CDM TEST 2023 REAL EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE(VERIFIED ANSWERS)

On what products would you specify Grade A or AA when ordering?
Both eggs and butter are graded and specifying at least Grade A or AA would be the best quality for most foodservice operations.

Endpoint temperature
Endpoint temperature is the temperature a food reaches at the end of cooking
ex.: cooking ground beef to 155 degrees for 15 seconds

What does HIPAA protect?
HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal law to protect the privacy of healthcare clients. The intent is to safeguard client/patient privacy and their information including client names, diagnoses, and their medical records.

What is the primary objective of a care conference?
to develop, with the Interdisciplinary Team and the client, a plan of care that addresses the multifaceted needs of the client.

What foods are known to promote tooth decay?
foods that are high in simple sugars such as sugared cereals, dried fruits, juices and soda.

What does the abbreviation “Na” stand for?
Na is the abbreviation for sodium.

If there were 17,650 meals served this month and the total labor hours were 1,590, what are the meals per labor hour?
to calculate: divide the total meals served / total labor hours

17,650 / 1,590 = 11.1 meals per labor hour

What is a sneeze guard?
a shield used on a self-service food bars, salad bars, and display cases

What would be the cost per person for a catered event where the total costs are $885 and 65 people will be attending?
to calculate: divide the total costs / number of clients

$885 / 65 = $13.62 round up to $13.75 per person

What is the purpose of a performance review?
-ensures that the supervisor and employee communicate needs and the supervisor provides feedback
-identifies need for improvement and growth
-may serve as a formal basis for wage increases

How many total calories would be in a food product with 12 grams of carbs, 3 grams of fat, 2 grams of protein?

  • Carbs: 12 x 4 = 48
    -Fat 3 x9 = 27
    -Protein 2 x4 = 8
    Total = 83

what federal law protects the privacy of healthcare clients?
HIPAA – Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Identify the current government food guidance system used in the United States
-MyPlate
-Dietary Guidelines for Americans

Assistive Devices
devices that will assist clients in eating

what are the most common food allergies in the U.S.?

  1. Peanuts
  2. Tree Nuts
  3. Shellfish
  4. Fish
  5. Egg
  6. Milk
  7. Soy
  8. Wheat

What is the daily protein allowance?
0.8 grams/kg of body weight
ex. 156 – 70.90 kg x 0.8 = 56.73 or 57 grams of protein

what cooking procedures destroy vitamins?

  1. cooking for too long
  2. cooking at too high a temperature
  3. adding baking soda during cooking

what kind of eggs have been recommended for use by USDA and FDA?
Pasteurized eggs (heats eggs in the shell and destroys bacteria and salmonella contamination)

what two treatments must be present in a dairy product that doesn’t require refrigeration?
-UHT – ultra-high temperature pasteurization
-Aseptic (sterile)

what would be included in a product standard for cooked pasta?
pasta should hold its shape and not be too soft or mushy

what tool is used for tracking amounts of food served and leftovers?
Tally sheet

what is the purpose of a food requisition?
-used to sign food out of storage areas
-serves as a record for what is taken out of storage and is useful in cost control and inventory management

How would you convert 8 oz into mL or cubic centimeters?
1 oz = 30mL
8 x 30 = 240mL

what is a standardized recipe and why is it used?
-a recipe that contains detailed specifications and has been adapted and tested in your own operation.
-it helps all staff to maintain a consistent quality product regardless of who is cooking.

what are the approved methods of thawing large pieces of frozen meats?
a. under refrigeration at 41 degrees or less
b. completely submerged under running water where the water temperature is 70 degrees or less

how many 1/2 cup servings would you expect from a #10 can of applesauce?
a #10 can hold approximately 12-13 cups or 25 four oz. portions

what would an f-tag identify?
identifies the number of a CMS guideline for long-term care (nutritional status, sanitation, infection control, etc.)

given the following menu, what foods might need to be changed for a low-sodium diet?
-pepperoni pizza, green beans, applesauce milk
-pizza is high in sodium bc of cheese and pepperoni. replace with unprocessed meat such as roast beef or chicken.
-green beans if canned can be high in sodium. use frozen or fresh green beans

what safeguards should be in place in food service to prevent contamination of potable water?
-an approved back flow prevention device should be installed

when conducting a nutrition education session for a modified diet, what is the best method for teaching portion control?
use food, food models, or pictures of actual sizes of food to teach portion control

what is the CMS regulation for time between evening meal and breakfast?
cannot exceed 14 hours or 16 hours if nourishing snack is offered at bedtime.

what is the first priority to consider when wanting to replace a piece of equipment?
-determine the need for the equipment

the CDM has just been informed that a client on a mechanical soft diet has misplaced his dentures. what should the CDM do?
consult/alert speech, occupational therapy or nursing staff according to facility policy

when is the best time to involve employees in changes in the foodservice department?
as soon as the CDM knows about the changes

several clients who ate lunch and dinner at the hospital cafeteria are complaining of flu-like symptoms and are suggesting it could be food poisoning. what is the first step the CDM should take?
follow the facility crisis or food borne illness plan

the “right-to-know” law is the same as what regulation?
Hazard Communication Standard which ensures that all employers receive information to inform employees about chemicals they work with.

how many gallons of iced tea are needed to provide 135 eight-oz serving?

  1. 135 x8 to determine ounces.
  2. 128 oz in 1 gal
  3. divide the total ounces needed by 128 to determine the number of gallons

135 x8 = 1080
1080 / 128 = 8.44 or 9 gallons

the department of health has decided to implement HACCP+based inspections. how would you expect to prepare for this type of inspection?
-focus on flow of the facility
-expect to identify foods that are PHF/TCS on recipes
-be ready to show standard operating procedures
-be able to show a solid employee training program

what would you say to an employee who continually talks during inservice sessions?
-identify by name and asking them a question they will know the answer to or can relate to like “how does this discussion impact your job?” if not, meet with the employee after the meeting in private

what is the purpose of a test tray?
-meal is sent to the unit that is the farthest from the kitchen and the food will be checked for temperature and palatability.

the facility has decided to improve ergonomic factors. where would the CDM begin?
fitting the work environment to the employee
-observing employees and watch for repetitive motions or worktable heights that don’t fit the employee

how long should a client remain on a clear liquid diet?
no more than three days without supplementation

what section of the MDS applies to foodservice?
Section K

what is a roux?
-used to thicken sauces and gravies that mixes equal amounts of starch and fat (melted butter and flour)

what would be appropriate substitutes for bread on a gluten-free diet?
rice, potatoes, or legumes

what should be the primary consideration when developing an employee schedule?
fit the needs for production and service, based on volume of work and deadlines

how many FTEs would there be with total labor hours of 18,104 in a year?
1 year FTE is 2,080 hours

18,104 / 2,080 = 8.7 FTEs (full time employees)

if the par level for canned peaches is 5 cases and the weekly inventory shows 2 cases, how many cases should be ordered?
5-2 = 3 cases

the CDM observes that activities in the months of may and june always produce an increase in catering. how should the CDM handle the staffing?
bring in part-time staff or utilize cross-trained staff to support the additional hours.

when conducting any type of training, what is the first step?
determine the need – both to whom and what should be offered

what is the best way to calibrate a bi-metallic thermometer?
use the slush or ice method

what items should be included in a specification for canned peaches?
grade, drain weight, type of syrup, can size

when a change to fewer therapeutic diets is desired, what is the first step the CDM should take?
meet with the interdisciplinary team to discuss the idea of a culture change and the necessary changes to the diet manual.

what commission oversees all federal employment regulations, practices, and policies?
(EEOC) The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

to receive the highest quality frozen fruit, what should be included on the specification?
individually quick frozen (IQF)

what is included in a diet history?
describes intake, provides information about food choices, food allergies/intolerances and other factors

decentralized meal service
bulk quantities of prepared foods are sent hot or cold to other locations for finishing and service

how can you ensure employees’ compliance with FDA food safety regulations?
-offer training in short sessions (20)
-provide demonstrations
-observe after the training and offer feedback
-conduct periodic progress checks

How is a critical control point (CCP) used?
where loss of control during the flow of food could lead to unacceptable health risk
ex.: cooking to a recommended time and temperature

who typically makes up the interdisciplinary team in long-term care?
-administrator
-registered dietitian nutritionist
-certified dietary manager
-MDS nurse
-occupational therapist
-physician
-social worker
-speech pathologist

identify the three major categories of food hazards and give an example of each
-Biological: bacteria, viruses, fungi, toxins, prions
-chemical: pesticides, toxic metals, cleaning compounds
-physical: hair, glass, metal shavings

what is a production schedule?
a tool/document that outlines what to produce, how much to produce, and who is responsible

what are some of the CMS regulations regarding meal service?
-frequency of meals
-meal substitutions
-liquids at meal times

what safe work practices can the CDM implement to avoid repetitive motion injuries?
-rotate workers through jobs with repetitive tasks
-use mechanical aids for chopping, dicing, or mixing foods or purchase pre-cut vegetables and fruits
-select ergonomically designed tools

how should previously cooked foods be reheated?
165 degrees for 15 seconds within two hours

what should the specification for a stainless steel worktable include?
construction and design characteristics such as stainless steel gauge and the type of finish such as polished

when a client writes in a food on a selective menu, how is this handled?
if the facility has a policy on write-ins, that should be followed first.

what corrective action, according to HACCP, should be taken when a critical limit has not been met?
a critical limit is an endpoint temperature along with time for cooking. if something is cooked too low, the item should be returned to the oven to cook until the desired endpoint temperature and time are reached.

what information is needed to forecast for an upcoming menu?
the manager would use both historical data, such as census and tally figures from the last time the menu was offered, as well as the current census.

what would be an acceptable food substitute for broccoli?
-food substitutes should be of similar nutrient content and color
-brussel sprouts or pea pods, green beans, mixed vegetables, or asparagus

what are performance standards?
specific statements describing the outcome of the work to be performed.
-specify what the task is, how it is to be done, and how well it has to be done.

according to the 2013 FDA food code, what are the six diseases employees are required to report to their employer?
-Norovirus
-Shigella
-Hepatitis A
-Typhoid fever
-Salmonella
-Shiga toxin-produced E. coli

What is wrong with writing an equipment specification using the manufacturer’s spec sheet?
The first priority for equipment specification is that they best fit the needs of the department. The specification must focus on the needs of the department

What are the top five causes of foodborne illness?
-improper holding temperatures
-contaminated equipment
-poor personal hygiene
-inadequate cooking
-food from unsafe sources

Clients in the dining room are complaining about the food. What are three controls that will improve food quality?
-controlling the time food is cooked
-controlling the temperature the food is cooked
-testing the food before it is served

What part of the nutrition care process may be the responsibility of the CDM?
-nutrition screening (history, height, weight, etc)

What are the three types of nutrition support?
-enteral nutrition

  1. feeding by mouth
  2. feeding by tube

-parenteral nutrition

  1. feeding of essential nutrients into a vein

what should you do when the cook comes back from a food show with an expensive gift from a vendor?
-follow facility policy on ethics
-if there isn’t one, talk with the managers

a new employee has a medical alert bracelet. how should this be handled?
-work with the employee for a reasonable accommodation with the Americans with Disabilities Act, to come up with a safe alternative to the bracelet

the supervisor has asked the CDM to calculate the employee turnover for the department. why is this important?
-employee turnover is costly to facilities

how could the CDM begin to control energy costs?
-contact the local energy company
-begin with the maintenance department

how do you gather diet history information from a client who is unable to communicate?
-use pictures or food models
-ask family members
-observe them during meal times
review transfer information from the medical record

what would be an appropriate menu change for a person on a high protein diet?
-add dried milk powder to drinks, cream soups, eggs, etc
-spread peanut butter on crackers or snacks
-add ice cream to commerical products as a milk shake

there have been several shortages this week in the cash drawer for one of the cashiers. what is the first step toward resolving the problem?
-follow policies and procedures in place for addressing discrepancies
-talk with the cashier and make sure safeguards are in place

what staff training topics could help expand dining options in healthcare?
-selective menus
-restaurant-style service
-family-style dining
-methods for seasoning foods to enhance flavors
-suggestions for increasing fiber
-offering seasonal fruits and veggies

list the steps for preparing to conduct an interview

  1. prepare a set of relative questions
  2. schedule a private room free from interruptions
  3. set a beginning time and stick to it
  4. read over the application form

what date marking should be stamped on a PHF/TCS food if the food is opened on june 2?
-use or discard the food item within seven days so june 8

roast
to cook food, usually meat, in the oven without adding liquid

what criteria should be used by a taste panel to evaluate most products?
taste
color
odor
flavor
texture
appearance

two employees have the following:

  1. diagnosed with salmonella
  2. has a cut on the wrist
    what should the CDM do?
  3. should be excluded
  4. wound should be bandaged and covered with a clean, disposable glove. may not work with food, clean equipment, clean dishes, clean linens

what type of inventory is usually taken at the end of a reporting period such as a month?
physical inventory

when preparing for a nutrition education session, what is the first step?
reviewing the diet history

what are some signs of dehydration?
sudden weight loss
sunken eyes
cracked lips
hollow cheekbones

what is a smart goal?
Specific
Meaningful
Achievable
Reasonable
Timely

when should be equipment repair record be established?
as soon as a new piece of equipment is received

what specific training is needed for the production staff?

  1. the purpose of standardized recipes
  2. portion control utensils such as disher/portion scoop
  3. cooking terms and ingredient descriptions
  4. procedures for requisitioning items from the storeroom

what is the main purpose of a long-term care survey?
to review compliance with CMS regulations

what should conduct a safety audit of the dining services?
delegates responsibility to small teams or work groups

what is the most accurate method of determining monthly raw food costs?
-beginning inventory + purchases -ending inventory = monthly food costs

when is the best time for client education to occur in the hospital?
client education should begin when the client is admitted to the hospital and continue periodically until the client t is dismissed

A Certified Dietary Manager is dissatisfied with prices from current vendors. The Manager should first:
a. ask vendors to lower their prices.
b. ask the consultant to recommend other vendors.
c. complete a comparison study of vendors.
d. discontinue purchasing from the current vendors.
c. complete a comparison study of vendors.

The best way to prepare frozen peas is to: a. slowly cook the peas at 200°F (93.3°C) so they do not dry out.
b. cook them rapidly until they reach an internal temperature of 140°F (60.0°C).
c. cook them to 120°F (48.9°C) and hold them in the steam table to come up to temperature.
d. cook them in batches throughout the service time.
d. cook them in batches throughout the service time.

Beans and legumes are essential protein substitutes for clients who are:
Choose one answer.
a. lactose intolerant.
b. vegan.
c. ovo-lacto-vegetarian.
d. lacto vegetarian.
b. vegan.

When preparing goals for the foodservice department, a Certified Dietary Manager must show that the goals are:
Choose one answer.
a. narrow.
b. broad.
c. listed on the bulletin board.
d. transferrable to other departments.
b. broad.

When purchasing food, a Certified Dietary Manager must develop specifications to ensure that:
Choose one answer.
a. government commodities are used when available.
b. eggs are delivered in a timely manner.
c. milk arrives at a temperature below 41°F (5°C).
d. canned fruits are packed in water or juice.
c. milk arrives at a temperature below 41°F (5°C).

When a client has trouble swallowing pureed foods, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. request a swallowing evaluation.
b. thin foods to straw consistency.
c. inform the physician at the next care plan meeting.
d. thicken foods to the next consistency level.
a. request a swallowing evaluation.

