Which duty is not the responsibility of a level I Inspector?
A) Handle citizen complaints related to fire and life safety.
B) Perform plans reviews.
C) Interpret and apply adopted codes and standards.
D) Determine occupancy loads for single-use buildings.
Perform plans reviews.
Most of the consensus standards that relate to fire and life safety are developed by the following organizations except:
ASTM International,
National Fire Protection Assoc.,
American National Standards Institute,
Underwriters Laboratories
American National Standards Institute
Regarding Commercial Kitchen Hood Systems, pipe penetrations of the exhaust hood require what?
a. Minimum 18 inch clearance to combustible materials
b. Printed manufacturer guidelines of spacing on the pipe itself
c. Gas shut off valve and electrical shunt accessibility
d. A liquid tight continuous external weld
A liquid tight continuous external weld
A independent, non-profit organization that tests products for their intended use and certifies them as safe describes:
A) ASTM International
B) American National Standards Institute
C) Underwriters Laboratories Inc.
D) Standards Council of Canada
Underwriters Laboratories Inc.
Which is not one of the three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information?
A. Plot plan
B. Aerial view
C. Floor plan
D. Elevation view
Aerial view
Structural lumber has a moisture content of _% or less.
25%
19%
15%
12%
19%
Which of the following occupancies does not fall under state and local regulations?
A). Day care
B). Jail
C). Post office
D). Medical facility
Post office
The typical life cycle of a model code edition is _ years.
a. 5-7
b. 2-3
c. 7-10
d. 3-5
3-5
For Dry systems exceeding 500 gallons, there must be a quick opening device installed unless water is delivered to the system test connection within a specific time frame. What is this time frame?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. Not more than 30 seconds
D. Not more than 60 seconds
Not more than 60 seconds
Which of the following is an inspector not authorized to do?
A. Issue a summons.
B. Issue citations.
C. File complaints for code violations.
D. Prosecute an offender in a court of law.
Prosecute an offender in a court of law.
While exercising enforcement power, it is essential that the inspector ensure that the rights of the accused are protected and that __ is practiced.
A.) Worksite Safety
B.) Due Process
C.) Customer Appreciation
D.) Strict Compliance
Due Process
T or F Federal and some state/provincial-owned buildings located within the local jurisdiction are required to comply with local codes.
False
An educational occupancy is any building or portion of a building that is used for the purpose of education of _ or more persons from preschool through the 12th grade.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 10
d. 2
6
The term is used to describe a set of requirements similar to a standard. A consensus organization, such as NFPA, develop these codes that contain agreed-upon requirements for such areas as fire and life safety designs and installations.
A. Performance Code
B. Prescriptive Code
C. Model Code
D. Uniform Fire Code
Model Code
The demolition of a structure is included in what type/category of inspection?
A. Change of occupancy
B. Eminent hazard
C. New Construction
D. Response to a complaint
New Construction
An inspector assembles all of the necessary tools and equipment and PPE that may be needed for an inspection. Which of the following is NOT on the general list of commonly used items for fire inspections:
A. Gloves
B. Safety shoes or boots
C. Thermal imagining camera
D. Flashlight
Thermal imagining camera
The lightly constructed panel doors or glass doors used in general construction cannot act as barriers to high temperatures developed in a fire. Which of the following is NOT one of the three methods of classifying fire doors?
A. Alphabetical letter designation
B. Color coded designation
C. Hourly fire-protection rating
D. Combination of hour and letter
Color coded designation
The fire prevention division is managed by the _ , who typically holds the equivalent rank of assistant or deputy chief.
A. City Marshal
B. Fire Marshal
C. Lead Inspector
D. Deputy Marshal
Fire Marshal
Because they are extremely unsafe and unreliable, _____________ may not be used as any part of a means of egress in new construction.
A. Internal fire escape stairs
B. Outside fire slides
C. External fire escape stairs
D. None of the above
External fire escape stairs
Circle some of the duties of an inspector
A) Handle citizen complaints related to fire and life safety
B) Interpret and apply adopted codes and standards
C) Interrogate citizens for not getting a permit
D) A and B
A and B
What is an advantage of performance-based standards?
A) Performance-based standards specify exactly what techniques and materials are required for compliance.
B) Performance-based standards require significant technical expertise to implement.
C) Performance-based standards allow for flexibility in meeting needs of AHJ, owners and insurance companies.
D) Performance-based standards do not require frequent inspections or continued testing.
Performance-based standards allow for flexibility in meeting needs of AHJ, owners and insurance companies.
. A _ is a set of principles, protocols, or procedures that is developed by committees through a consensus process.
A. code
B. standard
C. regulation
D. legal document
standard
Sanctions are issued if the violation is not corrected in a certain time. Which of the follow is not correct?
A.) Citations
B.) Complaints
C.) Fines
D.) Warrant
Warrant
While _ provides additional flexibility, there are difficulties associated with enforcement.
A. Prescriptive Codes
B. Performance Codes
C. Consensus Codes
D. Local Codes
Performance Codes
Which of the following is NOT a type of Inspection Drawing?
A. Plot Plan
B. Floor Plan
C. Elevation View
D. Venn Diagram
Venn Diagram
A _ is a collection or compilation of rules and regulations enacted by a legislative body to become law in a particular jurisdiction.
A) Standard
B) Rule
C) Code
D) Ordinance
Code
The quickness with which unprotected steel fails when exposed to fire depends on several factors, except:
A) Mass of the steel members
B) Vertical or horizontal placement of the steel members
C) Intensity of the exposing fire
D) Load supported by the steel
Vertical or horizontal placement of the steel members
In regards to AFD Prevention Section Public Assembly Maintenance and Inspections, alarm systems are required in public assemblies with an occupant load of _ or more.
A. 200
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
300
Listening makes up what percentage of time spent communicating?
A) 42%
B) 31%
C) 15%
D) 11%
42%
Official actions that can be taken to ensure code compliance are generally enacted in what order?
