A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child’s mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occurred. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should:
administer 15 g of activated charcoal.
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a _ tag during a mass-casualty incident
yellow
An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
requires CPR
Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should:
Provide emotional support to the mother
Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as:
knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.
Both areas of the pons are sued to:
augment respiration during physical or emotional stress
A transient ischemia attack (TIA) occurs when:
a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.
A decrease in blood pressure may indicate:
a loss of vascular tone
Ketone production is the result of:
fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the:
dermal layer
A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:
avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed:
100 beats/min
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT:
giving a verbal report to the clerk
Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Fructose
As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:
alveoli
Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following EXCEPT:
pain exacerbated by breathing
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):
increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT:
discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include:
headache and sore throat
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
gallbladder
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:
administering oxygen and transporting immediately
A 22 year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:
provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
A 37 year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient’s car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of:
asthma
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to TB
Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:
attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage the situation?
Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance.
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:
falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.
A 29 year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. HIs Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:
13
A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients?
Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:
another EMT
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should:
gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
All of the following biological agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT:
ricin
A 23 year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretion in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilations.
A 38 year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should:
begin CPT and apply the AED.
A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he:
is experiencing difficulty breathing.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:
urinary bladder.
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:
AEMT
It would be MOST appropriate from a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing:
chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest.
Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of:
toxic chemical inhalation
Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated exclusively by the:
somatic nervous system
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
respirations increase in rate and depth
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
the driver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
a cardiac dysrhythmia
A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding?
apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure
A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to of to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:
assess whether the patient’s mental condition is impaired.
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions
You are transporting a 33 year-old male who has involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
A functional disorder is a:
physiological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality.
Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include:
lung tissue injury and gastric distention.
A 74 year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4 mg tablets) before you arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should:
recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modifications of the dosing of certain drugs.
A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:
repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
after administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to:
be alert for vomiting
If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she:
is in shock
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
prevents the aggregation of platelets
A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare
A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:
diaphoretic
An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:
apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device
A 17 year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As you partner is applying oxygen you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should:
apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment
A strangulated hernia is one that:
loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
A critical function of the safety officer is to:
stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:
monitor her closely but recall that anxiery and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine
Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when:
normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms
A 39 year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:
close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.
General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:
using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of _ of oxygen.
500 L
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
Covering a patient’s _ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
head
Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a narcotic overdose
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:
adequate air exchange.
After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should
reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension.
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patents for _ hour(s) or more:
1
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:
wheezing and hypotension are present.
A 40 year-old male crashes his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:
open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
A 15 year-old male was killed when he struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child’s parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should:
advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placent previa:
may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
smallpox
Most terrorist attacks:
require multiple terrorists working together
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:
assess for a distal pulse.
Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:
tachycardia
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
check her airway for obstructions
Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because:
it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should:
locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no more than __ hours following the incident.
72
A 62 year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:
apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
A common side effect of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
hypertension
When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should:
adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.
A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is MOST likely causing his nosebleed today?
High blood pressure
Age-relating changes in the renal system result in:
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
rate and depth of breathing.
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately:
ventilate with a BVM.
A 40 year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient’s wife tells you that he has an implanted pacemaker. The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do?
Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.
During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a “no shock advised” message. This indicates that:
she is not in ventricular fibrillation.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be:
responsive to painful stimuli.
According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must:
offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure.
A 50 year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a “small stroke” 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should:
prepare for immediate transport.
Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplement oxygen be administered?
Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95%
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
A disease vector is defined as:
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter
in general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they:
are usually absorbed quickly into the body.
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.
A 40 year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
liver dysfunction
In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
inadequate patient care was administered.
According to the terminal drop hypothesis:
mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
absent peripheral pulses.
To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
A confused 55 year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
A 22 year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unconscious and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should:
open the patient’s airway and assess his respirations.
A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20 feet and is lying unresponsive on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should:
rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live.