A calorie count must include:
Choose one answer.
a. all condiments and beverages served.
b. portion sizes of items before consumption.
c. initials of the employee documenting the intake.
d. how long it took for t
a. all condiments and beverages served.

When selecting diabetes educational information for a client in a long-term care facility, a Certified Dietary Manager should consider using materials:
Choose one answer.
a. written in the English language.
b. with technical language to explain the details of the disease.
c. in a pocketbook format with small print so it can be kept with the client.
d. with simple and relevant illustrations.
d. with simple and relevant illustrations.

Which of the following items should NOT be served to a client who is lactose intolerant?
Choose one answer.
a. Dinner roll
b. Buttered carrots
c. Chocolate pudding
d. Glazed ham
c. Chocolate pudding

To effectively prevent foodborne illnesses, the Certified Dietary Manager should most appropriately:
Choose one answer.
a. remove potentially dangerous food items from the menu.
b. provide employees with weekly in-service training.
c. monitor time and temperature controls.
d. cook all hot foods to an internal temperature of 180°F (82.2°C).
c. monitor time and temperature controls.

A Certified Dietary Manager is interviewing a client who recently had a stroke. The client reports painful swallowing, food sticking in her throat, and coughing during meals. The Manager should recognize that these symptoms are indicative of:
Choose one answer.
a. hiatal hernia.
b. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
c. gastritis.
d. dysphagia.
d. dysphagia.

Two important steps in standardizing a new recipe are:
Choose one answer.
a. taking a picture and marketing the new menu item.
b. testing and garnishing.
c. testing and modifying.
d. taking a picture and writing directions.
c. testing and modifying.

When preparing a standardized recipe, the Certified Dietary Manager needs to increase the yield from 12 servings to 80 servings. What is the yield or conversion factor?
Choose one answer.
a. .15
b. 6.67
c. 15
d. 12.8
b. 6.67

A Certified Dietary Manager can best monitor cash register receipts by:
Choose one answer.
a. thoroughly training cashiers.
b. randomly using different registers.
c. completing a daily report form.
d. rotating cashiers among registers.
c. completing a daily report form.

When planning an equipment maintenance schedule, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. define a cleaning schedule and assign tasks to employees.
b. have employees report any problems or issues to management.
c. keep equipment maintenance manuals locked away when not in use.
d. hire a cleaning crew and inspect their work.
a. define a cleaning schedule and assign tasks to employees.

Which of the following statements about the par level of inventory management is true?
Choose one answer.
a. New stock items are rarely purchased.
b. A physical inventory is conducted regularly.
c. It uses a running balance of products on hand.
d. It does not require lead time.
b. A physical inventory is conducted regularly.

A good way to increase efficiency among staff for job coverage is to:
Choose one answer.
a. promote a job routine.
b. allow flextime.
c. hire part-time staff.
d. implement cross-training.
d. implement cross-training.

To prevent E. coli, a Certified Dietary Manager should ensure that ground beef is cooked to a mimimum temperature of:
Choose one answer.
a. 155°F (68.3°C) for 15 seconds.
b. 175°F (79.4°C) for 15 seconds.
c. 140°F (60.0°C) for 15 seconds.
d. 180°F (82.2°C) for 15 seconds.
a. 155°F (68.3°C) for 15 seconds

How should a Certified Dietary Manager resolve a conflict between two cooks?
Choose one answer.
a. Ask human resources to act as a mediator.
b. Permanently assign them to different shifts.
c. Help them work through their differences.
d. Ask them to work things out on their own
c. Help them work through their differences.

What part of the nutrition care process should be completed by the Certified Dietary Manager?
Choose one answer.
a. Nutrition diagnosis
b. Nutrition screening
c. Nutrition intervention
d. Nutrition evaluation
b. Nutrition screening

Which of the following is considered subjective nutrition-related information?
Choose one answer.
a. Usual body weight
b. Prescribed weight goal
c. Ideal body weight
d. Percent weight change
a. Usual body weight

Chemicals should be stored:
Choose one answer.
a. below food on shelves.
b. in a separate room away from food.
c. on shelves at least 6 inches above the floor.
d. on the floor.
b. in a separate room away from food.

Which of the following controls would best prevent foodborne illiness related to cross-contamination?
Choose one answer.
a. Storing cold hazardous foods at or below 45°F (7.2°C) at all times
b. Requiring annual physical examinations for all foodservice personnel
c. Cleaning the floors and sanitizing all work surfaces after each meal
d. Requiring foodservice personnel to wear disposable gloves when handling ready-to-eat foods
d. Requiring foodservice personnel to wear disposable gloves when handling ready-to-eat foods

The Certified Dietary Manager communicates goals for nutrition care to the interdisciplinary team. An appropriate goal for a client who is having trouble swallowing, and exhibiting a great deal of coughing at each meal, is to:
Choose one answer.
a. recommend a tube feeding to eliminate the need for swallowing, which results in coughing.
b. request that the client eats in his room to avoid making the mealtime unpleasant for others at the same table.
c. provide meals in a liquefied form at six meals during the day rather than three meals per day.
d. request an evaluation by the occupational therapist or speech therapist to assess the client’s swallowing function.
d. request an evaluation by the occupational therapist or speech therapist to assess the client’s swallowing function.

Which of the following breads would be the most healthy choice in terms of saturated fat and cholesterol levels?
Choose one answer.
a. Biscuit with jam
b. Whole wheat toast with margarine
c. Blueberry muffin
d. Croissan
b. Whole wheat toast with margarine

The selection of capital equipment should be based primarily on:
Choose one answer.
a. availability.
b. warranty.
c. quality.
d. design.
c. quality.

There is significant food waste from overproduction. The first step the Certified Dietary Manager should take to analyze the problem is to:
Choose one answer.
a. check all of the purchase orders sent to the vendors.
b. change all of the standardized recipes in the kitchen.
c. monitor the portions being served.
d. review the facility communication procedures.
c. monitor the portions being served.

Which of the following cleaners can be used safely to remove hard water buildup from dishwashers?
Choose one answer.
a. Delimer
b. Chlorine
c. Ammonia
d. Soap
a. Delimer

The Certified Dietary Manager needs information for an in-service training session on carbohydrate counting diets. Which of the following organizations would best provide this information?
Choose one answer.
a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
b. American Diabetes Association
c. Juvenile Diabetes Federation
d. Food and Drug Administration

It may be necessary for a Certified Dietary Manager to terminate a foodservice employee if the employee:
Choose one answer.
a. lacks the ability to perform the job, despite adequate training.
b. is a union activist.
c. has a poor attitude.
d. has difficulty operating a piece of kitchen equipment.
a. lacks the ability to perform the job, despite adequate training.

Another name for a solvent cleaner is a:
Choose one answer.
a. detergent.
b. delimer.
c. surfactant.
d. degreaser.
d. degreaser.

During an inspection by a surveyor, the Certified Dietary Manager should offer:
Choose one answer.
a. a warm welcome, coffee, and cookies when the surveyor arrives.
b. reasonable explanations as to why some quality indicators may not be met for this particular day only.
c. current photos and names of all clients so that the surveyor can easily identify those chosen to be interviewed.
d. access to files documenting training events and in-service training sessions.
d. access to files documenting training events and in-service training sessions.

The best time to provide performance standards to trainees is at:
Choose one answer.
a. the end of training.
b. the interview.
c. the beginning of training.
d. evaluation time.
c. the beginning of training.

When representing the department at external meetings, the Certified Dietary Manager’s responsibility is to:
Choose one answer.
a. offer details regarding the external meetings until immediately before the activity is scheduled
b. ensure activities coordinate with the facility’s missions and goals.
c. continue to provide assistance to department team members through e-mails and texting during the meeting
d. agree to activities that will maximize profit for the department.
b. ensure activities coordinate with the facility’s missions and goals.

The Certified Dietary Manager has developed a policy to use disposable products that are environmentally friendly. The facility staff are complaining and refusing to use the products. The Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. send an e-mail to all of the supervisors, communicating with the staff that disposable products will not be used.
b. stand near the cafeteria serving line to personally communicate to each staff member the benefits of this new product.
c. set up a meeting with the facility staff and explain the benefits of the new products.
d. collect all of the disposable products left and lock them in the storeroom.
c. set up a meeting with the facility staff and explain the benefits of the new products.

To write a job description for the foodservice department, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. write the description and job specification with the help of the Registered Dietitian.
b. assign the task of writing the job description to the employees who perform the job.
c. conduct a job analysis with the help of the head cook and then write the description.
d. conduct a job analysis with the help of each employee and then write the job description.
d. conduct a job analysis with the help of each employee and then write the job description.

A Certified Dietary Manager may be responsible for completing which of the following sections of the minimum data set (MDS)?
Choose one answer.
a. Section N
b. Section K
c. Section L
d. Section M
b. Section K

A plate-waste study will determine if the food:
Choose one answer.
a. was accepted by the client.
b. was served at the right temperature.
c. appears to be fresh.
d. served matches the menu selections
a. was accepted by the client.

The safest and most sanitary way to taste food is to:
Choose one answer.
a. use a spoon to dip from the serving ladle and taste.
b. have another employee use a clean spoon to give the Certified Dietary Manager a sample taste.
c. use a clean finger to taste from the serving ladle.
d. ladle a small amount into a dish and taste it with a clean spoon.
d. ladle a small amount into a dish and taste it with a clean spoon.

What would be the best way to implement a major change in service for the foodservice department?
Choose one answer.
a. Post a memo on the department’s message board.
b. Send employees notifications via e-mail.
c. Create a plan of action with employee teams.
d. Meet with employees individually to explain the impact of the change
c. Create a plan of action with employee teams.

Which of the following dietary guidelines would be most useful for the elderly?
Choose one answer.
a. Cook vegetables al dente.
b. Limit servings of coffee and tea.
c. Emphasize simple carbohydrates with soft foods.
d. Serve smaller portions.
d. Serve smaller portions.

Nutrition education for coronary heart disease should include information on:
Choose one answer.
a. low blood glucose.
b. high fiber foods
c. low BUN.
d. simple carbohydrate foods
b. high fiber foods

The best way for a Certified Dietary Manager to safeguard a client’s medical information according to HIPAA regulations is to:
Choose one answer.
a. discuss a client’s medical information only in a low traffic area at the back of the cafeteria.
b. keep office computers closed but not locked when away from your desk to allow ease of resuming work.
c. keep all client information and client files from any physical and technical hazards or breaches.
d. use a generic employee password for electronic medical records that is safely guarded from non-employees
c. keep all client information and client files from any physical and technical hazards or breaches.

A standardized recipe is designed to produce a product that is:
Choose one answer.
a. inexpensive.
b. satisfactory.
c. consistent.
d. complete.
c. consistent.

The Certified Dietary Manager notices that a 5-gallon container of chili has been sitting on a counter for nearly three hours. The first step should be to:
Choose one answer.
a. Place the chili in an ice bath.
b. place the chili in the cooler.
c. discard the chili.
d. reheat the chili to 165°F (73.9°C).
d. reheat the chili to 165°F (73.9°C).

The interdisciplinary team is meeting to review clients. Which client below must have a CAA and full care plan?
Choose one answer.
a. A client who is now using a plate guard.
b. A client with a new Stage I pressure ulcer.
c. A client who has improved mental condition.
d. A client with an unplanned weight loss of 10% in the past six months.
d. A client with an unplanned weight loss of 10% in the past six months.

The best way to encourage communication with the staff is by:
Choose one answer.
a. asking the head cook to share the messages with other staff.
b. posting messages on the bulletin board.
c. establishing an open door policy.
d. using electronic mail.
c. establishing an open door policy.

A dented, slighty puffed can of green beans should be:
Choose one answer.
a. tasted for spoilage.
b. heated and served.
c. reported to the supervisor.
d. returned to the vendor.
d. returned to the vendor.

Which of the following actions should the Certified Dietary Manager perform first in a fire?
Choose one answer.
a. Evacuate the kitchen.
b. Use an extinguisher and attempt to put out the fire.
c. Call the administrator.
d. Call the fire department.
d. Call the fire department.

A Certified Dietary Manager learns that the nursing staff is not passing needed nourishments. What should be done first?
Choose one answer.
a. Investigate where the service process is breaking down.
b. Ask for a diet change to higher calorie meals without nourishments.
c. Schedule a care planning session for the client.
d. Have the foodservice staff serve the nourishments.
a. Investigate where the service process is breaking down.

Regulations developed by the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) are developed to:
Choose one answer.
a. address the quality of care for clients.
b. evaluate the client’s tray card for accuracy.
c. carry out meal service.
d. assure activities of daily living are met.
a. address the quality of care for clients.

Performance standards are established to:
Choose one answer.
a. ensure that the department has no overtime.
b. ensure that work is done according to expected outcomes.
c. set standards top employees can achieve.
d. determine criteria by which to compare employees.
b. ensure that work is done according to expected outcomes.

The correct end-point cooking temperature of hot soups is:
Choose one answer.
a. 160°F (71.1°C).
b. 150°F (65.5°C).
c. 165°F (76.6°C).
d. 135°F (57.2°C).
c. 165°F (76.6°C).

A malnutrition problem may be suggested if what percentage of food is left uneaten at meals?
Choose one answer.
a. 15%
b. 5%
c. 25%
d. 10%
c. 25%

Which of the following methods would be most effective for training department staff in a new procedure?
Choose one answer.
a. Demonstrate the procedure and observe individual staff members perform the procedure.
b. Schedule each employee to accompany the supervisor to learn what should be done.
c. Schedule a one-day course to discuss all relevant training issues.
d. Post instructions on the procedure and give each employee a written copy.
a. Demonstrate the procedure and observe individual staff members perform the procedure.

The first step in improving the nutrition status of a client who has a skin breakdown is to:
Choose one answer.
a. order between-meal nourishments.
b. monitor the client’s intake for one week.
c. provide a high-protein diet.
d. provide a high-potassium diet.
c. provide a high-protein diet.

Which of the following statements by the Certified Dietary Manager would best justify the purchase of a new piece of equipment to an administrator?
Choose one answer.
a. “The old equipment will probably not last much longer and depreciation will justify replacement in 15 years.”
b. “The new equipment is more energy efficient and may reduce our energy expenditures.”
c. “The equipment was displayed at a local food show and is on sale for the next 30 days.”
d. “Repair costs for the present equipment will be more than half the cost of replacement.”
d. “Repair costs for the present equipment will be more than half the cost of replacement.”

In a dry-food storeroom, which of the following situations is NOT acceptable?
Choose one answer.
a. Room temperature ranging between 50° and 70°F (10.0° and 21.1°C)
b. An area dedicated for chemicals
c. Adequate ventilation and air circulation
d. Slatted or louvered shelves
b. An area dedicated for chemicals

What financial document would you use to view the department’s monthly performance with what was budgeted?
Choose one answer.
a. Operating statement
b. Budget
c. Profit and loss statement
d. Balance sheet
a. Operating statement

What is the most important reason for following posted menus?
Choose one answer.
a. The client may want to invite guests.
b. Staff will know their production assignments.
c. Food costs can be kept in line.
d. Posted menus must match what is served.
d. Posted menus must match what is served.