A. Notification, Follow-up inspection, Prosecution, Sanction
B. Follow-up inspection, Notification, Sanction, Prosecution
C. Notification, Follow-up inspection, Sanction, Prosecution
D. Prosecution, Sanction, Follow-up inspection, Notification
Notification, Follow-up inspection, Sanction, Prosecution
Three general types of drawings are used to show structure, facility, or site information. Which of the following are NOT one of those types?
a. Floor Plan
b. Earth View
c. Plot Plan
d. Elevation Plan
Earth View
Which of the following is NOT a category that building roofs can be broadly classified into from a fire protection standpoint?
a) flat
b) truss
c) pitched
d) curved
truss
One method of persuasion is based on Monroe’s Motivated Sequence Pattern developed by Alan Monroe in the 1930’s. Which is NOT listed in the sequence?
ATTENTION, NEED, ULTIMATUM, SATISFACTION
ULTIMATUM
_ are commonly used in high-rise buildings and hospitals as a means of passing through a fire-barrier wall that separates two fire compartments in a structure.
a) Horizontal exits
b) Exit discharge
c) Exit passageways
d) Smokeproof enclosure
Horizontal exits
Which is not an hourly fire-protection rating given to fire doors?
A. 4 hours
B. 1 1/2 hours
C. 1/2 hour
D. 1/3 hour
1/2 hour
What are the two types of permits?
A. Allowance & Granted
B. C&D
C. Operational & Construction
D. A&B
Operational & Construction
All are elements of the Communication Model except…
A. Message
B. Personal Appearance
C. Interference
D. Feedback
Personal Appearance
Which of the following in not one of the three key elements to an evacuation plan:
A: Evacuation Routes
B: Monitor Duties
C: Protect-In-Place Drills
D: Employee/Occupant Duties
Protect-In-Place Drills
- A dormitory is any building or portion of a building in which sleeping accommodations are provided to _ or more persons who are not related.
A: 4
B: 10
C: 16
D: 50
16
Self-closing doors activated by fire-detection, water-flow, or other alarm devices can be found in all of the following locations, except:
A. Openings into mechanical or electrical spaces
B. Openings into secure zones
C. Walls separating connected buildings
D. Walls that separate two different occupancy use groups
Openings into secure zones
- Which one of the following is not a Mercantile Occupancy?
a. Pharmacy
b. Supermarket
c. Hotel
d. Mall
Hotel
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Type IV building construction?
A) Exterior walls constructed of non-combustible material.
B) Large dimensional lumber greater than 4 inches used for all structural elements.
C) The presence of voids and concealed spaces in floors and roofs.
D) The use of small-dimensional lumber glued together to form laminated beams.
The presence of voids and concealed spaces in floors and roofs.
Which of the following is not one of the three basic elements in the “Means of Egress System”?
a. Exit Pathway
b. Exit
c. Exit Access
d. Exit discharge
Exit Pathway
Red oak flooring was assigned a flame and smoke spread rating of __ during a 10 minute Steiner Tunnel Test? All materials are tested against this rating.
A) 25
B) 75
C) 100
100
A __ is a framed structural unit made of a group of triangles in one plane.
a. joist
b. truss
c. web
d. beam
truss
From a fire-protection standpoint, building roofs can be broadly classified into three categories:
A. domed, peaked, and slanted
B. flat, pitched and curved
C. rigid, non-rigid and semi-rigid
D. fire resistant, non-combustible and combustible
flat, pitched and curved
_ is a masonry structure that is built against a wall to provide additional support or reinforcement.
A. Pilaster
B. Buttress
C. Corbelling
D. Concrete Block
Buttress
A course of bricks laid across two wythes, with the ends of the bricks facing outward is known as a _ course.
A. soldier
B. stretcher
C. header
D. brick faced
header
Generally in modern building Construction the are 5 types of doors used. Choose the one that does not fit in?
A.) Swinging
B.) Revolveing
C.) Overhead
D.) Folding
Overhead
In apartments, draft stops are typically required for spaces exceeding how many square feet?
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
3000
Which of the following is not one of the three common types of hoistways?
A. Single
B. Multiple
C. Blind
D. Double
Double
The ______ is the most commonly used method for evaluating surface-burning characteristics of materials.
A.) Flame Spread Rating
B.) Steiner Tunnel Test
C.) Material Classification System
D.) NIST Testing System
Flame Spread Rating
Which of these are not considered a cast-in-place concrete system?
A. Flat slab
B. Slab and beam
C. Waffle construction
D. None of the above
None of the above
In heavy timber design, columns are not less than _?
A. 6 x 6
B. 4 x 4
C. 4 x 6
D. 8 x 8
8 x 8
An airport terminal is classified as what occupancy?
A. Assembly
B. Transit
C. Business
D. Industrial
Assembly
Some of the most important fire and life safety features built into a structure include?
a. Exterior stairwells & fire doors
b. Compartmentalization & fire resistance
c. Structural components & occupancy classification
d. Automatic sprinklers & fire detection systems
Compartmentalization & fire resistance
What type construction is non-combustible and limited combustible and provides the highest level of safety?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Type I
An open parking garage would be classified as _ group, while a 9 Ft fence and private garages classify as _ group.
A. S, U.
B. B. U, S
C. C. F, R3
D. D.. I, R2
A. S, U.
Every structure is composed of the following building elements EXCEPT:
A) Structural Frame
B) Floor Construction
C) Roof Construction
D) Door Peep Holes
Door Peep Holes
Which type of wall is erected to limit the maximum spread of fire:
A) Party Wall
B) Fire Wall
C) Parapet Wall
D) None of the above
Parapet Wall
What construction type is commonly know as “wood frame or “frame”?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type V
Type V
Fire Escapes have been removed from the fire code
a. for many decades
b. since the 2012 Fire Code
c. never, they are still permitted
for many decades
Regarding Institutional/health care facilities, which sentence is correct?
a) In Institutional /health care facilities, either the local code or NFPA 101 will be applied but not both.
b) In Institutional / health care facilities, more than one fire and life safety code may apply.
c) In Institutional / health care facilities, NFPA 101 will always be used over the local code.
d) In Institutional / health care facilities, because local codes are more stringent, NFPA 101 is irrelevant.
In Institutional / health care facilities, more than one fire and life safety code may apply.
The Means of Egress does not consist of which of the following components?
A. The Exit Access
B. The Exit
C. The Occupancy Route
D. The Exit Discharge
The Occupancy Route
The letters on exit signs must be at least _ inches high and the principal strokes of the letters at least _-inch wide.
