential in determining if a salvage award is to be made?
A. Life-saving efforts
B. The property involved must be in peril from some hazard
C. The salvage service must be voluntary
D. The effort must be successful
A. Life-saving efforts

What is the purpose of freight insurance?
A. Covers loss to the cargo
B. Covers shipper fees
C. Covers the insurable interest of the shipper due to jettison of the cargo
D. Covers the cargo until it reaches the warehouse
B. Covers shipper fees

In case of a loss, how many days’ notice does the insured have after notification of a claim
to submit the claim to the underwriters of the Ocean Marine coverage?
A. 90 days
B. 60 days
C. 180 days
D. 30 days
C. 180 days

The insured is hit in the rear while stopped at a traffic light. The insured’s company pays for
his repairs then seeks reimbursement from the responsible party. This is described as:
A. Subrogation.
B. Reimbursement.
C. Arbitration.
D. Appeal.
A. Subrogation.

  1. Damage to a windshield by a bird would be covered under:
    A. Collision
    B. Comprehensive
    C. Liability
    D. All of the above.
    B. Comprehensive

The Personal Auto Policy provides coverage in all of the following locations, except:
A. Hawaii
B. Mexico
C. Canada
D. Alaska
B. Mexico

Mr. Pfister carried 15/30/5 limits on an auto when he negligently ran into a parked car
containing three occupants resulting in the following claims:
Tom – B.I. – $18,000 and P.D. – $ 8,000
Dick – B.I. – $ 8,000
Harry- B.I. – $ 4,000
In addition to these settlement awards, there was $18,000 in legal fees. In response to this
accident, Pfister’s PAP will pay:
A. $32,000
B. $38,000
C. $50,000
D. $68,000
C. $50,000

After a loss, the insured must:
A. Notify the company.
B. Permit the company to inspect a damaged auto before repairs are started.
C. Submit to a physical exam if needed.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

All of the following are Physical Damage exclusions, except:
A. Loss to vehicle used as a livery.
B. Damage due to wear and tear.
C. Loss to audio tapes.
D. Loss to permanently installed car telephone.
D. Loss to permanently installed car telephone.

The insurer will pay transportation expenses under the PAP beginning __ after a theft of
the insured’s automobile.
A. 24 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 72 hours.
D. 96 hours.
B. 48 hours.

Under the PAP, the insurer will pay for transportation expenses up to which of the following
amounts?
A. $10 per day; $300 maximum.
B. $20 per day; $500 maximum.
C. $15 per day; $300 maximum.
D. $20 per day; $600 maximum.
D. $20 per day; $600 maximum.

A car, traveling at high speed, skids at a turn and rolls over. The damage incurred would be
covered under which of the following personal auto coverages?
A. Collision
B. Comprehensive
C. Uninsured motorist
D. P.D. liability
A. Collision

A stolen car is covered under which of the following personal auto coverages?
A. Collision
B. Comprehensive
C. Uninsured motorist
D. P.D. liability
B. Comprehensive

As a result of an auto accident, the insured sustains bodily injury worth $50,000. The
responsible party carries auto liability insurance in the amount of $15/30/5. The insured’s
$100,000 underinsurance coverage would pay:
A. $15,000
B. $35,000
C. $50,000
D. $100,000
B. $35,000

The purpose of “underinsured motors” coverage is to:
A. Provide coverage for a “hit-and-run” driver.
B. Pay for injuries sustained by insureds who have been injured when the at-fault driver
carries auto limits less than the financial responsibility of the state in which the insured
was injured.
C. Provide coverage for the insured when the at-fault driver carries less coverage than
that needed to pay for the insured’s injuries.
D. Provide coverage when the at-fault driver’s insurance company denies the claim.
C. Provide coverage for the insured when the at-fault driver carries less coverage than
that needed to pay for the insured’s injuries.