Which of the following characteristics is altered for a mechanical soft diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Flavor
b. Texture
c. Color
d. Aroma
b. Texture

Which of the following cooking methods is best for retaining the nutritional value of vegetables?
Choose one answer.
a. Grilling
b. Boiling
c. Simmering
d. Steaming
d. Steaming

A Certified Dietary Manager is following the hazard communication standard when she provides which of the following items for employees?
Choose one answer.
a. Latex-free gloves
b. Safety glasses
c. OSHA forms
d. Material safety data sheets
d. Material safety data sheets

Which of the following methods is best for selecting clients to participate in a satisfaction survey?
Choose one answer.
a. Use a printed survey.
b. Survey only those clients who are cognitively aware.
c. Select a cross-section of clients.
d. Survey the clients who are leaving the long-term care facility.
c. Select a cross-section of clients.

When should orientation for new employees begin?
Choose one answer.
a. During the interview
b. Three days after employement
c. One month after employment
d. First day of employment
d. First day of employment

While interviewing clients, the Certified Dietary Manager learns that many food portions are too large. The Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. reduce serving sizes by one half, except those for clients with diabetes.
b. add a checklist to the menus indicating small, medium, and large for each client to mark portion sizes.
c. instruct the cooks to reduce serving sizes, unless otherwise specified.
d. investigate the portion sizes currently being used.
d. investigate the portion sizes currently being used.

Which of the following menu items is appropriate to serve a client with a wheat allergy?
Choose one answer.
a. Roast turkey with stuffing and gravy
b. Macaroni and cheese casserole
c. Chicken noodle soup
d. Grilled chicken salad on a corn tortilla
d. Grilled chicken salad on a corn tortilla

What is the best method to draw in a disruptive staff member during a meeting?
Choose one answer.
a. Encourage the employee to listen and not participate.
b. Ask the disruptive employee to leave the meeting.
c. Allow the employee to vent his/her frustrations.
d. Address the employee with respect and ask them to meet with you after the meeting.
d. Address the employee with respect and ask them to meet with you after the meeting.

A client is unhappy with the low-sodium diet prescribed by the physician. The most appropriate response by the Certified Dietary Manager is to:
Choose one answer.
a. emphasize foods the client can eat.
b. empathize with the client.
c. allow the family to bring in food for the client.
d. offer salt during dinner meals only.
a. emphasize foods the client can eat.

When managing a client on a pureed diet, the Certified Dietary Manager should be most concerned that the diet will:
Choose one answer.
a. meet the client’s nutritional needs.
b. meet the client’s fluid intake.
c. ensure adequate fiber consumption.
d. provide adequate variety.
a. meet the client’s nutritional needs.

A standard pan of lasagna yields 24 servings that weigh 6 oz each. The Certified Dietary Manager needs to serve 138 clients. How many pans should be produced?
Choose one answer.
a. 6
b. 4
c. 5
d. 7
a. 6

Which of the following items should be available for use in the event of a disaster?
Choose one answer.
a. Extra cooking utensils
b. A double supply of plates and silverware
c. Canned foods and a manual can opener
d. Frozen TV dinners
c. Canned foods and a manual can opener

The primary organism that causes spoilage in dried foods such as cereals and rice is a:
Choose one answer.
a. yeast.
b. virus.
c. toxin.
d. bacteria.
d. bacteria.

Which of the following employee behaviors would most likely result in immediate termination?
Choose one answer.
a. Unexplainable absenteeism
b. Reporting to work intoxicated
c. Possession of weapons
d. Theft
d. Theft

Accidents and injuries must be reported to which federal agency?
Choose one answer.
a. OSHA
b. FTC
c. USDA
d. FDA
a. OSHA

If 4-oz. blueberry muffins cost $18.96 for 24 muffins, what is the price per muffin?
Choose one answer.
a. $0.46
b. $4.74
c. $0.79
d. $1.26
c. $0.79

A Certified Dietary Manager who learns that a client has been physically abused should:
Choose one answer.
a. report the incident immediately to the local police.
b. follow the facility policy and procedures.
c. investigate the incident.
d. ask the charge nurse to call the ombudsman.
b. follow the facility policy and procedures.

What is the cost for a 3-oz edible portion of cooked beef roast at $3.36/lb?
Choose one answer.
a. $1.12.
b. $0.21.
c. $0.63.
d. $0.99.
c. $0.63.

To determine the correct answer, there are two steps:

  1. Divide the cost per pound by 16 to determine the price per ounce: $3.36 ÷ 16 = $.21 per ounce.
  2. Since the serving size is three ounces, multiply $.21 x 3 = $.63.

When developing a preventive maintenance program, the Certified Dietary Manager should first identify:
Choose one answer.
a. maintenance department concerns.
b. manufacturer’s maintenance requirements.
c. ideas for in-service training sessions.
d. all equipment in the foodservice area requiring maintenance.
d. all equipment in the foodservice area requiring maintenance.

Good storage practices dictate that food should be stored:
Choose one answer.
a. 20 inches from the ceiling.
b. 6 inches above the floor.
c. 16 inches from the ceiling.
d. 4 inches above the floor.
b. 6 inches above the floor.

Which of the following foods is an appropriate substitute for 1 cup of buttermilk?
Choose one answer.
a. 1/4 cup of dry milk powder plus 1 cup of water
b. 1 cup of whole milk
c. 1 cup of plain yogurt
d. 1/2 cup of sour cream
c. 1 cup of plain yogurt

Food grades ensure that food is:
Choose one answer.
a. uniform in quality.
b. uniform in size.
c. free from pathogens.
d. the proper temperature.
a. uniform in quality.

Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask clients when considering a culture change to restaurant style dining?
Choose one answer.
a. “Attendance at breakfast will be expected from 7:00 am to 8:00 am; what time will you be there?”
b. “What time of day do you like to eat your meals?”
c. “You are interested in changing to restaurant style dining, aren’t you?”
d. “What is your favorite snack food?”
b. “What time of day do you like to eat your meals?”

The foodservice department’s monthly statement shows the following information. What percentage of meal cost is due to labor?
Food Cost $42,975
Labor Cost $28,690
Choose one answer.
a. 31%
b. 12%
c. 60%
d. 40%
d. 40%

An architect has been hired to design a new kitchen. The administrator is selecting new equipment from catalogs and is starting to order items. The Certified Dietary Manager should immediately:
Choose one answer.
a. schedule an appointment with the administrator.
b. contact a vendor that has an equipment consultant.
c. develop a new equipment plan for the administrator.
d. schedule an appointment with the architect.
a. schedule an appointment with the administrator.

An important control measure in the prevention of staphylococcal infection is:
Choose one answer.
a. exclusion from food handling if an employee has a respiratory infection.
b. continually changing disposable gloves after each task.
c. isolating raw food from cooked food.
d. dividing large batches of food into smaller batches for rapid refrigeration.
a. exclusion from food handling if an employee has a respiratory infection.

It is most important that separate cuttings boards be used for:
Choose one answer.
a. raw turkey and raw chicken.
b. raw pork and raw beef.
c. raw chicken and lettuce.
d. tomatoes and pepperoni.
c. raw chicken and lettuce.

The temperature of meatloaf that has been baking for 45 minutes registers 140°F (60.0°C). The cook should:
Choose one answer.
a. cook the meatloaf for an additional 30 minutes.
b. cook the meatloaf until the temperature reaches 150°F (65.6°C) for 15 seconds.
c. hold the meatloaf at that temperature.
d. cook the meatloaf until the temperature reaches 165°F (73.9°C) for 15 seconds.
d. cook the meatloaf until the temperature reaches 165°F (73.9°C) for 15 seconds.

Which of the following is a major category of a foodservice department budget?
Choose one answer.
a. Overhead
b. Supplements
c. Labor
d. Chemicals
c. Labor

When is the Certified Dietary Manager required to pay overtime?
Choose one answer.
a. When employees work a regular day off.
b. When employees work holidays.
c. When employees work night and weekend shifts.
d. When employees have worked in excess of 40 hour
d. When employees have worked in excess of 40 hour

The Certified Dietary Manager should insist that food be prepared to retain color, aroma, texture, and:
Choose one answer.
a. shape.
b. flavor.
c. moisture.
d. vitamin C.
b. flavor.

Which of the following items are among the most common food allergens?
Choose one answer.
a. Fish and shellfish
b. Yogurt and cheese
c. Fruit juice and alcohol
d. Strawberries and melons
a. Fish and shellfish

A Certified Dietary Manager can best ensure compliance with safe food preparation practices by:
Choose one answer.
a. implementing disciplinary action for noncompliance.
b. excluding all infected employees from food handling tasks.
c. combining supervision with continuous training.
d. asking employees to monitor food temperatures.
c. combining supervision with continuous training.

What is the main purpose of using a screening process to select appliants for interviewing?
Choose one answer.
a. Obtain additional information
b. Check references
c. Follow uniform guidelines for employee selection
d. Predict how well a candidate will perform
c. Follow uniform guidelines for employee selection

Which of the following is necessary for addressing the multiple needs of a client?
Choose one answer.
a. Meet with the interdisciplinary team.
b. Perform a physical assessment.
c. Identify diagnostic tests.
d. Observe the client during mealtimes.
a. Meet with the interdisciplinary team.

What food should be selected to lower saturated fat and cholesterol in cream soups?
Choose one answer.
a. 2% milk
b. 1% milk
c. Evaporated milk
d. Whole milk
b. 1% milk

A client who is admitted to a long-term care facility practices Orthodox Judaism. On the dinner menu, pork chops, rice pilaf, broccoli, and apple crisp will be served. Which of the following foods need to be substituted to meet the client’s dietary requirements?
Choose one answer.
a. Apple crisp
b. Pork chop
c. Broccoli
d. Rice pilaf
b. Pork chop

How many pounds represent the ideal weight of a medium-framed female client who is 5’3″ tall?
Choose one answer.
a. 115
b. 103
c. 106
d. 124
a. 115

Staphylococcus aureus is most commonly introduced into food from:
Choose one answer.
a. unclean cutting boards.
b. raw or undercooked pork.
c. soil on raw fruits and vegetables.
d. the skin of apparently healthy persons.
d. the skin of apparently healthy persons.

Your facility is focusing on risk management. What practice would best meet this objective in the foodservice department?
Choose one answer.
a. Contact Worker’s Compensation representative
b. Implement a safety inspection self-audit
c. Track work-related injuries
d. Join facility safety team
b. Implement a safety inspection self-audit

When writing a job description, the Certified Dietary Manager should include:
Choose one answer.
a. information concerning absentee policies.
b. a detailed description of supervisory responsibilities.
c. a brief summary of basic job responsibilities.
d. information on salary and benefits connected with the job.
c. a brief summary of basic job responsibilities.

Which of the following areas is permissible for a Certified Dietary Manager to explore with a candidate during an interview?
Choose one answer.
a. Health history
b. Parent’s nationality
c. Arrest record
d. Work experience
d. Work experience

The menu item, date, quantity, and instructions for food preparation are types of information contained in a:
Choose one answer.
a. diet card.
b. meal census form.
c. food production schedule.
d. nutrition assessment.
c. food production schedule.

One serving of fat equals 1 tsp of:
Choose one answer.
a. gravy or cream sauce.
b. margarine, butter, or oil.
c. sour cream or heavy cream.
d. salad dressing or cream cheese.
b. margarine, butter, or oil.

A dietary aide assigned to the serving line wears no hair net during meal service. The Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. issue a written warning to the aide for forgetting the hair net.
b. stop the line and send the aide away from the food areas to put on a hair net and wash hands.
c. counsel the aide on proper hair covering after the line is finished,
d. hand the aide a hair net to put on.
b. stop the line and send the aide away from the food areas to put on a hair net and wash hands.

After receiving several complaints of food tasting spoiled, the Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. set up an informal taste testing of the questionable food.
b. remove the questionable food from service immediately.
c. review the mental status of those making the complaints.
d. interview staff involved in the preparation of the questionable food.
b. remove the questionable food from service immediately.

If the hand sink in the kitchen is blocked with storage boxes, a foodservice employee should first:
Choose one answer.
a. wash hands in any available prep sink.
b. use a wet towel to wipe hands.
c. move the boxes.
d. use the sink in the cafeteria restroom.
c. move the boxes.

PHF/TCS foods are considered high risk primarily because they:
Choose one answer.
a. cannot be monitored during food preparation activities.
b. commonly have a low value of water activity.
c. contain microorganisms that survive the cooking process.
d. provide conditions favorable for bacterial growth.
d. provide conditions favorable for bacterial growth.

A breakfast menu reads as follows:

  • Scrambled Egg Beaters®
  • Eggs
  • Waffles
  • Pancakes
  • Bacon
  • Sausage
    This is an example of which type of menu?
    Choose one answer.
    a. Centralized
    b. Selective
    c. Nonselective
    d. Buffet
    b. Selective

The best source of information in forming a nutrition assessment of a new client who is unable to speak would be:
Choose one answer.
a. the medical record.
b. the physician.
c. family members.
d. social services staff.
c. family members.

If a client refuses a tube feeding or additional nourishments, the Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. honor the client’s requests.
b. serve only enteral feedings.
c. ask to meet with family members to explain the diet order.
d. refer the client to the Registered Dietitian and/or the interdisciplinary team.
d. refer the client to the Registered Dietitian and/or the interdisciplinary team.

A client newly arrived at a long-term care facility is predominately Asian. To meet the client’s needs, the Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. discuss the needs during the care planning conference for the client.
b. meet with the client to determine his food preferences.
c. ensure that Asian foods are offered at the facility on a daily basis.
d. inform the foodservice staff of the new client’s arrival.
b. meet with the client to determine his food preferences.

During an inspection or survey, which of the following actions should a Certified Dietary Manager take if any comments or citations are unclear?
Choose one answer.
a. Ask the surveyor for more information.
b. Perform an independent investigation later.q
c. Explain why the department is out of compliance.
d. Ask the administrator to privately inquire about the comments with the surveyor.
a. Ask the surveyor for more information.

When comparing foods made from scratch with convenience food products, the Certified Dietary Manager’s main concern should be with:
Choose one answer.
a. appearance.
b. texture.
c. price.
d. quality.
d. quality.

When attending a client care conference, the Certified Dietary Manager should comment on and document findings related to:
Choose one answer.
a. medications prescribed to offer relief from pain with the goal to increase intake at meals.
b. a client’s refusal to eat in the dining room and obvious mood alteration resembling depression and anxiety.
c. a client’s amount of walking during a therapy session that may affect meal selections.
d. appetite and percentage of food and fluid intake.
d. appetite and percentage of food and fluid intake.

If a violation is determined during a regulatory inspection, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. identify the source of the problem and implement corrective action immediately.
b. thoroughly question the surveyor about the accuracy of the findings.
c. implement corrective action before the next regulatory inspection.
d. correct the violation as time allows.
a. identify the source of the problem and implement corrective action immediately.

Weight loss, sunken eyes, reduced urinary output, and hollow cheekbones are symptoms of:
Choose one answer.
a. heart disease.
b. diabetes.
c. elevated blood pressure.
d. dehydration.
d. dehydration.

What does the abbreviation NPO mean?
Choose one answer.
a. The client should receive only clear liquids.
b. The client should receive no food or water.
c. No persons allowed.
d. The information was not posted originally.
a. The client should receive only clear liquids.

Hot foods held for service must be held at what minimum temperature?
Choose one answer.
a. 41°F (5°C)
b. 120°F (48.9°C)
c. 100°F (37.8°C)
d. 135°F (57.2°C)
d. 135°F (57.2°C)

What is the first step in preparing for a departmental meeting?
Choose one answer.
a. Meet with key personnel to gather information for the meeting.
b. Post the meeting notice.
c. Arrange for a meeting room.
d. Plan the agenda with a measurable objective.
d. Plan the agenda with a measurable objective.