A. 6; 3/4
B. 3/4; 6
C. 4; 1/2
D. 8; 3/4
6; 3/4
There are two acronyms involved in Phase 1 activities regarding Health Care Facilities. They are:
A) RESPOND and RACE
B) REACT and RESPOND
C) REACT and RACE
D) RESPOND and RATTLE
REACT and RACE
To determine the capacity of an exit, it is necessary to calculate the capacity for each of the three means of egress elements:
A)Travel Distance, Travel Time, Travel Access
B) Exit Access, Exit, Exit Discharge
C) Occupancy Type, Occupant Load, Occupant Order
D) Egress Time, Egress Access, Egress Load
Exit Access, Exit, Exit Discharge
Which of the following is true concerning emergency evacuation drills in educational occupancies:
A) Only students must participate
B) Emphasis should be placed upon the speed of the drill completion
C) Emphasis should be placed upon orderly evacuation under proper discipline
D) All of the above are true
All of the above are true
If panic hardware is required, the latch should release by applying a force of not more than _ lbs and set door in motion by applying force of no more than _ lbs.
A. 10, 20
B. 5, 10
C. 10, 15
D. 15, 30
15, 30
In most cases, all of the codes require that there be at least __ exists from any balcony, mezzanine, story, or portion thereof that has an occupant load of 500 persons or less.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2
T or F Exit signs must be positioned so that at no point in the exit access is more than 150ft.
False
Hotel evacuation procedures should be posted________.
A) in each room (usually on the back of the door)
B) at all fire alarm pull stations
C) next to exits
D) all the above
all the above
_ and _ are the instruments that the inspector uses to create a safe environment for the residents and workers in the community.
A. pen / paper
B. law / order
C. standards / codes
D. peanut butter / jelly
standards / codes
Which of the following is NOT a nonverbal communication:
A) Eye Contact
B) Facial Expression
C) Personal Appearance
D) All of the above are forms of nonverbal communication
All of the above are forms of nonverbal communication
Which of the following water supply systems is the most common?
A. Gravity
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Combination of gravity and direct pumping
Combination of gravity and direct pumping
There are five types of standpipe systems listed in NFPA14. They include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Automatic-wet
B) Manual Automatic
C) Manual Dry
D) Manual Wet
Manual Automatic
Fire-flow tests may show a progressive reduction in water-flow capacity of the distribution system. Which of the following obstructions or conditions is NOT a reason for reduced water flow.
A) Encrustations
B) Malfunctioning valves
C) Foreign matter other than deposits
D) All are reasons for reduced flow
All are reasons for reduced flow
Generally, 2 1/2″ outlets should be used to conduct hydrant flow test because the stream from a large outlet contains _.
a) debris
b) voids
c) turbulence
d) air
voids
Which is not one of the three common types of hydrant outlets?
A. Recessed Outlet
B. Projecting Outlet
C. Square Outlet
D. Rounded Outlet
Recessed Outlet
On to which type of water main are fire hydrants normally connected?
a. Distributors
b. Primary Feeders
c. House Lines
d. Secondary Feeders
Distributors
In order to make a thorough inspection, an inspector should prepare a __ of the property: a rough drawing of a structure, facility, or site used to illustrate existing and special conditions.
a. elevation view
b. floor plan
c. field sketch
d. plot plan
field sketch
_ is the width of the actual door.
A. Gross Width
B. Actual Width
C. Natural Width
D. Whole Width
Gross Width
Which of the following Groups does not include a complete (occupants and employees) evacuation during a fire drill:
A. All of Group E
B. Group R-2
C. Group R-4 ‘assisted living ‘
D. All of Group F
All of Group F
In regards to stairs, landings must be provided so that no flights of stairs are greater than _ feet high.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
12
Which of the following is not an example of an exit access?
A) Unenclosed ramp or stairs
B) Corridor leading to an exit opening
C) Public way leading to an exit
D) Occupied room or space
Public way leading to an exit
Which of the following statements about exits is not true?
A. When more than one exit is required it would be meaningless to have everyone try to exit through two doors closely placed on one side of the room.
B. When two exits are required, they are to be located not less than one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room or building area.
C. In spaces or structures where there is a requirement for more than two exits or exit access doors, at least two will meet the minimum separation requirements while the other exits are to be located in a manner that will allow them to be available if the primary exits become blocked or unavailable.
D. None of the above
None of the above
In a Emergency evacuation plan you have evacuation routes, monitor duties, and Employee/occupant duties. In the employee/occupant duties section what does not apply.
A.) Turn off all equipment
B.) Close doors and windows
C.) Ensure visitors are accounted for and evacuated from the building
D.) Be the last one out
Be the last one out
If panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to cause the latch to release by applying a force of NOT more than _ pound, and set the door in motion by applying a force of NOT more than _ pounds.
A. 7 and 20
B. 15 and 30
C. 10 and 30
D. 10 and 20
15 and 30
New ramps, complying with ADA requirements, have a minimum width of 44 inches and a slope of _.
A. 1:12
B. 1:24
C. 3:10
D. 2:15
1:12
While testing the HI/LOW Air pressure switch during Dry System trip test, the high air signal should be set at about what?
A. 10 psi below the normal air pressure setting
B. 10 psi above the normal air pressure setting
C. 5 psi below the normal air pressure setting
D. 5 psi above the normal air pressure setting
10 psi above the normal air pressure setting
Fire loss data reveals that in buildings equipped with automatic sprinklers, about _ % of all fires were controlled or extinguished by the system.
a. 80
b. 84
c. 90
d. 94
94
Each Class I or Class III standpipe system requires __ or more FDC though which a fire department engine can supply water into the system.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
One
A Diesel fire pump controller is less___ complicated than an electric motor controller.
A)true B) false
false
Which one of the following are not considered on-site water sources in private water supply systems?
A. reservoirs
B. pressure tanks
C. gravity tanks
D. fire hydrants
fire hydrants
Water mist fire protection systems are used to protect the following type of hazards except for____?
A) computer equipment and room
B) flammable and combustible liquids
C) aircraft passenger cabins
D) electrical transformers
electrical transformers
Which of the following is NOT a brand of combustible metal extinguishing agents.
a. NA-X
b. MET-L-X
c. Narthex
d. LITH_X
Narthex
Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements that must be met for a portable fire extinguisher to be effective:
A) Suitable for the hazard being protected
B) Sufficient size to control an incipient fire
C) Appropriate wind and weather conditions to ensure effectiveness
D) All of the above requirements must be met
All of the above requirements must be met
Which of these is NOT a part of stair components?