An uninsured motor vehicle includes:
A. An insured vehicle whose insurer denies coverage.
B. An insured vehicle whose insurer becomes insolvent.
C. A “hit and run” vehicle.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

The PAP Medical Payments cover:
A. The insured as driver.
B. A passenger.
C. The insured as pedestrian.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

Under the PAP Medical Payments, the time limit for incurring medical expenses is:
A. 6 months.
B. 1 year.
C. 2 years.
D. 3 years.
D. 3 years.

The PAP liability coverage excludes all of the following, except:
A. Intentional injury.
B. Damage to insured property.
C. Damage to property of others in the insured’s care.
D. Damage to property of others due to the insured’s motor vehicle negligence.
D. Damage to property of others due to the insured’s motor vehicle negligence.

All of the following are considered insureds under the PAP, except:
A. Any person using the insured auto.
B. A family member using the insured auto.
C. Any organization the insured represents.
D. Any person using an auto not owned by the insured.
D. Any person using an auto not owned by the insured.

An auto liability policy with split limits of 15/30/5 would pay what maximum amount in the
event of a covered bodily injury loss to three people?
A. $5,000
B. $15,000
C. $30,000
D. $45,000
C. $30,000

An auto liability policy with split limits of $10/20/5 would pay how much in the event of a
$10,000 loss to the other person’s damaged vehicle?
A. $0
B. $5,000
C. $10,000
D. $20,000
B. $5,000

An auto liability policy with a single limit of $30,000 would pay which of the following
amounts in the event of a $10,000 loss to the insured vehicle and a $25,000 bodily injury
settlement to a third party?
A. $10,000
B. $25,000
C. $30,000
D. $35,000
B. $25,000

Under the PAP, a covered auto includes all of the following, except:
A. Temporary substitute
B. Non-owned auto
C. Private passenger auto listed in the Declarations
D. An owned trailer
B. Non-owned auto

Leased vehicles can be covered under the PAP if they are leased for a minimum of:
A. 30 consecutive days.
B. 60 consecutive days.
C. 6 consecutive months.
D. 1 year.
C. 6 consecutive months.

A deer crashes into the side of the insured’s car. Which of the following PAP coverages
would cover this damage?
A. Property damage liability.
B. Collision.
C. Uninsured motorist property damage.
D. Comprehensive.
D. Comprehensive.

Which of the following would be covered under a PAP?
A. A truck the insured rented that is over 10,000 gross vehicle weight.
B. A three wheeled vehicle used in a medical emergency.
C. A motor cycle.
D. A large rented motor home.
B. A three wheeled vehicle used in a medical emergency.

An uninsured motorist vehicle under the Personal Auto Policy includes all of the following,
except:
A. Hit and run vehicle whose driver cannot be identified.
B. A vehicle newly acquired by the named insured.
C. A vehicle insured by the company that is insolvent.
D. A vehicle to which no liability bond or insurance policy provides coverage at the time
of the accident.
B. A vehicle newly acquired by the named insured.

What is the limit for damage to a non-owned trailer under the Personal Auto Policy?
A. $500
B. $1,000
C. $1,500
D. $2,000
C. $1,500

All of the following are covered under Coverage A of a Homeowner Policy, except:
A. Attached garage.
B. Construction materials used in building an addition to the dwelling.
C. Detached garage.
D. A central air conditioning system.
C. Detached garage.

The type of coverage on contents provided by the HO-3 is:
A. Open perils.
B. Named perils.
C. Basic form.
D. Comprehensive.
B. Named perils.

Under the Homeowner Policy, theft coverage does not cover theft of property:
A. Committed by the insured.
B. From a dwelling under construction.
C. From the residence of the insured’s tenant.
D. None of the above are covered.
D. None of the above are covered.

An apartment dweller would be in the market for a:
A. H0-2
B. H0-3
C. H0-4
D. H0-6
C. H0-4

The personal liability coverage for Mr. Jones’ Homeowner Policy would cover Jones if:
A. His dog bit his neighbor on the nose.
B. His 14-year-old son burned down his house.
C. He negligently bumped into his son while running to work.
D. All of the above.
A. His dog bit his neighbor on the nose.