The temperature of the gravy on the trayline is 85°F (29.4°C). The Certified Dietary Manager should instruct the cook to:
Choose one answer.
a. discard the gravy.
b. serve the gravy as is.
c. reheat the gravy to 135°F (57.2°C).
d. reheat the gravy to 165°F (73.9°C).
d. reheat the gravy to 165°F (73.9°C).

If the raw food cost is $5673 for 1484 client days, what is the cost per day?
Choose one answer.
a. $4.32
b. $2.62
c. $4.63
d. $3.82
d. $3.82

Which of the following foods would be the best substitute for a client who doesn’t like broccoli?
Choose one answer.
a. Steamed pea pods
b. Braised parsnips
c. Boiled cauliflower
d. Beet salad
a. Steamed pea pods

The most important factor to consider when replacing food production equipment is:
Choose one answer.
a. how much training is required.
b. what administration’s opinion will be.
c. whether the equipment meet production needs.
d. how much the replacement costs.
c. whether the equipment meet production needs.

A Certified Dietary Manager is reviewing student participation in the school lunch program. If 100 out of 250 students eat school lunch, what percentage represents the participation rate?
Choose one answer.
a. 60.0%
b. 4.0%
c. 40.0%
d. 2.5%
c. 40.0%

To calculate the student participation rate, divide 100 by 250 = 0.4. To determine the percentage, multiply 0.4 x 100 = 40%
Which of the following foods is the most common food allergen?
Choose one answer.
a. Chocolate
b. Corn
c. Peanuts
d. Strawberries
c. Peanuts

A menu includes chicken noodle soup, tuna salad sandwich, carrot sticks, apple slices, and skim milk. Which of the following menu items would need substitution if the client adheres to a lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Chicken noodle soup and tuna salad sandwich
b. Chicken noodle soup and skim milk
c. Tuna salad sandwich and skim milk
d. Carrot sticks and skim milk
a. Chicken noodle soup and tuna salad sandwich

The primary purpose of a tray-accuracy test is to ensure:
Choose one answer.
a. compliance with the diet order.
b. that the client’s preferences are met.
c. the attractiveness of tray set-up.
d. compliance with sanitation standards.
a. compliance with the diet order.

n instances of excessive employee absenteeism, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. hire temporary employees.
b. insist that employees work on their days off.
c. discuss the situation with the administrator.
d. follow procedures for reprimanding or dismissing undependable employees.
d. follow procedures for reprimanding or dismissing undependable employees.

Questions that can be included on applications are governed by which of the following federal agencies?
Choose one answer.
a. FDA
b. USDA
c. DHSS
d. EEOC
d. EEOC

Which of the following factors is most likely to result in consistent quality food?
Choose one answer.
a. Increased pre-prepared items on the menu
b. Standardized recipes
c. High food budget
d. Expert chef
b. Standardized recipes

A job analysis is used to:
Choose one answer.
a. document the qualifications of each position.
b. show the employees what they are responsible for doing.
c. schedule employee overtime.
d. show the task breakdown of the job by day.
d. show the task breakdown of the job by day.

A Certified Dietary Manager has one employee who wants time off to care for his ill wife. By law, what form of compensation would the employee be eligible to receive?
Choose one answer.
a. Family & Medical Leave Act
b. Worker’s Compensation
c. Fair Labor Standards Act
d. Americans with Disabilities Act
a. Family & Medical Leave Act

When preparing fresh fruit and vegetables, the Certified Dietary Manger should first:
Choose one answer.
a. soak the produce in ascorbic acid to prevent browning.
b. prepare the produce close to service time.
c. wash the produce under running water.
d. peel and trim the produce as necessary.
c. wash the produce under running water.

Which type of menu best enhances the quality of care for the client?
Choose one answer.
a. Buffet
b. Nonselective
c. Centralized
d. Selective
d. Selective

How can food safety be incorporated into facility design?
Choose one answer.
a. Purchase self-cleaning ovens.
b. Maintain storage areas at 72°F (22.3°C).
c. Ensure equipment is easily dissembled.
d. Use absorbent ceiling tiles.
c. Ensure equipment is easily dissembled.

Potentially hazardous foods should be cooled within 6 hours to:
Choose one answer.
a. 50°F (10.0°C).
b. 41°F (5.0°C).
c. 70°F (21.1°C).
d. 32°F (0°C).
b. 41°F (5.0°C)

A Certified Dietary Manager should first train a stockroom employee receiving products to:
Choose one answer.
a. locate the expiration dates on foods.
b. follow the FIFO procedure.
c. identify the shelf life of foods.
d. label food containers
b. follow the FIFO procedure.

Clients report that the taste of the chicken pot pie varies from week to week. Which of the following actions should the Certified Dietary Manager take first?
Choose one answer.
a. Verify compliance with the standardized recipe.
b. Check the past week’s production schedule.
c. Purchase premade chicken pot pies.
d. Taste the chicken pot pie
a. Verify compliance with the standardized recipe.

Which of the following methods is an appropriate way to monitor the temperatures of hot foods?
Choose one answer.
a. Use a time/temperature indicator strip.
b. Stir every half hour.
c. Insert a probe thermometer.
d. Insert a meat thermometer.
c. Insert a probe thermometer.

Which of the following gives the best indication of a client’s nutrition status?
Choose one answer.
a. An interview with a staff nurse
b. The dietary cardex
c. An interview with the client
d. Progress notes from the client’s medical record
d. Progress notes from the client’s medical record

A selective menu should offer foods that are:
Choose one answer.
a. the most popular.
b. nutritionally adequate.
c. easy to consume.
d. the most cost effective.
b. nutritionally adequate.

Controlling which of the following has the greatest impact on quality and quantity of food served?
Choose one answer.
a. Census figures
b. Point of sale records
c. Leftover report
d. Time and temperature
d. Time and temperature

Certified Dietary Manager can assist the facility’s pest control operator by:
Choose one answer.
a. using fly strips in storage areas.
b. spraying for insects a minimum of three times per year.
c. reducing pest food sources through proper sanitation.
d. using only food-safe chemicals.
c. reducing pest food sources through proper sanitation.

What is the minimum water temperature required for washing dishes by hand?
Choose one answer.
a. 140°F (60.0°C)
b. 110°F (43.3°C)
c. 180°F (82.2°C)
d. 160°F (71.1°C
b. 110°F (43.3°C)

Which of the following procedures is the best way to cool a gallon of cream soup?
Choose one answer.
a. Place the gallon in the cooler as soon as possible.
b. Place the soup in an ice bath and stir frequently.
c. Place the soup in the freezer.
d. Add ice and stir the contents rapidly.
b. Place the soup in an ice bath and stir frequently.

A recipe that yields 1 gallon will contain how many servings if a No. 12 disher is used?
Choose one answer.
a. 24
b. 48
c. 12
d. 36
b. 48

The Certified Dietary Manager observes that a substantial amount of cooked broccoli is returned on plates to the dishroom. This situation should be investigated as part of:
Choose one answer.
a. the client advisory group.
b. the employee complaint system.
c. continuous quality improvement.
d. the administrative review process.
c. continuous quality improvement.

What standard should be used when assessing the attractiveness of food?
Choose one answer.
a. Foods have similar flavors and temperatures.
b. Foods have similar textures.
c. Foods are the same shape and size.
d. Foods have a variety of colors.
d. Foods have a variety of colors.

Which of the following corrective actions is appropriate when the holding temperature of hot foods has fallen to 128°F (53.3°C) for 75 minutes?
Choose one answer.
a. Cover the food and check that the temperature has risen to 165°F (73.9°C).
b. Reheat the food to 165°F (73.9°C) for 15 seconds.
c. Reheat the food to 135°F (57.2°C) for 15 minutes.
d. Increase the temperature setting on the holding equipment to 135°F (57.2°C) and check the temperature in 15 minutes.
b. Reheat the food to 165°F (73.9°C) for 15 seconds.

The most important criteria when developing schedules is that they:
Choose one answer.
a. meet the facility’s budget.
b. reflect production and service.
c. eliminate overtime.
d. honor employee requests.
b. reflect production and service.

How should a foodservice staff member respond if a client chooses food from a selective menu that is not on his diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Inform the client that the selection is not in compliance and tell him to select a different item.
b. Report the menu concern to the Registered Dietitian.
c. Re-mark the menu with the correct choices.
d. Gently remind the client of his diet and recommend a different choice.
d. Gently remind the client of his diet and recommend a different choice.

Which of the following food additives is considered to be a type of simple sugar?
Choose one answer.
a. Aspartame
b. Modified food starch
c. Malted barley flour
d. High fructose corn syrup
d. High fructose corn syrup

A social worker approaches the Certified Dietary Manager in the elevator to discuss a client’s weight loss. The Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. suggest that they go to the nurse’s station.
b. wait until they exit the elevator before continuing the discussion.
c. proceed with the discussion but not use the client’s name.
d. suggest that they meet in a private office area
d. suggest that they meet in a private office area

In a long-term care facility, the total labor costs for the month of October total $10,125. The client census was 82. Based on this information, what amount represents the labor cost per meal?
Choose one answer.
a. $1.40
b. $3.98
c. $1.33
d. $4.11
c. $1.33

Factors to consider when selecting a new piece of equipment are:
Choose one answer.
a. suitability, brand, and sanitation/safety concerns.
b. durability, cost, and ease of operation.
c. durability, brand, and sanitation/safety concerns.
d. durability, suitability, and OSHA approval.
b. durability, cost, and ease of operation.

Which of the following strategies is NOT effective communication?
Choose one answer.
a. Focus on the message.
b. Analyze the receiver.
c. Become emotional.
d. Make the message meaningful.
c. Become emotional.

Which of the following actions should the Certified Dietary Manager take to prepare for a visit from a representative of the public health department?
Choose one answer.
a. Have several employees on call to assure there are enough staff available to work when the representative arrives.
b. Remind employees that coffee and snacks should be provided to the surveyors throughout the day.
c. Compare the facility’s policies with state regulations to identify areas that need revision or improvement.
d. Call several employees to do a thorough cleaning as soon as the representative arrives.
c. Compare the facility’s policies with state regulations to identify areas that need revision or improvement.

An example of a critical control point (CCP) for a recipe is to:
Choose one answer.
a. mix liquid and dry ingredients.
b. beat fresh eggs for five minutes.
c. cook to an internal temperature of 165°F (73.9°C).
d. season to taste.
c. cook to an internal temperature of 165°F (73.9°C).

A client complains of gas, cramping, and diarrhea after drinking milk. The Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. consult with the Registered Dietitian.
b. eliminate milk from the diet.
c. request a change in the diet.
d. provide lactose-free milk.
a. consult with the Registered Dietitian.

When designing a new kitchen, the Certified Dietary Manager would most appropriately locate the handwashing sink:
Choose one answer.
a. near the center of the food preparation area.
b. near the entrance to the kitchen.
c. near the back of the kitchen, by the delivery door.
d. in the employee restroom.
a. near the center of the food preparation area.

The correct sequence for washing pots and pans is:
Choose one answer.
a. rinsing, washing, and sanitizing.
b. scraping, washing, rinsing, and sanitizing.
c. washing, sanitizing, and rinsing.
d. scraping, rinsing, washing, and sanitizing.
b. scraping, washing, rinsing, and sanitizing.

Which of the following is a measurable objective for a sanitation in-service training session?
Choose one answer.
a. Staff will wear hair nets more often.
b. Staff will do a better job with washing their hands.
c. Staff will wash all serving utensils after each meal.
d. Staff will wash their hands at appropriate times.
c. Staff will wash all serving utensils after each meal.

How many days after admission must the RAI that includes the MDS and the CAA be completed?
Choose one answer.
a. 72 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 7 days.
d. 14 days.
d. 14 days.

The absorption of iron is enhanced by foods high in:
Choose one answer.
a. vitamin B12.
b. vitamin A and niacin.
c. vitamin C.
d. calcium.
c. vitamin C.

When there is increased turnover of new employees, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. offer a sign-on bonus.
b. conduct exit interviews.
c. increase orientation and training time.
d. extend staff break times.
c. increase orientation and training time.

MAP or CAP foods should be stored at which of the following temperature ranges?
Choose one answer.
a. 42° to 45°F (5.6° to 7.2°C)
b. 38° to 41°F (3.3° to 5.0°C)
c. 50° to 70°F (10.0° to 21.1°C)
d. 0° to 10°F (-17.8° to -12.2°C)
b. 38° to 41°F (3.3° to 5.0°C)

What is the most important thing for a Certified Dietary Manager to do when planning an effective staff meeting?
Choose one answer.
a. Check on the audiovisual equipment.
b. Develop an agenda.
c. Plan refreshments.
d. Plan seating arrangements.
b. Develop an agenda.

An essential part of training staff to comply with standard precautions is teaching the proper:
Choose one answer.
a. cook/chill procedures.
b. location of material safety data sheet information.
c. hand washing techniques.
d. payroll procedures.
c. hand washing techniques.

One hundred servings of mashed potatoes are prepared. Twenty-five servings are returned to the kitchen. Income generated by each serving is $0.25. How much money was received?
Choose one answer.
a. $18.75
b. $25.00
c. $12.50
d. $21.25
a. $18.75

When a client requests a food that is not allowed on her diet, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. remind the client that the food is not allowed and let her pick a substitution.
b. tell the client that she cannot have the food.
c. serve the requested food and visit with the client after the meal.
d. remove the selection and choose an appropriate substitution.
a. remind the client that the food is not allowed and let her pick a substitution.

What is the basal energy expenditure (BEE) of a 69-year old man who weighs 74 kg and is 180 cm? [Formula: 66 + (13.7 x weight in kg) + (5 x height in cm) – (6.8 x age)]
Choose one answer.
a. 1738 Kcal
b. 2459 Kcal
c. 1511 Kcal
d. 2338 Kcal
c. 1511 Kcal

The most appropriate snack for a client who has hypoglycemia is:
Choose one answer.
a. peanut butter jelly sandwich.
b. cookies and milk.
c. cottage cheese and crackers.
d. fruit-flavored yogurt.
c. cottage cheese and crackers.

When preparing for a crisis, what is the first step?
Choose one answer.
a. Purchase a 7-day supply of paper products.
b. Contract with a food vendor who can quickly provide food.
c. Develop a plan of action.
d. List emergency contact numbers for staff.
c. Develop a plan of action.

How frequently should an employee who prepares food wash his or her hands?
Choose one answer.
a. Before work and after each break
b. When changing jobs during a shift
c. After handling raw food products
d. After every possibility of contaminatio
d. After every possibility of contamination

Eggs that are not cooked thoroughly are most likely to cause which of the following foodborne illnesses?
Choose one answer.
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Norwalk virus
d. Salmonella enteritis
d. Salmonella enteritis

The objectives, philosophy, and function of the department should initially be communicated to a new employee:
Choose one answer.
a. on the employment application.
b. after 90 days.
c. during orientation.
d. at the end of the training period.
c. during orientation.

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for monitoring working conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. U.S. Department of Agriculture
b. Food and Drug Administration
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. National Marine Fisheries Service
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

What utensil would provide the most accurate portion of mashed potatoes?
Choose one answer.
a. Slotted spoon
b. 1/2 cup ladle
c. #8 disher/portion scoop
d. Large serving spoon
c. #8 disher/portion scoop

What percentage of total daily calories should come from saturated fat?
Choose one answer.
a. 15%
b. 5%
c. 20%
d. 7%
d. 7%

The most appropriate consideration when selecting an approved food vendor is:
Choose one answer.
a. buying food from a vendor who serves at least 15 states.
b. comparing vendor prices.
c. knowing the vendor’s sanitation practices.
d. selecting vendors who use refrigerated delivery trucks.
c. knowing the vendor’s sanitation practices.