- Riser
- Tread Rail
- Run
- Stringer
Tread Rail
Which of the following are a type of sprinkler?
A) ESFR
B) EC
C) AF
D) A and B
A and B
Foam water system design and installation requirements are regulated by _.
A. NFPA 13
B. NFPA 13R
C. NFPA 25
D. NFPA 16
NFPA 16
True or False, NFPA 72 allows only manual pull stations and water flow detection devices to be used on shunt systems. Fire detection devices are not permitted.
True
The fire alarm control panel (FACP) is essentially the _ of the system.
Brain
Heat sensing fire detector color coding has a RED extra high temperature rating of?
A.) 0-99f
B.)175-249f
C.) 325-399f
D.) 500-575f
325-399f
According to NFPA, travel distances to a manual pull station should not exceed _ feet.
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
200
What color tag is used to indicate that an alarm system is impaired?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red
Red
About _ % of fire deaths are attributed to smoke inhalation and not to burns.
A. 55%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 70%
65%
When performing maintenance inspections of occupancies with alarm systems, the first step will be to:
A) Check for green light indicating normal operation
B) Confirm monitoring status with alarm company
C) Confirm panel is locked and inaccessible to public
D) Confirm system has been tested by licensed alarm contractor and has a current inspection tag
Confirm system has been tested by licensed alarm contractor and has a current inspection tag
Most people are well aware of the dangers of fire but less aware of the dangers of smoke inhalation. About _% of of fire deaths are attributed to smoke inhalation and not to burns.
A) 65
B) 80
C) 92
D) 75
65
If required, pull stations should be placed within _ feet of every exit.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 10
d) does not matter what distance, as long as it is not blocked
5
T or F: The development of clean-agent fire-extinguishing systems began in the late 1940s.
True
NFPA 10 has assigned a maximum travel distance of __ feet from the hazard to a Class K extinguisher?
A) 30
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
30
If an extinguisher is suitable for use on a particular class of fire, the picture-symbol background is what color?
A.) Red
B.) Light Blue
C.) Black
D.) Grey
Light Blue
Which one of the following is not considered a proper placement of a fire extinguisher?
A. Visible and marked with legible signage.
B. Near Points of egress or ingress.
C. Sitting on top of a work bench with no mount.
D. Near formal paths of travel.
Sitting on top of a work bench with no mount.
Foam extinguishes a fire by one or more of the four following methods except:
A. Smothering
B. Seperating
C. Suppressing
D. Blanketing
Blanketing
In regards to carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing systems, total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least _ percent concentration of CO into and enclosed area.
A. 21
B. 19
C. 34
D. 15
34
What is the fuel classification for combustible metals?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Class D
Most fire-extinguishing foam concentrates in use today are of the _ type, which means they must be proportioned with water and mixed with air (aerated) before they can be used.
A. mechanical
B. electrical
C. slippery
D. bubbly
mechanical
A properly placed fire extinguisher will result in all of the following except:
A. Visible, signage not necessary
B. Not be blocked by storage or equipment
C. Near points of egress and ingress
D. Near normal paths of travel
Visible, signage not necessary
A dry chemical extinguishing system is used wherever rapid fire extinguishment is required and where __ of the burning material is unlikely.
A) exploding
B) oxidation
C) smothering
D) reignition
reignition
NFPA 10 establishes a Class B flammable liquid fire with depth at____
A. 1/2″
B. 1/4″
C. < 1/4″ D. > 1/2″
1/4″
What percentage of fire deaths is attributed to smoke inhalation?
A) 65%
B) 50%
C) 42%
D) 15%
65%
True/False
A critical feature and limitation of special-agent fire-extinguishing systems is the quality of agent available in the system.
False – “quantity”
High expansion foam fire extinguishing systems typically have the following expansion rates:
A) 7:1 to 20:1
B) 20:1 to 200:1
C) 200:1 to 1,000:1
D) 1,000:1 to 2,500:1
200:1 to 1,000:1
The most serious problem involving CO2 systems, especially total flooding systems, is __?
A. pre-activation
B. personnel safety
C. exploding actuating mechanisms
D. lack of nozzle lubrication
personnel safety
Which is not considered a foam expansion rate?
A. Low
B. Medium
C. High
D. Fast
Fast
In addition to foam concentrate and mechanical agitation, what other two elements are necessary to produce high-quality fire fighting foam:
a) borosilicate ketone and muriatic acid
b) water and air
c) 3% hydrocarbon and a polar solvent
d) sodium bicarbonate and potassium chloride
water and air
Foam Fire-extinguishing systems extinguish the fire by one or more of the following ways Except_____.
A. Smothering
B. Separating
C. Compressing
D. Cooling
Compressing
Class K extinguishing agents turn fats and oils into a soapy form that extinguishes the fire through a process known as __.
A. ozonification
B. ionization
C. saponification
D. lubrication
saponification
NFPA __ is the Standard on Carbon Dioxide Extinguishing Systems.
a. NFPA 10
b. NFPA 14
c. NFPA 12
d. NFPA 2001
NFPA 12
Sprinklers can be omitted from the following areas in one and two family dwellings except:
A. Garages
B. Entrance hallways
C. Porches
D. Bedrooms not over 55 square feet
Bedrooms not over 55 square feet
Considered by many to be the first line of defense against fires, automatic sprinkler systems, in their basic forms, have been in use for over _ years.
A. 60
B. 70
C. 85
D. 100
100
According to the IFSTA Manual for Fire Inspector & Code Enforcement (7th Edition), the hydrant clearance between the bottom of the butt (discharge outlet) and the grade should be at least?
a. 10 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 15 inches
d. 18 inches
15 inches
Most fires in sprinkler equipped structures are controlled by the operation of _.
a) 5-8 sprinklers
b) 5 or fewer sprinklers
c) fewer than 10 sprinklers
d) 10-15 sprinklers
5 or fewer sprinklers
Where pressure at the hose outlet exceeds 100psi, NFPA 14 requires a pressure-regulating device to limit the pressure to _ PSI , unless otherwise approved by the fire dept.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 125
100
A _ consists of a network of pipes, storage tanks, control valves, and hydrants.