Coverage F of the Homeowner Policy applies to:
A. The named insured.
B. Resident relatives.
C. Tenants of the insured.
D. Social invitees.
D. Social invitees.

Coverage E of the Homeowner Policy involves:
A. Premises liability.
B. Personal activities.
C. Acts of residence employees.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

Which of the following Homeowner forms provides the least amount of perils coverage?
A. HO-5
B. HO-3
C. HO-2
D. HO-8
D. HO-8

Coverage D – Loss of Use provides which of the following percentages of Coverage A under
the H0-2?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
B. 30

Under Coverage C of the Homeowner Policy, which of the following categories of property
receive limited dollar coverage?
A. Boats
B. Trailers
C. Furs
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

The Homeowner Policy excludes which of the following types of personal property?
A. The insured’s dog.
B. The insured’s motorbike.
C. Silverware scheduled under another policy.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

Under the H0-3, what percentage of the amount of insurance written for Coverage A
applies to Coverage C for a one or two family dwelling?
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
C. 50

Under Coverage B – Other Structures of the Homeowner Policy, which of the following
structures are not covered?
A. Structures used for business purposes.
B. Structures rented to a non-tenant for other than a private garage.
C. Attached garages.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

If the insurer cancels a Homeowner Policy, unearned premium is returned to the insured
on what basis?
A. Short rate.
B. Pro rata.
C. Discount.
D. Experience.
B. Pro rata.

If the insured cancels a Homeowner Policy, unearned premium is returned to the insured
on what basis?
A. Short rate.
B. Pro rata.
C. Discount.
D. Experience.
A. Short rate.

All of the following are exclusions under the Homeowner Policy, except:
A. Intentional loss.
B. Flood.
C. Earth movement.
D. Volcanic eruption.
D. Volcanic eruption.

A Homeowner Policy may be cancelled by the insured:
A. For any reason.
B. At any time.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.
C. Both A and B.

Homeowner Medical Payments Coverage does not apply to bodily injury to which of the
following?
A. The insured’s seven-year old son who fell down the front stairs.
B. An appliance repairman working on the insured premises.
C. An insured boarder who trips in her apartment over a rug.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

Watercraft excluded from coverage under Section II of the Homeowner Policy includes all
of the following, except:
A. Inboard owned by the insured.
B. Outboard owned by the insured of 25 horsepower.
C. 30-foot sailboat rented to the insured.
D. Inboard-outboard of 80 HP owned by the insured.
B. Outboard owned by the insured of 25 horsepower

Under the Damage to Property of Others coverage of a Homeowner Policy, section II,
property damage caused intentionally by an insured is excluded if the insured is:
A. 13 years old.
B. 18 years old.
C. 21 years old.
D. Any of the above.
D. Any of the above.

Under Section II – Additional Coverages of the Homeowner Policy, the insurer agrees to
pay:
A. The cost of a legal defense.
B. Premiums on bonds connected with liability suits.
C. Investigation cost.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

A condominium owner-occupant would be in the market for a:
A. HO-2.
B. HO-3.
C. HO-4.
D. HO-6.
D. HO-6.

A Homeowner Policy can be purchased by:
A. A person buying a home under the installment plan.
B. An individual who owns a home under the course of construction.
C. The owner of a seasonal dwelling who is insured under a Homeowner Policy for her
primary dwelling.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

A homeowner has a fire that totally destroys a $200 typewriter before the fire is
extinguished. If the fire coverage on contents contains a $250 deductible, the insured will
receive:
A. $200
B. $50
C. $250
D. $ 0
D. $ 0

The limit of liability of any property insurance contract in a given loss is the:
A. ACV settlement.
B. RC settlement.
C. Policy limits.
D. Market Value.
C. Policy limits.

Methods of risk management include:
A. Transfer
B. Sharing
C. Avoidance
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.