In an effort to meet client nutritional needs, a Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. discuss the menu with the administrator.
b. identify food trends.
c. review the menu from last year.
d. survey clients for preferences.
d. survey clients for preferences.

Symptoms of lactose intolerance include:
Choose one answer.
a. weight gain.
b. swollen tongue.
c. rash.
d. diarrhea.
d. diarrhea.

Which of the following approaches should be used by the Certified Dietary Manager to best help a client who is unable to feed herself?
Choose one answer.
a. Modify the consistency of the client’s diet.
b. Contact the Registered Dietitian.
c. Contact the physician for supplements.
d. Request an evaluation by a speech therapist.
When should a Certified
b. Contact the Registered Dietitian.

When should a Certified Dietary Manager refer a patient newly admitted to a long-term care facility to the consultant Registered Dietitian?
Choose one answer.
a. The client requests to be allowed to eat her evening meal in her room in order to watch a favorite TV show.
b. The Manager notes that the client weighs 145 pounds and has lost 11 pounds in the past month before admission.
c. The client expresses a dislike for milk at meals but does request hot chocolate at bedtime and yogurt for breakfast each day.
d. The Manager notes that the client has lost her dentures and has requested soft foods and ground meat until the dentures are repaired.
b. The Manager notes that the client weighs 145 pounds and has lost 11 pounds in the past month before admission.

When interviewing a prospective employee, the Certified Dietary Manager is permitted to ask:
Choose one answer.
a. if the applicant has a car to get to work.
b. why the applicant left the previous job.
c. which country the applicant is from.
d. the age of the applicant.
b. why the applicant left the previous job.

If a client who is underweight refuses special nourishment provided to help increase weight, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. review food preferences with the client.
b. call the physician to report the refusal.
c. ask nursing staff to help feed the client.
d. change the kind of nourishment given.
a. review food preferences with the client.

The best method for maintaining morale among employees would require the Certified Dietary Manager to:
Choose one answer.
a. continue documenting an employee’s poor work performance.
b. serve as a positive role model of the behavior desired.
c. remind employees that they must follow the rules.
d. terminate employees who have discipline problems.
b. serve as a positive role model of the behavior desired.

During food prep, where are foodservice employees required to clean their hands and exposed portions of arms?
Choose one answer.
a. In an approved hand washing sink
b. In a sink used for food prep
c. In a sink used for ware washing
d. In the service sink
a. In an approved hand washing sink

Which of the following represents a receiving control to ensure quality and control cost:
Choose one answer.
a. Providing duplicate invoices
b. Checking to make sure the correct size of shrimp is received.
c. Requesting a credit memo for a short delivery.
d. Using vendor rebates.
b. Checking to make sure the correct size of shrimp is received.

Which of the following factors is of primary importance in the design of a foodservice kitchen?
Choose one answer.
a. Location of pots and pans, utensils, and dishes
b. Placement of garbage and trash cans in the storage area
c. Placement of the walk-in cooler and freezer
d. Cleanability of food preparation surfaces and equipment
d. Cleanability of food preparation surfaces and equipment

Approximately how many servings of pears are contained in a No. 10 can?
Choose one answer.
a. 25
b. 5
c. 11
a. 25

To properly clean and sanitize a stainless steel table used for food preparation, a foodservice employee would:
Choose one answer.
a. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 50-ppm chlorine solution, and air dry.
b. wash, rinse, sanitize with 165°F (73.9°C) water, and air dry.
c. wash with a detergent and chlorine solution, rinse at 100°F (37.8°C), and air dry.
d. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 200-ppm ammonia solution, and air dry.
a. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 50-ppm chlorine solution, and air dry.

The most important factor for cooks preparing new menu items is to:
Choose one answer.
a. use the best quality ingredients.
b. accept the new menu item.
c. follow standardized recipes.
d. Prepare a sample for a taste test.
c. follow standardized recipes.

In a long-term care facility, which of the following types of menu offers the greatest variety?
Choose one answer.
a. Five-week cycle
b. Nonselective
c. Static
d. Three-day cycle
a. Five-week cycle

Which of the following instructions is most appropriate from a Certified Dietary Manager to a new employee who is putting away products in the storeroom?
Choose one answer.
a. Move the older products to the front; place the new products in the back.
b. Put away all products.
c. Don’t put anything on the wrong shelf or on the floor.
d. Leave items in the cases; don’t put heavy items on the top shelf.
a. Move the older products to the front; place the new products in the back.

A Certified Dietary Manager should purchase seafood or fish from which of the following sources?
Choose one answer.
a. Produce vendor
b. State-approved vendor
c. Fish market
d. Local fisherman
b. State-approved vendor

Which of the following foods should a Certified Dietary Manager avoid serving to a client on a clear liquid diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Cream soup
b. Popsicle
c. Coffee
d. Apple juice
a. Cream soup

The most important criteria when developing schedules is that they:
a. meet the facility’s budget.
b. reflect production and service.
c. eliminate overtime.
d. honor employee requests.
b. reflect production and service.

How should a foodservice staff member respond if a client chooses food from a selective menu that is not on his diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Inform the client that the selection is not in compliance and tell him to select a different item.
b. Report the menu concern to the Registered Dietitian.
c. Re-mark the menu with the correct choices.
d. Gently remind the client of his diet and recommend a different choice.
d. Gently remind the client of his diet and recommend a different choice.

Which of the following food additives is considered to be a type of simple sugar?
Choose one answer.
a. Aspartame
b. Modified food starch
c. Malted barley flour
d. High fructose corn syrup
d. High fructose corn syrup

A social worker approaches the Certified Dietary Manager in the elevator to discuss a client’s weight loss. The Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. suggest that they go to the nurse’s station.
b. wait until they exit the elevator before continuing the discussion.
c. proceed with the discussion but not use the client’s name.
d. suggest that they meet in a private office area
d. suggest that they meet in a private office area

In a long-term care facility, the total labor costs for the month of October total $10,125. The client census was 82. Based on this information, what amount represents the labor cost per meal?
Choose one answer.
a. $1.40
b. $3.98
c. $1.33
d. $4.11
c. $1.33

Factors to consider when selecting a new piece of equipment are:
Choose one answer.
a. suitability, brand, and sanitation/safety concerns.
b. durability, cost, and ease of operation.
c. durability, brand, and sanitation/safety concerns.
d. durability, suitability, and OSHA approval.
b. durability, cost, and ease of operation.

Which of the following strategies is NOT effective communication?
Choose one answer.
a. Focus on the message.
b. Analyze the receiver.
c. Become emotional.
d. Make the message meaningful.
c. Become emotional.

Which of the following actions should the Certified Dietary Manager take to prepare for a visit from a representative of the public health department?
Choose one answer.
a. Have several employees on call to assure there are enough staff available to work when the representative arrives.
b. Remind employees that coffee and snacks should be provided to the surveyors throughout the day.
c. Compare the facility’s policies with state regulations to identify areas that need revision or improvement.
d. Call several employees to do a thorough cleaning as soon as the representative arrives.
c. Compare the facility’s policies with state regulations to identify areas that need revision or improvement.

An example of a critical control point (CCP) for a recipe is to:
Choose one answer.
a. mix liquid and dry ingredients.
b. beat fresh eggs for five minutes.
c. cook to an internal temperature of 165°F (73.9°C).
d. season to taste.
c. cook to an internal temperature of 165°F (73.9°C).

A client complains of gas, cramping, and diarrhea after drinking milk. The Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. consult with the Registered Dietitian.
b. eliminate milk from the diet.
c. request a change in the diet.
d. provide lactose-free milk.
a. consult with the Registered Dietitian.

When designing a new kitchen, the Certified Dietary Manager would most appropriately locate the handwashing sink:
Choose one answer.
a. near the center of the food preparation area.
b. near the entrance to the kitchen.
c. near the back of the kitchen, by the delivery door.
d. in the employee restroom.
a. near the center of the food preparation area.

The correct sequence for washing pots and pans is:
Choose one answer.
a. rinsing, washing, and sanitizing.
b. scraping, washing, rinsing, and sanitizing.
c. washing, sanitizing, and rinsing.
d. scraping, rinsing, washing, and sanitizing.
b. scraping, washing, rinsing, and sanitizing.

Which of the following is a measurable objective for a sanitation in-service training session?
Choose one answer.
a. Staff will wear hair nets more often.
b. Staff will do a better job with washing their hands.
c. Staff will wash all serving utensils after each meal.
d. Staff will wash their hands at appropriate times.
c. Staff will wash all serving utensils after each meal.

How many days after admission must the RAI that includes the MDS and the CAA be completed?
Choose one answer.
a. 72 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 7 days.
d. 14 days.
d. 14 days.

The absorption of iron is enhanced by foods high in:
Choose one answer.
a. vitamin B12.
b. vitamin A and niacin.
c. vitamin C.
d. calcium.
c. vitamin C.

When there is increased turnover of new employees, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. offer a sign-on bonus.
b. conduct exit interviews.
c. increase orientation and training time.
d. extend staff break times.
c. increase orientation and training time.

MAP or CAP foods should be stored at which of the following temperature ranges?
Choose one answer.
a. 42° to 45°F (5.6° to 7.2°C)
b. 38° to 41°F (3.3° to 5.0°C)
c. 50° to 70°F (10.0° to 21.1°C)
d. 0° to 10°F (-17.8° to -12.2°C)
b. 38° to 41°F (3.3° to 5.0°C)

What is the most important thing for a Certified Dietary Manager to do when planning an effective staff meeting?
Choose one answer.
a. Check on the audiovisual equipment.
b. Develop an agenda.
c. Plan refreshments.
d. Plan seating arrangements.
b. Develop an agenda.

An essential part of training staff to comply with standard precautions is teaching the proper:
Choose one answer.
a. cook/chill procedures.
b. location of material safety data sheet information.
c. hand washing techniques.
d. payroll procedures.
c. hand washing techniques.

One hundred servings of mashed potatoes are prepared. Twenty-five servings are returned to the kitchen. Income generated by each serving is $0.25. How much money was received?
Choose one answer.
a. $18.75
b. $25.00
c. $12.50
d. $21.25
a. $18.75

When a client requests a food that is not allowed on her diet, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. remind the client that the food is not allowed and let her pick a substitution.
b. tell the client that she cannot have the food.
c. serve the requested food and visit with the client after the meal.
d. remove the selection and choose an appropriate substitution.
a. remind the client that the food is not allowed and let her pick a substitution.

What is the basal energy expenditure (BEE) of a 69-year old man who weighs 74 kg and is 180 cm? [Formula: 66 + (13.7 x weight in kg) + (5 x height in cm) – (6.8 x age)]
Choose one answer.
a. 1738 Kcal
b. 2459 Kcal
c. 1511 Kcal
d. 2338 Kcal
c. 1511 Kcal

The most appropriate snack for a client who has hypoglycemia is:
Choose one answer.
a. peanut butter jelly sandwich.
b. cookies and milk.
c. cottage cheese and crackers.
d. fruit-flavored yogurt.
c. cottage cheese and crackers.

When preparing for a crisis, what is the first step?
Choose one answer.
a. Purchase a 7-day supply of paper products.
b. Contract with a food vendor who can quickly provide food.
c. Develop a plan of action.
d. List emergency contact numbers for staff.
c. Develop a plan of action.

How frequently should an employee who prepares food wash his or her hands?
Choose one answer.
a. Before work and after each break
b. When changing jobs during a shift
c. After handling raw food products
d. After every possibility of contamination
d. After every possibility of contamination

Eggs that are not cooked thoroughly are most likely to cause which of the following foodborne illnesses?
Choose one answer.
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Norwalk virus
d. Salmonella enteritis
d. Salmonella enteritis

The objectives, philosophy, and function of the department should initially be communicated to a new employee:
Choose one answer.
a. on the employment application.
b. after 90 days.
c. during orientation.
d. at the end of the training period.
c. during orientation.

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for monitoring working conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. U.S. Department of Agriculture
b. Food and Drug Administration
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
d. National Marine Fisheries Service
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

What utensil would provide the most accurate portion of mashed potatoes?
Choose one answer.
a. Slotted spoon
b. 1/2 cup ladle
c. #8 disher/portion scoop
d. Large serving spoon
c. #8 disher/portion scoop

What percentage of total daily calories should come from saturated fat?
Choose one answer.
a. 15%
b. 5%
c. 20%
d. 7%
d. 7%

The most appropriate consideration when selecting an approved food vendor is:
Choose one answer.
a. buying food from a vendor who serves at least 15 states.
b. comparing vendor prices.
c. knowing the vendor’s sanitation practices.
d. selecting vendors who use refrigerated delivery trucks.
c. knowing the vendor’s sanitation practices.

In an effort to meet client nutritional needs, a Certified Dietary Manager should first:
Choose one answer.
a. discuss the menu with the administrator.
b. identify food trends.
c. review the menu from last year.
d. survey clients for preferences.
d. survey clients for preferences.

Symptoms of lactose intolerance include:
Choose one answer.
a. weight gain.
b. swollen tongue.
c. rash.
d. diarrhea.
d. diarrhea.

Which of the following approaches should be used by the Certified Dietary Manager to best help a client who is unable to feed herself?
Choose one answer.
a. Modify the consistency of the client’s diet.
b. Contact the Registered Dietitian.
c. Contact the physician for supplements.
d. Request an evaluation by a speech therapist.
b. Contact the Registered Dietitian.

When should a Certified Dietary Manager refer a patient newly admitted to a long-term care facility to the consultant Registered Dietitian?
Choose one answer.
a. The client requests to be allowed to eat her evening meal in her room in order to watch a favorite TV show.
b. The Manager notes that the client weighs 145 pounds and has lost 11 pounds in the past month before admission.
c. The client expresses a dislike for milk at meals but does request hot chocolate at bedtime and yogurt for breakfast each day.
d. The Manager notes that the client has lost her dentures and has requested soft foods and ground meat until the dentures are repaired.
b. The Manager notes that the client weighs 145 pounds and has lost 11 pounds in the past month before admission.

When interviewing a prospective employee, the Certified Dietary Manager is permitted to ask:
Choose one answer.
a. if the applicant has a car to get to work.
b. why the applicant left the previous job.
c. which country the applicant is from.
d. the age of the applicant.
b. why the applicant left the previous job.

If a client who is underweight refuses special nourishment provided to help increase weight, the Certified Dietary Manager should:
Choose one answer.
a. review food preferences with the client.
b. call the physician to report the refusal.
c. ask nursing staff to help feed the client.
d. change the kind of nourishment given.
a. review food preferences with the client.

The best method for maintaining morale among employees would require the Certified Dietary Manager to:
Choose one answer.
a. continue documenting an employee’s poor work performance.
b. serve as a positive role model of the behavior desired.
c. remind employees that they must follow the rules.
d. terminate employees who have discipline problems.
b. serve as a positive role model of the behavior desired.

During food prep, where are foodservice employees required to clean their hands and exposed portions of arms?
Choose one answer.
a. In an approved hand washing sink
b. In a sink used for food prep
c. In a sink used for ware washing
d. In the service sink
a. In an approved hand washing sink

Which of the following represents a receiving control to ensure quality and control cost:
Choose one answer.
a. Providing duplicate invoices
b. Checking to make sure the correct size of shrimp is received.
c. Requesting a credit memo for a short delivery.
d. Using vendor rebates.
b. Checking to make sure the correct size of shrimp is received.