A. water facility
B. fire protection system
C. distribution system
D. water park
distribution system
The purpose of __ is to block the vertical spread of fire through a building and in stairwells to protect the means of egress.
A. Fire Walls
B. Enclosure Walls
C. Curtain Walls
D. Fire Partitions
Enclosure Walls
Large pipes with relatively wide spacing which carry large quantities of water to various points in a distribution system are called
A. primary feeders
B. secondary feeders
c. distributors
D. dead end mains
primary feeders
Application, review, issuance and expiration are the elements in the process for obtaining a/n :
A. code
B. standard
C. permit
D. inspector
permit
The effectiveness of evacuation plans should be tested on a regular basis by conducting ______________.
A. Skills testing.
B. Emergency evacuation drills.
C. Fire response drills.
D. Written tests.
Emergency evacuation drills?
The duties assigned to an inspector will vary based on the type and size of the inspections organization. True or False
True
As with any vertical opening in a building, pipe chases can spread __ to other floors of the building if not properly protected.
A. Smoke and fire.
B. Sound and vibrations
C. Trash and odors.
D. Rats, roaches and other vermin.
Smoke and fire.
T or F: Wired glass is not effective as a fire barrier, it is strictly for security.
F
The ability of occupants to evacuate a structure rapidly and safely in the event of a fire or other emergency is a __ aspect of building design.
A. non-issue
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary
primary
The means of egress must terminate in a public way or an area of refuge. A public way must have a minimum width and height of?
a. 15 feet
b. 5 feet
c. 12 feet
d. 10 feet
10 feet
The __ is one of the most important factors to be considered in determining whether the design and construction of a structure can be considered safe.
A. means of egress system
B. fire department connection
C. building construction type
D. Alarm system
means of egress system
The _ is based on the type of occupancy, type of building construction, and whether the building has an automatic sprinkler system or not.
A. fire-resistance-rating
B. fire load
C. flammability rating
D. fire code
fire-resistance-rating
A means of egress through a fire barrier or firewall to an area of refuge in the same building is a/n
A. exit discharge
B. exit
C. horizontal exit
D. protect in place
horizontal exit
Which of the following is NOT a type of dead-end access road.
T or hammerhead
cul-de-sac
alley dock
three point turn around
three point turn around
Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least __ inches from any combustible material unless it is specifically designed for a lesser clearance.
A) 12
B) 18
C) 36
D) Dependant on AHJ
18
Following a welding of thermal cutting operation, a fire watch must be maintained for at least __ after any job is completed.
A. 60 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 15 minutes
30 minutes
Dead end fire department access roads longer than 150 ft. must be provided with a:
A. Turnaround
B. Grass pave fire lane
C. Knox key switch
D. 13% road grade
Turnaround
The presence of a nonflowing electrical charge that may develop on almost any surface.
a) Alternating current
b) static electricity
c) arcing electricity
d) direct current
static electricity
Following a welding or thermal cutting operation (also called hot work), a fire watch must be maintained for at least _ minutes after any job is completed.
A. 60
B. 15
C. 30
D. 120
30
Three primary storage methods?
a. pallet storage
b. rack storage
c. solid piling
d. all of the above
all of the above
Inspectors should check all material-handling equipment within recycling facilities. These include all of the following except:
A) Waste chutes and handling systems
B) Shredders
C) Extruders
D) Incinerators
Incinerators
When certain high-hazard commodities such as vehicle tires, plastics, flammable liquids, unused pallets, and the like are stored over _ ft in and height and combustible materials are stored over _ft, the storage is considered__.
A.8, 12, high hazard storage
B.12, 20, high piled storage
C. 12, 20 high hazard solid stack storage
D. 6, 12, high piled storage
6, 12, high piled storage
T or F: Dust explosions occur in series. The first explosion usually is not as severe as subsequent explosions.
True
A _ is a brief spike in voltage, usually lasting millionths of a second, and one form of electrical power disturbance that can create a fire hazard.
a) spark
b) arc
c) power surge (also known as voltage and transient surge)
d) ground fault
power surge (also known as voltage and transient surge)
For Recreational Fires, the fire itself should be no more than _ feet from a structure unless it’s contained in a BBQ pit.
- 15 feet
- 20 feet
- 25 feet
- 12 feet
25 feet
How does a power surge enter a building? A) Electrical Service Lines
B) Telephone Lines
C) Cable Television Lines
D) Satellite Dishes
E) All the Above.
All the above
__ is the movement of a current between two electrodes or conductors and may result also result in a fire.
A. Voltage
B. Amperage
C. Arcing
D. Static electricity
Arcing
Which of the following is a type of fire lane turnaround?
A) Oval Face
B) Ladder Dock
C) Hammerhead
D) Cobra
Hammerhead
Code requirements for regulating “open burning” include the following: Uncontained fires should not be allowed within feet of a structure?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
50
According to the IFC Chapter 3 power point presentation , hot ashes and combustible ignition sources are not supposed to be placed within ___ft of combustibles (including walls), or within ____ft of building openings.
A) 10, 2
B) 100, 20
C) 1000, 200
D) 1, 2000
10, 2
__ feet is the minimum unobstructed height above fire lanes or fire apparatus access roads.
A. 12
B. 13
C. 13.5
D. 20
13.5
The cause of most failures in Industrial furnaces and ovens can be traced to:
A) Inadequate training of operators
B) Lack of proper maintenance
C) Improper application of equipment
D) all the the above
all the the above
Foam extinguishes a fire by one or more of the following methods:
A. Smothering
B. Separating
C. Cooling
D. Suppressing
E. All of the above
All of the above
Fire-extinguishing agents used in fixed dry-chemical systems are generally the same types that are used in portable fire extinguishers.
a. True
b. False
True
Wet chemical fire-extinguishing agents are typically composed of water and either one of three agents. Which of the following is not one of the three listed in the book?
A Potassium carbonate
B Potassium bicarbonate
C potassium acetate
D potassium ctrate
Potassium bicarbonate
The proper mounting height of a multipurpose dry chemical fire extinguisher, weighing less than 40 pounds, is between inches and inches.