An insured has suffered a fire loss to his or her dwelling. This insured is which party to the
claim?
A. Third party
B. First party
C. Second party
D. Loss payee
B. First party

Mr. Jones, a pedestrian, was injured by Mr. Smith while driving his vehicle. Mr. Smith is
insured by I Am Bogus Insurance Company. The insurance company would be which party
to the claim?
A. First party since it is the one that has to pay.
B. The second party.
C. The third party.
D. Guarantor
B. The second party.

Which of the following is NOT included in the declarations section of an insurance contract?
A. The identity of the named insured.
B. The policy period.
C. The covered perils.
D. The policy premium.
C. The covered perils.

Which of the following is the section of an insurance contract that contains the provisions,
rules of conduct, duties, and obligations of the parties?
A. The Insuring Agreement.
B. The Conditions.
C. The Exclusions.
D. The Limitations.
B. The Conditions.

A loss that is a direct consequence of a particular peril is called a(n):
A. Indirect loss.
B. Peril.
C. Hazard.
D. Direct loss.
D. Direct loss

Which of the following is a clause in property and casualty contracts which states that if
policy or endorsement forms are broadened and no additional premium is required,
then all existing similar policies or endorsements will be construed to include the
broadened coverage?
A. Liberalization
B. Assignment
C. Binder
D. Coinsurance
A. Liberalization

Which of the following provides written evidence of coverage pending the issuance of a
policy?
A. Cause of Loss form
B. Assignment
C. Binder
D. Blanket coverage
C. Binder

Which of the following is an example of a Loss Evaluation Method?
A. Liberalization
B. Cause of Loss form
C. Stated amount
D. Conditions
C. Stated amount

The cost of replacement minus depreciation is the definition of:
A. Valued Policy
B. Market Value
C. Replacement Cost
D. Actual Cash Value
D. Actual Cash Value

Which of the following is a method of requiring the insured to insure at least 80% of the
value of the covered commercial property?
A. Cause of Loss form
B. Standard Mortgage clause
C. Loss Payable clause
D. Coinsurance clause
D. Coinsurance clause

Which of the following is a basis for insuring property that allows the insured to report the
value of the building contents to the insurance company on a monthly basis?
A. Blanket Basis
B. Reporting Form
C. Specific Basis
D. Agreed Value
B. Reporting Form

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining negligence on the part of the
insured?
A. Legal duty is owed.
B. There is a breach of protection.
C. Proximate cause.
D. Damage.
B. There is a breach of protection.

In liability insurance, policy limits that apply one limit to each person injured, another for
bodily injury claims of all persons injured in a single accident, and a separate limit for all
property damage arising out of a single accident is:
A. Aggregate limits
B. Split limits
C. Single limit
D. Total limits
B. Split limits

An insurance contract that is contingent on an uncertain event is referred to as?
A. Executory
B. Aleatory
C. Contract of adhesion
D. Conditional
B. Aleatory

Mr. Jones is involved in an at-fault accident. The other party was also at fault. The method
to determine damages due each party based on a percentage of negligence is known as:
A. Contributory negligence
B. Intervening cause
C. Comparative negligence
D. Assumption of risk
C. Comparative negligence

The insured owns a filling station and an employee causes bodily injury to a third party.
The insured is held legally liable for the employee’s acts. This is called:
A. Contributory negligence
B. Joint and several
C. Contingent liability
D. Vicarious liability
C. Contingent liability

One characteristic of an insurance contract is that both parties must perform certain acts
to make the contract legally enforceable. This is called:
A. Personal aspect
B. Aleatory
C. Executory
D. Utmost good faith
D. Utmost good faith

A church has hired a painting contractor to stain and varnish the woodwork in the building.
He leaves the rags and brushes used to apply the painting materials in a small storage area.
This is an example of:
A. A peril
B. A hazard
C. Assumption of risk
D. Direct loss
B. A hazard

The insurance company is the author of the insurance policy. The insured buys what is
offered by the company and accepts it as is. This is called:
A. Executory
B. Conditional
C. Contract of adhesion
D. Aleatory
C. Contract of adhesion

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