Which of the following factors is of primary importance in the design of a foodservice kitchen?
Choose one answer.
a. Location of pots and pans, utensils, and dishes
b. Placement of garbage and trash cans in the storage area
c. Placement of the walk-in cooler and freezer
d. Cleanability of food preparation surfaces and equipment
d. Cleanability of food preparation surfaces and equipment

Approximately how many servings of pears are contained in a No. 10 can?
Choose one answer.
a. 25
b. 5
c. 11
d. 3
a. 25

To properly clean and sanitize a stainless steel table used for food preparation, a foodservice employee would:
Choose one answer.
a. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 50-ppm chlorine solution, and air dry.
b. wash, rinse, sanitize with 165°F (73.9°C) water, and air dry.
c. wash with a detergent and chlorine solution, rinse at 100°F (37.8°C), and air dry.
d. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 200-ppm ammonia solution, and air dry.
a. wash, rinse, sanitize with a 50-ppm chlorine solution, and air dry.

The most important factor for cooks preparing new menu items is to:
Choose one answer.
a. use the best quality ingredients.
b. accept the new menu item.
c. follow standardized recipes.
d. Prepare a sample for a taste test.
c. follow standardized recipes.

In a long-term care facility, which of the following types of menu offers the greatest variety?
Choose one answer.
a. Five-week cycle
b. Nonselective
c. Static
d. Three-day cycle
a. Five-week cycle

Which of the following instructions is most appropriate from a Certified Dietary Manager to a new employee who is putting away products in the storeroom?
Choose one answer.
a. Move the older products to the front; place the new products in the back.
b. Put away all products.
c. Don’t put anything on the wrong shelf or on the floor.
d. Leave items in the cases; don’t put heavy items on the top shelf.
a. Move the older products to the front; place the new products in the back.

A Certified Dietary Manager should purchase seafood or fish from which of the following sources?
Choose one answer.
a. Produce vendor
b. State-approved vendor
c. Fish market
d. Local fisherman
b. State-approved vendor

Which of the following foods should a Certified Dietary Manager avoid serving to a client on a clear liquid diet?
Choose one answer.
a. Cream soup
b. Popsicle
c. Coffee
d. Apple juice
a. Cream soup

the structured type of collecting data SOAP – if a patient says they are allergic to peanuts, what part of the acronym would this be?
subjective

how many ml are in one ounce
30

following the increase in calorie recommendation for pregnancy, what foods would you add to a general menu throughout the day
extra 300 calories a day

at an assisted living facility food service employees take orders in the dining room each day. Clients are offered two entree choices for each meal, what type of menu is this
cycle

what would the steps be to implement a a diet order to comply with CMS guidelines for an elderly person with a diabetic diet in a nursing home
meet with interdisciplinary team
work on a menu
educate clients, staff and family members
follow-up with clients

what provides both diet order and diagnosis
medical record

what addresses the multifaceted needs of a client
comprehensive care plan

what consists of three components and is utilized to assess each nursing home or swin bed clients functional capacity and needs
RAI – resident assessment instrument

your hospital just implemented a room service menu. You still offer menus in the cafeteria that change every two weeks. What menu styles are you using?
in the cafeteria: cycle menu
in room service: static menu

what is a type of absolute standards performance review?
critical incident method

a review based on free text allows the supervisor to note strengths and weaknesses
open – ended summary review

based on individualized objectives – developed between the Dietary Manager and employee
objectives – based performance review

Acute Care
Healthcare services for individuals who become acutely or suddenly ill and need to be hospitalized, generally over a short period of time.

Client
The accepted terminology for which services are provided in any setting.

Continuing Care Retirement Community (CCRC)
An organization offering several levels of healthcare on one campus.

Code of Ethics
A written statement of standards for the guidance of both supervisors and employees.

Confidentiality
The protection of information that is considered private or personal.

Congregate Feeding Sites
Foodservice generally offering hot meals 5 times a week at noon, providing necessary nutrition and an opportunity for social contact and activities.

Contract Management
Foodservice management provided by a contract company.

Certified Dietary Manager (CDM)
Professional who has completed an ANFP-approved training program and passed the national certification examination. Responsible for management of the food operation.

Dietetic Technician Registered (DTR)
Professional who has completed an AND-approved associate degree program and who works under clinical and consultant dietitians to provide appropriate nutrition care.

Healthcare Team
A group of specialists in their respective areas.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)
Requiring all healthcare organizations to maintain confidentiality and security of individuals’ medical information.

Home Delivered Meals
Agency that provides meals and delivery to home environment to those meeting the criteria.

Hospice
Service providing terminally ill patients with help in improving the quality of life.

In-home Services
Home healthcare providing skilled nursing services, rehabilitation services, and personal care services.

Interdisciplinary Care Team (ICT)
The combined group of professionals that provide input into the care of the client.

Long-term Care
Services provided to individuals who have healthcare needs that require ongoing support.

Manager
A person who plans, directs, organizes, and controls work.

Mission Stataement
An organization’s reason for being a definition of what the organization does.

Registered Dietitian (RD)
An individual who has a minimum of a bachelor’s degree in nutrition/dietetics and who has completed experience and registration requirements of the AND.

Residential Care Facility
A facility that provides ongoing day-to-day care for a resident who could not otherwise do so, but does not have intensive medical needs.

Scope of Practice
A terminology used by national and state licensing boards for various professions that defines the procedures, actions, and processes that are permitted for the certified individual.

Skilled Nursing Facility
An institution that accepts patients who need the skill and healthcare professionals to manage health needs around the clock.

Al dente’
Italian cooking term meaning cooking until still firm, but tender to the tooth; not soft.

Buffet-style Service
Clients serve themselves from a number of choices on a buffet line.

Centralized Meal Service
Foods prepared and portioned onto trays of plates at a central location in or adjacent to the main kitchen.

Closed Question
A question with a limited number of answers such as one easily answered with yes or no.

Comfort Food
Any food that imparts a unique sense of emotional well-being such as chicken soup.

Cultural Change
Focus on person-centered, resident-driven services and care for older Americans allowing expansion of choices in a healthcare community.

Cycle Menu
Changes to a menu daily over a period of time or cycle such as three days or three weeks.

Decentralized Meal Service
Bulk quantities of prepared foods are sent hot or cold to other locations for finishing and service.

External Nutrition
Supplemental feeding, by mouth or by tube, of formulas or food that contain essential nutrients.

Kosher
Fit, proper, or in agreement with religious law. Kosher meat means the animal has been slaughtered in a special way. Kosher foods are typically blessed by a rabbi.

Likert Scale
A common rating technique that uses words of numbers.

Non-selective Menus
One in which clients do not have the opportunity to make choices for main dishes.

Nutrition Support
General term describing providing foods and liquids to improve nutritional status.

Open-ended Question
Allows the participant to answer freely, saying whatever comes to mind.

Productivity Indexes
Measures to determine productivity level involving careful calculations of time, meals, and labor. Includes meals per labor hour, minutes per meal, and labor hours per meal.

Quality Assessment
The evaluation of processes and outcomes to determine if a defined standard of quality is being achieved.

Quality Assurance
Sum total of structure, processes, and procedures designed to ensure that clients feel that both food and services are excellent and the facility meets of exceeds an expected standard of quality.

Quality Indicator
Measures outcomes.

Quality Improvement
The on-going process to improve the delivery of food, services, and outcomes.

Quality Standard
The facility’s definition of what constitutes quality for a product such as food or service.

Restaurant-style Service
Dining that may include wait staff, foods ordered and delivered in courses, food plated in the dining room, and specials offered tableside from a cart.

Rethermalize
Reheat.

Selective Menu
One in which clients have the opportunity to make choices or selections in advance or immediately prior to meal service.

Single Use Menu
A fixed menu for service on a special day such as Mother’s Day.

Static Menu
A fixed menu that doesn’t change such as a room service menu.

Trayline Service
Meal trays move through an assembly line and employees place items on the trays, which are then transported to a common site and delivered to the client.

Tray per Minute
A measure of efficiency of a trayline foodservice system.

Tray Accuracy
How accurately staff have followed the menu, tray card, or tray ticket in assembling the tray.

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Prohibits employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities in the public and private sector and in state and local governments.

Chain of Command
The flow of formal power through organizational lines.

Corrective Action for Employees
An action taken by a supervisor to correct an employee performance problem.

Cross-training
Training an employee to do more than one job.

Delegation
Passing authority for tasks or assigning duties downward through the organization chart.

Disability
A physical or mental impairment or being regarded as having such an impairment.

Discrimination
Treatment of consideration based on class or category, rather than individual merit.

Employee Assistance Program
Provides support to employees in solving personal problems such as drug and alcohol abuse, family problems, and teamwork issues.

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
Provides oversight for federal employment legislation.

Bulimia
An eating disorder involving binging; eating large amounts of food and than purging to get rid of the food.

Care Area Assessment (CAA)
Component of the RAI that is used to make decisions about areas triggered by the MDS.

Care Plan
A written plan for medical care.

Care Area Trigger (CAT)
Related to one or more items in the MDS and are the flags for the interdisciplinary team member.

Care Protocols
Documents that outline a care process related to a specific medical condition.

C-tags
An identification number of a CMS guideline for small rural or critical access hospitals.

Comprehensive Care Plan
Developed by interdisciplinary team that address the multifaceted needs of the client.

Enteral Nutrition
Feeding of formulas, by mouth, or by tube into the gastrointestinal tract.

F-Tags
An identification number of a CMS guideline for long-term care.

Fixed Menu
A menu that doesn’t change from day to day such as what is found in restaurants.

Health Care Communities
Assisted living facilities, group homes, short-term rehabilitation facilities, and hospice facilities.

Interdisciplinary Team (IDT)
Interdisciplinary team of health professionals that collaborate in the completion of the RAI.

Learning Objective
A specific, measurable statement of the outcome of a lesson, in service, or nutrition education session.

Minimum Data Set (MDS)
The starting of the RAI and is a standardized tool collecting information that is the cord of the RAI.

Parenteral Nutrition
Administration of simple essential nutrients into a vein.

Quality Indicators
Quality indicators are measuring of outcomes.

Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)
Three components utilized to assess each nursing home or swing bed client’s functional capacity and needs.

RUMBAS Objective
A learning objective that is Relevant, Understandable, Measurable, Behavioral, Attainable, and Specific.

Standard of Practice
Standard for what you normally do that constitute the quality in practice.

Tube Feeding
Enteral feeding given through a tube.

Agenda
Planned outline and timetable for a meeting should include the meeting objective.

Brainstorming
A technique that identifies options in problem solving. All ideas are listed and discussion or judgment regarding any of the ideas is withheld until the brainstorming session is completed.

Capital Equipment
An expensive piece of equipment with a long life.

Care Teams
A team approach to the care of clients.

Cleaning Schedule
A schedule of cleaning tasks assigned to a specific employee position.

Coach
As the employee practices something, provide hands on training to help the employee refine the behavior.

Committee
Regularly scheduled meeting chaired by an appointed chairperson, typically for on-going activities.

Exempt Employee
Salaried and does not qualify for overtime compensation.

Exit Interview
An interview with an employee who is leaving the organization.

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
Requires employers to provide at least 12 weeks of leave to a qualified employee who has specific family or medical reasons to request time off.

Full Time Equivalent (FTE)
Measuring how many hours of work are in an overall labor budget.

Job Analysis
An individual schedule, by day, for each staff position.

Job Description
Detailed job list including hours and location of the job, qualifications, and salary range.

Job Sharing
Dividing a full time position into two or more positions.

Halo Effect
Hiring people who are just like you.

Insubordination
Direct refusal by an employee to do what the supervisors asks.

Master Schedule
Schedule for the entire department that includes days on, days off, and vacation days for all employees.

Meals per Labor Hour
A productivity standard that is a calculation of the total meals divided by the total number of labor hours for a given time.

Minutes per Meal
A productivity standard that is a calculation of the total minutes in producing meals divided by the total meals served.

Organization Chart
A graphical management tool that shows job relationships in a facility.

Overtime
Time worked in excess of the allowable amount beyond which laws require payment of one-and-one half times the hourly rate for every hour worked.

Performance Review
A formal, structured meeting between employee and supervisor about the individual employee’s performance.

Right to Privacy
Protects employees against invasion of their privacy including employee records, lockers, personal inspections, background investigations, and other matters.

Sexual Harassment
Conduct that is sexual in nature and unweclome. May be physical, verbal, or visual.

Shift Schedule
Shows the different shifts, when they begin and end, for different staff.

Split Schedule
Provides advisory or consulting support.

Staff Position
Provides advisory or consulting support.

Staggered Scheduling
Scheduling staff so they come in at different times instead of several coming in and leaving at the same time.

Termination
An employee is “let-go” or fired.

Communication
Verbal and non-verbal exchange of information.

Communication Feedback
The reaction that the receiver has to the sender’s message.

Communication Message
The information the sender wishes to transmit to the receiver.

Concensus
General agreement within a group.

Cost Justification
Compare cost with benefits.

Diversity
Describes the many ways in which people differ from each other.

Downward Communication
Communication used in large facilities to convey policies, procedures, directives, objectives or other information to subordinate personal.

Empowerment
When management gives power to an employee to take auction.

Energy efficiency
Operating cost (gas or electric) for a special piece of equipment.

Equipment Specification
A detailed description providing information needed to purchase a piece of equipment.

Ergonomic factors
Comfort, efficiency, and safety or a work environment.

Goal
A statement that outlines an outcome or result.

Goal Progress Meeting
Review progress towards department goals.

Grapevine
Rumors mill in lateral communications.

HACCP
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. Systematic, preventive approach to food safety.

HIPAA
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. Allows patients access to their medical records and more control over how their personal health information is used and disclosed.

Lateral Communication
Occurs among peers and may involve discussion and meetings to solve problems and accomplish tasks.

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
A theory of motivation developed by Abraham Maslow.

Memo
Specific type of written business communication, a brief document.

Motivation
An internal force that makes people do something in order to reach a goal.

New Employee Orientation
A planned, structured introduction to the workplace and job.

Non-Verbal Communication
Body language that conveys a message to the receiver.

Objective
The steps to achieve the goal or the actions to get there.

On-the-job training
Teaching an employee how to do a job while the employee is actually doing the job.

Open-door policy
Employees are invited to come to the supervisor’s office to talk any time.

Organizational Chart
Illustrates the division of labor within the facility.

Performance Standard
Specific statement describing the expected outcomes of the work performed.

Persuasion
An effort to influence and/or to change the beliefs, feelings, or attitudes of someone else.

Policy
Describes an organization’s approach to a certain situation.

Preventive Maintenance
Organized routine of cleaning, inspecting and maintaining equipment.

Procedure
Details the steps in carrying out a policy.

Production Meeting
Daily or weekly meetings to review assignments, coordinate food production, delivery, or other needs.

Request for Proposal (RFP)
Formal document stating the requirements for purchase that is sent to suppliers to obtain a competitive bid.

Sanitation and Safety Training
Mandatory training on food safety and food protection.

SMART Goals
Criteria for creating goals, Specific, Meaningful, Affordable, Reasonable, Timed.

Standard of Practice
Sever as the basic for quality in professional activities.

Stress Management
Managing stress that arises from physical or mental strain, anxiety, and overwork.

Task Force
A group appointed to deal with a specific problem. When the problem is solved, the group is disbanded.

Teamwork Meeting
Meeting to discuss issues that may be cross-departmental, such as quality initiatives.