A. 2 and 48
B. 4 and 44
C. 2 and 60
D. 4 and 60
4 and 60
There are 5 kinds of special-agent fire-extinguishing systems. Which one listed below is INCORRECT.
A. Dry Chemical
B. Wet Chemical
C. Dirty Agent
D. Carbon Dioxide
Dirty Agent
When conducting an acceptance test for a paint booth the first nozzle in the exhaust duct must be located just inside the duct entrance. The remaining nozzles must be spaced how far apart?
A. Within 5 feet of each other
B. Within 10 feet of each other
C. Within 12 feet of each other
D. Within 15 feet of each other
Within 12 feet of each other
Regarding fire extinguisher ratings, extinguishers undergo 3 tests to determine their Class A rating. Which of the following tests DOES NOT occur?
- Wood Panel
- Wood Trim
- Wood Crib
- Excelsior
Wood Trim
NFPA 72 also requires that pull stations be placed within __ of every exit so that facility occupants can activate an alarm while they are exiting the facility.
a. At the door
b. 5 feet
c. 10 feet
d. 15 feet
5
The secondary power supply must be able to make the fire detector and alarm system fully operational within _ seconds of main power supply failure.
A. 10 sec
B. 20 sec
C. 30 sec
D. 60 sec
30 sec
A secondary power supply must be provided for a fire detection and alarm system, so that the system will be operational even if the main power supply fails. The secondary system must be able to make the fire detection and alarm system fully operational within __ seconds of the main power supply’s failure.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 45
30
Manual pull stations can be single-action or __ -action?
A. married
B. double
C. multiple
D. single
double
A secondary power supply must be provided for a fire detection and alarm system. The secondary system must be able to make the fire detection & alarm system fully operational within __ seconds of the main power supply’s failure.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 60
30
Which of the following is true concerning an ionization smoke detector:
A) Ionization smoke detectors will not work for flaming fires
B) Ionization smoke detectors respond to flaming fires but slower than photoelectric detectors
C) Ionization smoke detectors are best suited for rooms that contain highly combustible materials
D) None of the above are true concerning ionization smoke detectors
Ionization smoke detectors are best suited for rooms that contain highly combustible materials
About _ percent of fire deaths are attributed to smoke inhalation and not to burns.
A. 65
B.75
C.85
D.95
65
_ smoke detectors respond the quickest to smoldering fires.
A. Ionization
B. Projected beam
C. Air sampling
D. Photoelectric
Photoelectric
Nonrestorable fixed-temperature detectors are not required to be tested until _ years after initial installation. At that time _% of the detectors must be removed and laboratory tested.
A. 10, 3
B. 20, 5
C. 15, 2
D. 5, 4
15, 2
Which item is NOT required for a detector test
A. Test date
B. Model number
C. Location
D. Detector type
Model number
Typically, rate of rise heat detectors are designed to send a signal when the rise in temperature exceeds _
A. 3 to 7 F
B. 12 to 15 F
C. 10 to 15 F
D 7 to 12 F
12 to 15 F
A smoke detector has stopped working. What type signal will the alarm panel display?
A. Alarm
B. Supervisory
C. Trouble
D. Skynet has become self aware and is taking over
Trouble
According to NFPA 72, which of the following is NOT true regarding manual pull stations?
A) Travel distance between pull stations must not exceed 200 feet.
B) Pull stations must be located within 5 feet of every exit.
C) Only single-action pull stations that require a single motion to activate are allowable.
D) Pull stations should be mounted between 3 1/2 and 4 1/2 feet above the floor.
Only single-action pull stations that require a single motion to activate are allowable.
Which is NOT one of the two types of manual pull stations?
a) lever-action
b) single-action
c) double-action
d) none of the above
none of the above
How many sources of power are required for fire alarm control panels?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
2
Hazardous materials that are manufactured, stored, processed, or used at a particular site are subject to regulations of the ___.
a. state building and fire codes
b. federal building and fire codes
c. department of transportation
d. local building and fire codes
local building and fire codes
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from _ to _.
A. 1,5
B. 1,4
C. 0,4
D. 0,5
0,4
True or False:
A pressure-relief device should be installed on every length of pipe between two shutoff valves for pipes carrying cryogenic liquids.
True
Loading and unloading stations for Classes IA through IC liquids must be located no closer than __ from storage tanks, property lines, or adjacent buildings.
A) 1/6 the diameter of the tank
B) 12 Feet
C) 25 Feet
D) 50 Feet
25 Feet
Storage areas must be graded so that spills have at least a __ curb, and some provision for removing rain or spilled liquids that accumulate must be in place.
A. 4 inch
B. 6 inch
C. 8 inch
D. 10 inch
6 inch
According to the NFPA 704 Marking System, the four colors utilized in the categorizing of materials are:
A) red, purple, khaki, and magenta
B) blue, cream, olive, and lavender
C) blue, red, yellow, and white
D) yellow, beige, silver and pewter
blue, red, yellow, and white
According to page 680 in the text, the Plan Review Process goes in the following order:
A) Apply, Submerge, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
B) Apply, Submit, Redo, Change, Accept, Authorize
C) Apply, Submit, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
D) Appease, Submit, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
Apply, Submit, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
A site plan would include all of the following except:
a. exterior building materials
b. north direction
c. areas to be landscaped
d. utility lines
exterior building materials
Inspectors and plans examiners from the fire department play an important role in the plans review and field verification process.
A. True
B. False
True
Acids turn litmus paper to what color?
red
T or F: Vehicles that are transporting over 1,001 pounds of flammable solids are required by DOT to have placards?
True
A common marking system to identify the general hazard present is the:
A. NFPA 704 diamond
B. NFPA 704 circle
C. NFPA 704 rectangle
D. NFPA 704 triangle
NFPA 704 diamond
Which pressure relief device, on a cryogenic container, ruptures should the pressure relief valve malfunction, or the pressure rise within the container is excessive?