Team Building
Technique that recognizes that each employee is not working alone. All employees are working together to accomplish defined objectives.

Training Meeting
Meeting to review current regulations or introduce new procedures, equipment, or skills.

Upward Communication
Reporting and questioning, communicating ideas, requests and opinions to supervisors.

Work Climate
How it feels to work in a given environment.

Aerobic
Requires oxygen to survive. Many microorganisms are aerobic.

Anaerobic
Can grow without the presence of oxygen.

Biological Hazards
A living organism such as bacteria, virus, parasite, and fungi that cause harm to humans.

Carrier
An individual who may “carry” or transmit pathogens without having any symptoms of illness.

Clean
Free of visible soil.

Cleanability
The ability of a piece of equipment to be easily accessible for cleaning, soil removal, sanitizing, and inspection.

Contamination
The presence of biological, physical, or chemical substances in food that could cause harm.

Control Point
Point in the flow of food where a hazard can be controlled, a step can be taken to minimize the risk of foodborne illness.

Conditional Employee
A potential foodservice employee to whom a job offer is made conditional on responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations.

Corrective Action for Food
The procedure to follow when monitoring shows that a critical limit has not been met.

Critical Control Point (CCP)
Step in the flow of food which, if not controlled, could lead to an unacceptable health risk for consumers of the food.

Critical Limits
Specified limits of characteristics of a physical, chemical, or biological nature that help you measure whether you have adequately controlled a hazard at a CCP.

Cross Contamination
The transfer of pathogens from any item or human to food.

Dry Lab
Recording temperatures without actually taking them.

Endpoint Temperature
The temperature food reaches at the end of cooking.

Exclude
Prohibit employees from coming to work.

Facultative
Can grow with OR without the presence of oxygen.

FIFO
First in, first out. A storage method to assure that older products are used first.

Flow of Food
Movement of food through a foodservice facility including purchasing, receiving, storage, preparation, transport, holding, service, cooling, and reheating.

Foodborne Illness
A disease that is transmitted by food.

Foodborne Illness Outbreak
Occurs when two or more cases of a similar illness result from eating a common food.

Foodborne Infection
When pathogens enter the body in an active state and continue to grow.

Foodborne Intoxication
An illness that occurs from the toxin or poison left from bacteria that are no longer alive.

Foodservice Employee
An individual working with unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food contact.

FOTTWA
Acronym for the conditions needed for bacteria growth: Food, Oxygen, Temperature, Time, Water, and Acidity.

Fungi
Molds or yeast that can cause an illness or produce a toxin that causes the illness.

Grading
A voluntary process providing a descriptive term or number to designate quality.

HACCP
Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point.

Hazards
Biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk. Hazards must be controlled.

Danger Zone
The temperature range in which most bacteria grow rapidly.

Highly Susceptible Population
Persons who are more likely to experience foodborne disease cause they are immunocompromised (already ill), preschool age children, or older adults.

Inspection
A mandatory process that addresses wholesomeness and safety of fresh meats, dairy products, and produce.

Modified Atmosphere Packaging
A type of packaging that extends the life of the product by maintaining a reduced oxygen environment.

Monitoring
Checking that a processing or handling procedure does not exceed the established critical limit at each critical control point.

Parasite
A small organism that lives within another living organism.

Permit Holder
The entity that is legally responsible for the operation of the food facility such as the hospital, nursing facility, or school district.

Person in Charge
The manager of the foodservice operation who is accountable for developing, carrying out, and enforcing procedures aimed at preventing foodborne illness.

PHF/TCS
Abbreviation for Potentially Hazardous Food (time/temperature control for safety), designation of foods that require control of time and temperature safety.

Physical Hazards
Foreign materials that enter food accidentally.

Restrict
To limit an employee’s activities so there is no risk of transmitting foodborne illness (such as to reassign the employee to a non-food related position)

Sanitary
Free of harmful levels of microorganisms.

Sanitizers
Chemicals that destroy microorganisms.

Shellfish Identification Tags
Special labels that can be used to trace a product such as oysters, mussels, and clams back to the source in the event that illness occurs.

Time/Temperature Strip (TTI)
A smart label that shows the accumulated time and temperature history of a product.

Toxin-Mediated Infection
When live bacteria enter the body and produce a dangerous toxin.

UHT
Ultra High Temperature Processing.

Verification
The use of equipment to determine that the HACCP system is in place and achieving the desired objectives.

Virus
Source of foodborne illness that does not grow in food, but is transmitted from people, animals, and fish.

Comfot Food
Food that is very familiar and part of long-standing habits, with a reputation for comfort.

Community Share Associated (CSA)
Customers purchase a share of a community garden in exchange for a weekly delivery of local produce.

Cultural Heritage
Cultural influences, experiences, and traditions that determine our approach in foods.

Diet
The foods and beverages a person consumes.

Functional Foods
Foods that convey health benefits beyond the nutrients.

Lacto-Vegetarian
A diet excluding all animal foods except dairy.

Natural Foods
Contain no artificial ingredients or added color and are only minimally processed.

Nutrients
Components in food that are essential to good health.

Nutrition
The science of how components in food nourish the body.

Organic Foods
Grown without genetic engineering, without use of inorganic hormones, antibiotics, pesticides, herbicides, or fertilizers.

Ovo-lacto Vegeterian
A diet excluding animal foods except dairy and eggs.

Phytochemicals
Chemicals in plants though to provide special health benefits.

Ramadan
Religious fasting from sun up to sun down for one month.

Regional Trends
Recognition of menu trends and preferences unique to a certain religion of out country.

Therapeutic Diets
Dietary changes dictated by health conditions or concerns.

Veganism
A diet containing no animal foods.

Vegetarianism
Choosing to avoid some or all animal foods out of personal values and convictions.

Adequate Intake (AI)
A scientific judgement on the amount of some nutrients for which a specific RDA is not known.

Absorption
The process by which nutrients pass through the cells of the intestinal track into the circulatory system.

Amino Acids
Building blocks of protein.

Antibiotics
Blood proteins required for an immune response to foreign bodies.

Antioxidants
Foods which may be responsible for improving and maintaining health by delaying the onset of many age-related diseases which prevents oxygen from destroying important substances.

Body Mass Index (BMI)
A method of determining degree of overweight that takes into consideration both weight and height.

Calorie
A measurement of heat or energy. Foods that provide energy provide calories.

Chemical Breakdown
Breakdown of food from digestive juices or enzymes.

Cholesterol
A type of fat found only in foods of animal origin.

Complementary Proteins
Two or more incomplete protein foods that, when eaten within the same day, provide essential amino acids.

Complete Proteins
Foods that contain all of the essential amino acids.

Complex Carbohydrate
A polysaccharide made up of many glucose molecules, always from plant materials.

Digestion
The process of breaking down food into nutrients.

Dietary Fiber
A polysaccharide made up of many molecules of sugar from plant materials that are not digestible by the body.

Dietary Reference Intakes
Generic term that encompass four types of reference values, estimated average requirement, recommend dietary allowance, adequate intake, and tolerable upper intake level.

Disaccharide
Simple carbohydrates containing two sugar molecules.

Diuretics
A chemical that causes the body to increase urine output.

Edema
Abnormal pooling of fluid in the tissues causing swelling.

Electrolyte
Compounds that contain both potassium and chloride. They can separate when in contact with water and are required for fluid balance in the body.

Empty Calories
Calories that provide little or no nutrient density.

Energy-Yielding Nutrients
Those nutrients that provide energy or calories to the body like carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.

Enriched
Adding the B-Vitamins and iron back into refined flour and grain products.

Enzymes
Catalysts that speed up chemical reactions and are made from protein.

Essential Amino Acids
Cannot be made in the body.

Essential Fatty Acids
Fatty acids that cannot be made by the body.

Essential Nutrients
The six categories of nutrients that we must obtain through food. Not enough of these nutrients can be made in the body.

Fluoridation
The additional of fluoride to municipal water systems.

Fortified
Foods that have one or more nutrients added.

Gastrointestinal Tract
The tubular organ from the mouth to the anus, plus the liver, pancreas, and gallbladder.

Glucose
A single sugar used for energy, sometimes called blood sugar or dextrose.

Glycogen
A stored form of starch used for quick energy by the body.

Gram
A unit of weight.

Hormones
Chemical messenger such as the thyroid hormone.

Hydrogenated
A process of adding hydrogen to oils in order to make them more solid.

Incomplete Protein
Foods that lack either the amount or type of amino acid needed for growth and maintenance of tissues.

Iron-Deficiency Anemia
A condition resulting from insufficient dietary iron intake of blood loss.

Insoluble Fiber
Outer covering (bran) of plants or fibrous inner parts that are not soluble in water.

Lipids
A category that is both fats, such as butter and shortening, but also oils, such as olive oil or canola oil.

Major Minerals
Calcium, chloride, magnesium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, and sulfur.

Mechanical Breakdown
Physical breaking down of food into smaller pieces using teeth, tongue, jaws, and the smooth muscles in the esophagus and stomach.

Metabolism
The chemical processes in a cell by which nutrients are used to support life.

Monosaccharide
Simple carbohydrates containing one sugar molecule.

Monounsaturated Fatty Acids
Fatty acids that contain one double bond and is found in food like olive oil, almonds, most hydrogenated margarines.

Mucosa
The lining of the mouth, stomach, and small intestine that contain tiny glands to produce digestive enzymes.

Nonessential Amino Acids
Able to be made by the body.

Nutrient Density
The amount of nutrients a food contains relative to its calorie (energy) content.

Obesity
Having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 or greater.

Overweight
Having a body mass index of 25 to 29.9.

Polyunsaturated Fatty Acid (PUFA)
A fatty acid that contains more than one double bond and is found in foods like corn oil, soybean oil, and soft margarine.

Protein-Calorie Malnutrition
A name for a group of diseases characterized by both protein and calorie deficiency.

Recommended Dietary Allowance
The amount of a nutrient adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy persons.

Saturated Fatty Acid
A fatty acid that is filled with hydrogen, making it solid or semi-solid at room temperature and is found in foods like butter, cream, or coconut oil.

Simple Carbohydrates
Those that are usually found in foods as a sugar and contain one or two molecules of sugar.

SoFASA
Term in the Dietary Guidelines that refers to Solid, Fats, and Added Sugars.

Soluble Fiber
Fiber that forms a gel when combined with water.

Starch
A polysaccharide made up of many molecules of sugar, plant materials that are digestible.

Tolerable Upper Intake Level
The maximum level of a daily nutrient that is considered safe.

Total Diet
The combination of foods and beverages that provide energy and nutrients and constitute an individual’s complete dietary intake.

Trace Minerals
Minerals needed in less than 100mg daily.

Acquired Immunodeficiency Disease (AIDS)
HIV virus that affects the body’s ability to fight infection.

Alzheimer’s Disease
Form of dementia associated with aging, marked by loss of cognitive ability.

Alternative Medince
Using an unconventional medicinal practice in place of convention medicine.

Anaphylaxis
Rapid onset of a life threatening allergic reaction causing swelling of the throat, difficulty breathing, and loss of consciousness.

Ascites
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen.

Atherosclerosis
When plaque builds up in the arteries.

Benign
A tumor that is not likely to spread.

Blood Glucose
Laboratory test to determine the amount of glucose in the blood.

BRAT Diet
Medical nutrition therapy to treat nausea, vomiting, and sometimes allergies. Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, and Toast. Used to help stomach rest.

CAM
Complementary and Alternative Medicine.

Cancer
When cells grow at an unrestricted rate or there is excessive multiplication of cells.

Cancer Cachexia
Extreme weight loss or body wasting that may not be reversed.

Carbohydrate Counting
Newer approach an option to the exchange lists. Offers the person with diabetes greater flexibility in selection of meal choices.

Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)
General term that refers to diseases of the heart and blood vessels.

Celiac Disease
Caused by a cell-mediated hypersensitivity to gluten, the protein found in wheat, rye, and barley.

Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA)
A stroke. When blood vessels bringing oxygen to the brain bursts or becomes clogged.

Chronic Diseases
Degenerative diseases of body organs due in part to diet.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
A group of lung diseases that included chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and asthmatic.

CMS
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

Complementary Medicine
Using an unconventional medical practice in addition to conventional medicine.

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
Inability of the heart to effectively pump blood to the body’s organs – can be due to coronary artery disease.

Constipation
Passage of small amounts of hard, dry, bowel movements – usually fewer than three times a week.

Conventional Medicine
Medicine practiced by physicians as well as allied health professionals.

Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)
Coronary arteries which supply blood to the heart are clogged with atherosclerotic deposits.

DASH Diet
Dietary Approach to Stop Hypertension and is designed to treat hypertension.

Decubitus Ulcers, Pressure Sores, and Pressure Ulcers
Lesions or bed-sores caused by pressure.

Dental Caries
Tooth decay.

Diabetes Mellitus
A metabolic disorder marked by high levels of blood glucose resulting from defects in insulin production, insulin action, or both.

Diastolic Pressure
The bottom number of the denominator of the blood pressure reading.

Dietary Supplement
A product intended to supplement the diet.

Diverticulitis
The inflammation of the pouches created by diverticulosis.

Diverticulosis
Disease in which the intestinal walls become weakened and bulged with small pockets.

Drug-Nutrient Interaction
Can lead to nutrient malabsorption or the drug not working effectively.

Dysphagia Diet
Diet to prevent complications from difficulties swallowing.

Exchange Lists
A system that classifies foods into groups according to how much carbohydrate, protein, or fat they contain – used to assist in the management of diabetes mellitus.

Fasting Blood Glucose
Laboratory test to determine the glucose concentration in the blood – used as a screening tool for diabetes mellitus.

Food Allergies
An immune response to dietary protein.

Food Intolerance
Does not produce an immune response, but may not be tolerated for various reasons such as lactose intolerance where one cannot digest milk, sugar, or lactose.

Gastric Bypass
Surgery to reduce the size of the stomach in order to facilitate weight loss.

Gastritis
Inflammation of the stomach lining.

Gastroparesis
Stomach paralysis.

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
Medical term for acid indigestion or heartburn.

Glycemic Index
Measure of how quickly a certain food affects blood sugar after eating.

Glycosuria
Glucose or sugar in the urine.

Glycosylated Hemoglobin
Laboratory test that reflects the average blood glucose level for the past 2-3 months.

Hepatic
Referring to the liver.

High-Density Lipoprotein
The lipoprotein that carries cholesterol away from body organs to the liver – the “healthy” cholesterol.

Hyperglycemia
High blood sugar.

Hypertension
Medical condition involving chronic high blood pressure.

Hypoglycemia
Low blood sugar.

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)
A disease that can cause ulceration of the mucosa lining in both the large and small intestine.

Insulin
A hormone injected into someone with diabetes in order to manage the disease.

Integrative Medicine
Combines conventional medical practices with CAM practices.

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Common disorder that affects the large intestine that can cause abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, and diarrhea.

Jaundice
Yellowing of the skin associated with liver disease.

Low-Density Lipoproteins
The lipoprotein that carries most of the cholesterol in the blood also known as the “lousy” cholesterol.

Malignant
A tumor that is likely to spread.

Medical Nutrition Therapy
Nutritional assessment and treatment for patients with an illness, disease related condition, or injury in order to benefit the patient’s own health.

Balance Sheet
A statement of the facility’s assets, liabilities, and new assets.

Branded Menu Item
Using a nationally recognized brand in your foodservice operation.

Safety Self-Audit
An audit inspection that helps you remember everything you need to keep in mind when you are examining your operation for risks.