A. Pressure-relief valve
B. Frangible disk
C. Frangible bulb
D. Safety vent in the insulation space
Frangible disk
Which type of storage magazine provides the highest level of safety and security?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
Type 1
Which answer below is NOT true of oxidizers?
a) They support combustion and increase the intensity of burning
b) Capable of causing a fire through friction, absorption of moisture, spontaneous chemical reaction, or retained heat
c) Initiate or promote combustion in other materials
d) When exposed to heat, can decompose, releasing oxygen that accelerates any fire that may be present
Capable of causing a fire through friction, absorption of moisture, spontaneous chemical reaction, or retained heat
Toxic or highly toxic materials may enter the body through which of the following ways?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Absorption (contact)
D. Injection
E. All of the above
All of the above
The UN system servers as the basis for DOT regulations. The UN system enables an inspector to quickly recognize most hazardous materials or goods. Which of the following is NOT one of standard system?
A. DOT label
B. NFPA 407 system
C. DOT marking
D. DOT placard
NFPA 407 system
Which form of ionizing radiation has high energy photons that can easily pass through the human body or be absorbed by tissue and requires lead or concrete to shield against the rays?
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. X-ray
Gamma
The hazard rating system regarding hazardous material is identified as NFPA:
a. 210
b. 1500
c. 704
d. 1004
704
Corrosives are those chemicals that cannot cause visible destructive or irreversible harm to skin tissue.
A.) T
B.) F
F as it does cause irreversible damage
In North America, UN numbers are usually found on the following container packages:
A) Rail tank cars
B) Cargo tank cars
C) Portable tank cars
D) All of the above
All of the above
Inspectors who are assigned to inspection and permitting operations involving explosives must receive __ from local, or federal authorities before participating in these operations.
a) specialized training in these procedures
b) a blue ribbon
c) a major award
d) a helmet with eye protection
specialized training in these procedures
Non-bulk packaging for storing flammable and combustible liquids come in several forms, including all of the following except:
A. Safety cans
B. Polystyrene containers
C. Metal containers
D. Polyethylene containers
Polystyrene containers
Ordinary combustibles are what fuel classification?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Class A
Hoses used for local application of clean agent fire extinguishing systems must be pressure tested:
A. Annually
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 6 years
D. Every 12 years
Annually
Pull stations are allowed to have protective covers to prevent false activations. The covers must be _ or _ in color, and have clear instructions.
A. Clear
B. Red
C. Both A and B
D. Orange
Both A and B
The heat-sensing fire detector color code of red designates the _ temperature classification.
A.) Very Extra High
B.) Ordinary
C.) Intermediate
D.) Extra High
Extra High
Which device is Not part of a fire alarm initiating devices in operation today:
A. Automatic Pull station
B. Heat Detector
C. Flame Detector
D. Smoke Detector
Automatic Pull station
With regards to asphalt kettles, an attendant must be within how many feet when the heat source is on?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
100
When inspecting tire storage facilities, weeds and vegetation must be cleared within _ ft. of any tire pile.
A. 25
B. 40
C. 50
D. 75
50
Any Portable heater must be listed by an accredited testing agency such as?
A.) UL Underwriters Laboratories Inc.
B.) Canada Testing corp.
C.) NFPA
D.) NONE
UL Underwriters Laboratories Inc.
Following welding or thermal cutting operations, how long is a fire watch required after the job has been completed?
A) No fire watch is required if there are no combustibles within a 35ft. radius of the job site.
B) 15 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
30 minutes
In recycling facilities, materials stored may not be stacked closer than _ feet from the ceiling in the building without automatic sprinkler systems or at least _ inches below sprinklers in buildings that have sprinkler systems.
a. 2 & 20
b. 3 & 15
c. 2 & 10
d. 2 & 18
2 & 18
In order for a dust explosion to occur, four conditions must be met at the same time. Which is not one of the conditions?
A) The dust must be in a confined space.
B) The dust particles must be smaller than .5 microns in size.
C) The dust must be within it’s explosive range.
D) An ignition source must be present.
E) Combustible dust must be suspended in the air.
The dust particles must be smaller than .5 microns in size.
NFPA __ is the Standard for Grandstands, Folding and Telescopic Seating, Tents, and Membrane Structures.
A. 101
B. 102
C. 2001
D. 1031
102
True or False– The elevation view is a three- dimensional view of the building as seen from the exterior.
False
The pressure test of the fire main that provides water to the on-ground hydrants and fire protection system riser is the:
A. Shell Permit
B. Underground Hydrostatic Test
C. Alarm Test
D. Fire-Smoke Damper Test
Underground Hydrostatic Test
When a building is to be completed in phases, and the designation N.I.C. appears on plans or partial plans, it means what
A. Noted in Contract, meaning the infrastructure of the unapproved plans are laid during the first phase of construction.
B. Not in Contract, however the infrastructure of the project is always laid during the first phase of construction.
C. Not in Contract, and has been approved, but is not part of the current project.
D. Not In Contract, and has not been approved and is not part of the current project.
Not In Contract, and has not been approved and is not part of the current project.
The process of listing the construction materials is referred to as __ the materials.
A. disclosing
B. verifying
C. calling up
D. membering
calling up
Which of the following is the correct order of the Plans Review Process?
A. Review, Apply, Submit, Change, Accept, Authorize
B. Authorize, Apply, Accept, Submit, Change, Review
C. Apply, Submit, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
D. Apply, Accept, Review, Change, Submit, Authorize
Apply, Submit, Review, Change, Accept, Authorize
Which of the following is considered a component of a fire alarm system:
a) signal initiation devices
b) power supply
c) signal notification devices
d) fire pumps
e) all of the above
all of the above
Fire detection and alarm systems are designed to the requirements found in NFPA __ , National Fire Alarm Code.
A. 72
B. 82
C. 13R
D. 1001
72
Which of the following main views of plans and specifications are found on working drawings?
A. Plan
B. Elevation
C. Sectional
D. Detailed
E. All the above
All the above
Mechanical, electrical, plumbing and sprinkler are all example of what type of plan?
A. System Plans
B. Detail Plans
C. Floor Plans
D. Sectional View
System Plans
Which of the plans is usually one of the first sheets of a set of construction drawings?
A Plan views
B Site plan or plot
C Floor Plan
D Your moms plan
Site plan or plot
Inspector
Person who is trained to perform fire prevention and life safety inspections of all types on new construction and existing occupancies; also called Code Enforcement Officer and Fire and Life Safety Inspector.
Statute
Federal or state legislative act that becomes law; prescribes conduct, defines crimes, and promotes public good and welfare.