Standardized Recipe
A recipe that contains detailed specifications and has been adapted and tested in your own operation.

Temperature Log
Record established for equipment where maintaining temperature is critical.

Ultra-Pasturized
Heated to a higher temperature than typical pasteurization for a shorter period of time.

Ultra-High-Pasturized
Heated to a temperature to kill all bacteria and are shelf-stable for up to three months.

Unit Cost
Total cost divided by number of serving per package.

Work-Related Injury
Injury that occurs at work as a result of work that results in days away from work, restricted, work activity, medical treatment, or loss of consciousness or death.

Work Simplification
Simplifying a task so that it is performed as efficiently as possible.

Yield
The number of servings from a given portion size identified as a standardized recipe.

Yield Percentage
Edible portion weight divided by the purchased weight.

A client weighs 162 pounds today. One month ago, the client weighed 174 pounds. The percent of weight change is:
7%

The section of the minimum data set (MDS) that contains the most nutrition information is designated as:
section K

Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask when taking a diet history?
When do you usually eat

Which of the following instruments would not be used for a diet history?
caliper

The nutrition screening indicators are often categorized as A B C D. What does the D represent?
Diet history

A decreased intake of 250 to 300 calories per day may result in a loss of approximately one pound of body fat within how many days?
12 days

If a diet provides 36 grams of fat and a total of 1800 calories, the percentage of calories form fat is:
18%

How many milliliters of juice are equivalent to 1/2 cup?
120

The purpose of the certified dietary manager’s role in care planning is not to?
Monitor the clients daily weight

The best menu change for a client on a low-sodium (Na) diet would be:
substitute roast beef for baked ham

A client who is diagnosed with diverticulitis should avoid which of the following foods?
Bran flakes

The initial diet order is located in what section of the clients medical chart?
Physicians orders

What is the first step to take when a client requests a food not on their diet?
Meet with the client to review their diet

How would a two gram sodium diet appear on a diet order?
2 gr NA

A malnutrition problem may be suggested if what percent of weight loss occurs in one month?
5%

Which of the following is an appropriate diet change for a client with low hemoglobin level and low hematocrit value?
add a fortified cereal

Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for a goal that states, client will increase weight by a least five pounds within 90 days?
supplement as ordered

When a food shortage occurs, substitutes offered should be of a similar:
nutritive value

If a client does not select enough food from the selective menu, what should the CDM do?
encourage the client to add a choice

A client with diabetes who is about to be discharged from the hospital should be given a copy of:
the diet history

The CDM is preparing for an inservice about changes in cardiac diets. What organization would provide the best information?
American Heart Association

When planning a diet instruction, the CDM should first:
Review the diet history

What is the most important teaching material the CDM can provide to an english speaking chinese client on a diabetic diet based on exchange lists?
A meal pattern with appropriate food preferences

What recommendation would be given to a client about to go home whose food preferences are fast foods?
Help the client choose healthy foods from a fast food menu

The CDM learns that several clients have refused to eat the meatloaf served for dinner. The manager should first:
send the clients a substitute for the meatloaf

A foodservice delivery system where meals are rethermalized and served from galleys throughout the facility is called:
decentralized

The CDM notices that there are many large servings on the trayline. The managers first concern should be:
they may run out of food before the end of trayline

The CDM noticed that 10 am nourishments sent up to the floor are not passed to the clients. Whom should the manager consult first about this problem?
the director of nursing

A nutritional food supplement should be offered to a client who:
has a significant weight loss

Which of the following statements best characterizes continuous quality improvement?
the clients should be monitored for weight gain

During a survey, which of the following quality concerns would most likely affect foodservice?
prevalence of weight loss

A client routinely refuses to drink milk. What would the CDM do first?
talk with the client to find an acceptable alternative

When is the best time to administer a food acceptance survey?
during meal times

What should the CDM do to prevent excessive write ins on the selected menu?
provide a ist of acceptable write ins on the menu

Which of the following would be the most appropriate resource for modifying a standard menu to a low fat diabetic menu?
the facility diet manual

An employee requests a day off far in advance. Another employee requests the same day off at the last minute. The best way to handle this situation is to:
adhere to your policy of first come, first serve for days off

The facility is adding a convenience store for staff and client families that will be managed by foodservice. It will be open for 9 to 9. Which of the following should be considered when developing the schedule?
use part time staff for short shifts in the evening

What is the first priority when scheduling staff?
schedule staff to fit work needs

The department director has told the CDM that overtime must be reduced. The department is short three FTE. The best immediate plan of action is to:
discuss the options with the staff

What is a job analysis?
breaking down a complex job into individual tasks by day

Which of the following questions is legal to ask when interviewing a prospective employee?
are you 18 years or older?

When interviewing a candidate, what percentage of time should you talk; what percentage of time should you listen?
talks 25%, listen 75%

What does FMLA guarantee?
employers must provide up to 12 weeks of leave to qualified persons

A CDM overhears two cooks arguing about the mixer they both need for the preparation of items for the same meal. The best way to avoid this problem in the future is to:
revise the menu based on available equipment

Two employees create a disturbance on the trayline by arguing about the food. The CDM should:
confront both employee immediately after trayline

An employee wear nail polish to work, knowing it is against policy. The CDM should:
instruct the employee to remove the nail polish immediately

A long term employee repeatedly ignores direction from a new supervisor. This problem is most likely due to:
poor communication between the two

What effective meeting technique would be used to discuss a mandatory reduction in staff hours?
brainstorm ideas for solving the problem

What type of meeting requires an attendance roster?
training

What is the best way to explain a change in a special meal coming up at the end of the week?
hold a production meeting

The most appropriate way to orient a new employee to departmental procedures is to:
schedule orientation in small chunks

Which of the following could be used to justify the cost of a piece of equipment?
increased cost over a specified period of time

A daycare center in the facility requires assurance of food safety. The CDM should:
summarize in a memo the facilitys safe food handling policies

The CDM has set a goal of improving communication. Which of the following should be the first priority?
determine what area of communication needs improvement

Which of the following is typical of a committee?
members of a committee work together to oversee specialized activities

The CDM completes a nutrition progress note for a client who has congestive heart failure, an elevated BUN level, and pitting edema in the lower extremities. When the physician orders a regular diet, the CDM should:
consult the dietitian about the diet concerns

Which of the following healthcare team members would assess the need for special and adaptive eating devices?
occupational therapist

How soon after the care area assessment (CAA) must a care plan be developed?
7 days

How often must the care plan be updated?
quarterly and whenever the clients condition changes

What is the role of the CDM during a regulatory survey?
liaison and communicator

What is the best way to prepare staff for a survey?
schedule monthly meetings where survey concerns are part of each agenda

When receiving a food shipment, the CDM should only accept poultry that has been:
inspected by the USDA

During receiving, the CDM discovers the fresh roast beef is 45 degrees. What should the manager do?
refuse the delivery from the driver and get credit for it

The most appropriate way to prevent cross contamination while storing raw meat is to:
store at the lowest point below ready to eat food

When should a U H T (ultra high temp) packaged product be held under strict cold temperature control?
after opening

How should raw meats be stored?
Below ready to eat foods

What is the first step in the procedure to check in a meat order?
compare the grade to the purchase specifications

Ground beef has been cooked and cooled for the taco salad. How should the CDM handle serving the ground beef on a self serve bar?
place small amounts at a time in pre cooled insulated containers

Which of the following is an example of an appropriate critical limit?
chill the tuna for 24 hours before making the salad. Once the salad is prepared, chill the salad to 41 degrees with in four hours

Which of the following is considered to be an example of a potential biological hazard?
a cook sneezes while preparing fresh fruit plates

Which of the following would be a potential cause of foodborne illness?
combining leftover cooked eggs with freshly cooked eggs on a salad bar

The best way to prevent shigellosis is to:
use proper hand washing procedures

A specification sheet for a new slicer should include information about the:
safety features required

Which of the following would most likely result in cross connection?
a hose screwed on to a faucet without a backflow prevention device.

During orientation for a new dishroom employee, the CDM explains that the most important aspect of the employee’s responsibility is to ensure that the:
health of everyone is protected

Which of the following is a basic rule to prevent pest infestation?
eliminating sources of food and water

What type of cleaner is best to remove lime form dishwashers or coffee urns?
Acid cleaners

A cost effective equipment maintenance program is based upon:
preventative maintenance

What is the primary reason for choosing one piece of equipment over another?
capacity fits the menu

When purchasing new equipment, a CDM should consider the cleanability of equipment surfaces and materials to determine whether they:
are easy to clean

An employee gets oven cleaner on their hands. The material safety data sheet for the cleaner will provide information that will help the employee determine:
what exposure hazards exist

The best way for the CDM to ensure that employees know how to use foodservice chemicals is to:
train the employees on an ongoing basis

What is the purpose of a production schedule?
explains what and how much food to produce

Where should hand washing sinks be located?
in convenient locations in the kitchen

Which of the following represents the principles of ergonomics?
adjusting the work table height for employees

What is the recipe conversion factor to increase a recipe from 8 servings to 40 servings?
5

You need 896 ounces of coffee each morning for the trayline. How many gallons do you need?
7

What does it mean to standardize a recipe?
will produce a known quality and quantity in a facility operation

When testing a new recipe, which of the following is good practice?
using a recipe evaluation for food and labor costs

The quality of a standardized recipe item varies each time it is prepared. The CDM should:
supervise the preparati0n of the recipe

Which of the following descriptions would be an appropriate quality standard for quick bread?
Golden brown, slightly rounded, no tunnels, moist crumb, tender, good flavor

What is the best reason to document leftovers?
to determine future forecasting needs

When preparing tuna salad, what is the first production step?
pre chill the canned tuna

What type of inventory is usually done at the end of a month or period of time?
physical

How many cases of canned peaches should be ordered if the maximum quantity is 6 cases, the minimum is 4 cases, the lead time is 3 days, the usage is one case per day, and there are 5 cases on hand?
2 cases

How are partial order deliveries handled?
request a credit memo

Purchase specifications for meat most likely would include information about?
price

Which of the following is the best method for counting cash at the end of shift?
have two people present to verify each other’s work

Two cashiers share a cash drawer. There has been a discrepancy the past week at the end of shift. What should the CDM do?
give each cashier their own drawer

The first step in establishing a take home meal program for staff and surrounding neighborhoods is to:
develop a business plan

When preparing a proposal for new equipment, a CDM should first:
check with maintenance regarding space and power needs

How can just in time purchasing help the manager control costs?
by limiting excess inventory

Ground beef, available only in 10 pound units, is needed to prepare chili for 120 clients. The serving size is about 4 ounces and shrinkage is expected to be 1 1/2 ounce per serving. How many pounds of ground beef should be ordered?
50 pounds

A prime vendor provides 75% of the foodservice products. What products would best be purchased outside of the prime vendor contract?
fresh produce

A budget report indicates a total of 164,250 meals served per year and 37,674 labor hours expended. What is the average number of meals per labor hour?
4.36

The CDM notices an increase in costs over the past two months, especially an increase in meat. Which of the following might be the cause of this increase?
the price for meat are not part of the prime vendor agreement

Which of the following has the biggest potential impact on food cost?
a cook who over portions

A foodservice employee earns $10 per hour and works three hours overtime in a pay period. Hw much additional pay would the employee receive if overtime were considered time and half?
$45

standardized recipes list ingredients, yields, portion size, and instructions how to prepare. what else is important to include in standardized recipe?
Time and temperature controls

The certified dietary manager has a policy in place that states that the temperature of food is to be taken at certain times. How can the CDM be sure this is being done?
Check the temperature log routinely and often.

How would the CDM verify that the temperatures are correct and haven’t been dry labbed?
Take the temperature themselves and compare to to the temperature on the long.

The CDM notices that meatloaf is being served below 135 degrees. What is the next step?
Have the cook reheat the meatloaf to 165 for 15 seconds.

The main purpose of forecasting is to determine
how much food is produced

which of the following is required for forecasting?
the current census

The foodservice department historically has invited the clients family on Thanksgiving Day to eat with their client. The CDM will be ordering turkeys before final reservations are complete. What would they do?
Look at previous years data and the current census forecast

The upcoming menu has a choice of meatloaf or fried chicken. The CDM reviews tallies from the last time this menu was served and notices that they ran out of chicken before the service was done. What would the CDM do with this menu information?
Produce more fried chicken and cut back on meatloaf

A computerized menu system is very helpful in determining which of the following
Tally figures for each menu item served

point of sale records can help the CDM determine
Which menu items are the most profitable

The CDM is projecting to serve 18 clients on a mechanical soft diet, 30 clients on the regular diet, and 42 staff. Macaroni and cheese is the standard choice for both diets and the staff. How many servings of macaroni and cheese should the CDM forecast?
95

Macaroni and cheese is made in 25 serving pan. Looking at the forecast (101) how many pans should be made
4

The term “advance preparation” means
Any preparation that must be completed before the main product takes place.

which of the following is an advanced preparation
baking and deboning chicken the day before making chicken salad.

what is a production schedule?
a schedule of what produce, how much produce, and who is to do it.

which figure is most important to document after each meal for forecasting?
how much waste there was or if there was a shortage

production staff can bear be helped if the CDM:
is accessible to staff and highly visible

to save energy immediately:
fix leaks in water lines

to determine which energy could be saved, the CDM could:
ask the local utility company to do an energy audit

a roux is
equal weight of fat and flour used as a thickening agent

what type of malnutrition is commonly seen today?
protein and calorie malnutrition

enteral nutrition requires
The gastrointestinal tract is functioning

an important factor to consider when determining what special nourishments to supplement meal with is:
tolerance of lactose

it is often visible to use conventional food supplement because
conventional foods are more readily accepted

to have the best acceptance of nutrition supplements, it is important that the supplement be
delivered at the best possible time and temperature

A client needs to have a supplement source of protein. what would be an inexpensive way to provide the extra protein?
add nonfat dried milk to mashed potatoes, soups, and deserts

providing a client their favorite foods with a meal as a supplement often works for those who are not consuming 25% of the mail mainly because
clients will usually eat foods that are well liked

The client has a right to refuse a tube feeding or additional supplements. when this happens the facility must
work with the client to determine pertinent alternatives

The CDM notices during auditing of meals that the supplements were not consumed. The certified dietary manager would first:
Meet with the clients who receive the supplements to asl why they did not consume the supplement.

When considering the use of supplements prepared by the foodservice department, it is most important to consider the time it will take to prepare and:
if the cook has the ability and knowledge to prepare the supplements

Parental nutrition is given to clients:
who have a non-functioning gastrointestinal tract

quality care is focused on
The process the facility used to measure satisfaction of clients

quality assessment is defined as
the outcomes of a process to determine if a defined standard quality is being achieved

Quality indicators
measure over time the outcomes and performance of an organization

Quality Assurance processes are
proactive and continues

using the acronym FOCUS to implement a quality of assessment will
help the facility select process to improve

the statement that a client will be seen by someone from foodservice within 24 hours of admission of the facility is an example of:
quality standard

The main reason for establishing quality standards is
measure effectiveness of procedures

What is the first step the CDM manager should take to manage quality?
establish objectives

what should be done next after specific quality outcomes have been identified?
communicate standards throughout training

During meal service the CDM receives complains regarding the quality of the soup being served. What should the CDM do?
immediately ask the cook to sample soup with you

quality standards for foodservice programs in healthcare come from which agency?
CMS (centers for medicare and medicaid services)

quality standards for nutrition programs in public schools cone from which agency?
USDA (United States department of agriculture)

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