Regulations
Rules or directives of administrative agencies that have authorization to issue them.
Enabling Legislation
Legislation that gives appropriate officials the authority to implement or enforce the law.
Ordinance
Local or municipal law that applies to persons and things of the local jurisdiction; a local agency act that has the force of a statute; different from law that is enacted by federal or stated legislatures.
department
When the authority for inspections and code enforcement is not assigned to the fire department, the fire department should develop a strong working relationship with the __ that performs inspections.
Mitigate
to make less harsh or intense; to alleviate.
Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ)
Term used in codes and standards to identify the legal entity, such as a building or fire official, who has the statutory authority to enforce a code and to approve or require equipment.
Inspection Categories
routine
issuance of a permit
response to a complaint
imminent hazard
new construction
change in occupancy
owner/occupant request
routine inspection
performed on a set basis, usually involving the occupancy classifications, such as places of assembly, education, and health care.
issuance of a permit
conducted when the owner/occupant is required to obtain a permit for a special event or use of the occupancy
response to a complaint
performed when a complaint has been filed against a business or occupancy, such as overcrowding or blocked exits.
imminent hazard
conducted when it becomes obvious that an occupancy or process poses a hazard to life and property, such as blocked egress or inaccessibility to the means of egress
new construction
conducted when anew structure is built, an addition is made to an existing structure, or an existing structure is altered in such a way that code compliance must be determined. the demolition of a structure is also included in this type of inspection.
change in occupancy
performed when a structure’s use or occupancy classification changes and code compliance must be reviewed.
owner request
this inspection may be required by another government agency or an insurance company.
Memorandums of understanding
In cases of joint responsibility, the jurisdiction must establish clear inspection guidelines or _ regarding procedures.
due process clause
constitutional provision that prohibits the government from unfairly or arbitrarily depriving a person of life, liberty, or property.
5th and 14th
two due process clauses are in the US constitution
compliance procedures
notification
follow up
sanction
prosecution
civil proceeding
may be the result of a noncriminal violation but usually involves one party filing suit against another party.
criminal proceeding
most often initiated as a result of action taken in the form of a “probable cause” arrest, service of an arrest warrant, or grand jury indictment. This action is the result of an investigation establishing that a crime has occurred and that sufficient probable cause is present to believe that the arrested or indicted party committed the crime.
indict
to present a formal, written accusation charging a defendant with a crime.
summary offense
the inspector may be involved in writing the citations, depending on local laws
misdemeanors
lesser crime
felonies
serious crime
preliminary hearings
if sufficient evidence is presented, the judge may “find in favor” of the prosecutor and “remand or bind the defendant over for trial”
impartial
Remain __ and do not give the impression that you have a personal opinion or prejudice regarding the trial.
fact witness
A _ is a witness who answers questions posed by an attorney regarding what he or she saw, heard , touched, smelled, or tasted.
expert witness
generally defined as a person with sufficient skill, knowledge, or experience in a given field so as to be capable of drawing inferences or reaching conclusions or opinions that an average person would not be competent to reach.
enabling legislation
one of the most important laws to the inspector; establishes the organization that performs fire inspections. Defines the scope of the department’s authority.
legal counsel
should provide information on the inspector’s authority and liability as defined by law
employee safety and minimum housing standards
Many federal agencies have developed regulations designed to ensure the safety of the public. These regulations cover a broad spectrum of activities, including:
hazards
The inspector who becomes aware of hazards or violations within a federal property or jurisdiction should know how to report them to the proper agency or authority to seek corrective action.
federal
Inspectors should know who is responsible for __ properties and work with them to ensure that fire protection is maintained at a high level, regardless of which code they follow.
preincident planning
Even if the local fire department doe snot have the authority to perform code compliance inspections in a federal facility, it still should perform planning visits. These visits will prepare the department to handle any emergency that may occur within the facility as well as help department members prepare to assist federal authorities.
adopting by reference
the local jurisdiction will follow the state/provincial laws exactly as written
enabling acts
adopting laws int eh form of __ gives the local jurisdiction the use of state laws as their basis, but then allows addition or deletions to regulations or ordinances based on local needs or preferences.
legal status
The inspector’s __ defines the amount of authority granted to the inspector, the responsibility to act, and the protection against legal action that the jurisdiction provides.
fire codes
authorize inspectors to interrupt business operations or to evacuate and close a building that presents imminently dangerous conditions.
liability
state of being legally obliged and responsible.
right of entry
rights set forth by the administrative powers that allow the inspector to inspect buildings to ensure compliance with applicable codes.
administrative warrant
is a demand to enter for the purpose of inspection. There is no requirement for the inspector to claim or list a probable cause in the same sense as in a criminal search warrant.
search warrant
written order, in the name of the people,. state, province, territory, or commonwealth, signed by a magistrate, commanding a peace officer to search for personal property or other evidence and return it to the magistrate.
civil rights violation
conducting inspections based upon the race, religion, or ethnic background of the owner or clientele.
indemnify
to agree that one party will compensate another party for losses or damages that are incurred if specific actions or events occur.
special duty
Type of obligation that an inspector assumes by providing expert advice or assistance to a person; this obligation may make the inspector liable if it creates a situation in which a person moves from a position of safety to a position of danger by relying upon the expertise of the inspector
malfeasance
commission of an unlawful act; committed by a public official
negligence
failure to exercise the same care that a reasonable, prudent, and careful person would under the same or similar circumstances.
policies and procedures
Code enforcement departments need written _ to operate efficiently and effectively.
standard
a developed set of principles, protocols, or procedures.
model codes
describes a set of requirements that are similar to a standard, and these requirements are generally called prescriptive codes. A consensus organization such as NFPA or the ICC develops model codes.
industry standards
while these __ do not have the force of law unless adopted by the jurisdiction’s governing body, they are recognized as authoritative documents.
consensus standard
refers to a document that a committee of experts have developed and agreed upon before publication.
NFPA
The __ develops and publishes the majority of the consensus standards concerning fire protection, electrical systems, and life-safety systems used in the US and Canada.
ASTM International
develops testing processes tat other testing organizations use in the development of safety products.
UL
Products that bear the _ label have been tested for their intended use and are certified as safe when properly used and maintained.
American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
A private, non-profit organization that coordinates the development and use of a voluntary consensus standards in the United States.