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should:
place her in a left lateral recumbent position
_ is what you can see of a person’s response to the environment.
Behavior
The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are:
between 11 and 16 years of age.
After receiving online orders from medical control to preform a patient care intervention, you should:
repeat the order to medical control word for word.
In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by:
pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.
Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:
it ca continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
cool, clammy skin
Functions of the liver include:
secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
insert a peripheral intravenous catheter
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
increased surface area available for air exchange
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient’s airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
mouth-to-mouth mask technique with a one way valve.
Febrile seizures:
are usually benign but should be evaluated.
Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:
drowsiness
Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Chronic renal failure is a condition that:
is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:
flows into the pulmonary arteries.
Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:
fallopian tube.
Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because:
there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.
Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:
aspirin
The eyeball itself is referred to as the:
globe
Before giving activated charcoal, you should:
obtain approval from medical control.
A 25 year-old man overdosed on heroin and is unresponsive. His breathing is slow and shallow and he is bradycardia. He has track marks on both arms. The EMT should:
insert a nasal airway and ventilate with a BVM.
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior:
pesticide.
An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as __ of blood is lost.
100 mL
In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:
often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset
Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct?
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time
Fetal complications associated with drug-or alcohol- addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT:
profound tachycardia
The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure:
is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
self-supporting and lives by himself or herself.
A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who:
have delivered a baby before.
A 67 year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should:
placing her in an upright position.
A 60 year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardia. The EMT should suspect:
aortic aneurysm
In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum:
is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.
Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
decreased pumping force of the heart muscle
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience:
easier breathing.
An infant is considered to be premature if it:
weighs less than 5 Ib or is born before 36 weeks’ gestation.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:
determine if she was injured when she fainted.
Ischemic heart disease is defined as:
decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:
apply direct pressure to the wound.
_ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures.
Hydrostatic
A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or “floaters” in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced:
a detached retina
A Patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless:
there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.
Most medical models base a pregnant woman’s due date:
on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:
brain stem.
Acute coronary syndrome (ACD) is a term used to describe:
a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia
Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
patella
The cricoid cartilage:
is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
Airborne substances should be diluted with:
oxygen
A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:
a wheel
A 75 year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should:
retreat and notify law enforcement personnel
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:
slows the heart and respiratory rates
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricing include:
fever and headache
If a newborn’s heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should:
provide ventilations for 30 seconds
A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
flushed and red
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock?
Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
Botulinum is:
a potent bacterial neurotoxin
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
advanced EMT (AMET)
At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that these are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contract the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should:
use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.
All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?
brain stem
A 51 year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
administer oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask
In which of the following situations would a direct ground life be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient?
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
Abruptio placenta occurs when:
the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:
liver
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
back slaps
An infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible
If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:
reposition the patient’s airway
An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
body’s temperature is considerably less than 98.6F (37C)
A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the:
intranasal route
Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
a relatively small surface area
A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemia myocardium by:
dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon
Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because:
waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells
A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport be:
an informed refusal
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient’s wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient’s present condition is:
cardiogenic hypoperfusion
A laceration:
is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma.
Following delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine funds and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurs because:
these actions simulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction
A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first:
follow appropriate standard precautions
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produced a more severe reaction.
A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should:
ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.
An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?
Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female’s respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should:
explain to her that you will assist her ventilations.
A person’s ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below:
90F (32C)
Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles:
cut grass
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:
subcutaneous emphysema
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi
An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:
authorization from medical control has been obtained
Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when:
warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.
When assessing a conscious patient who overdosed on a drug, you should FIRST determine:
A) the patient’s weight in kg.
B) the type of medication ingested.
C) when the medication was ingested.
D) if there is a history of prior overdose.
B
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a 4-year-old child who is breathing at a rate of 54 breaths/min. What should you do?
A) Apply high-flow oxygen
B) Tag the child as immediate
C) Assess for distal pulses
D) Ventilate with a bag-mask device
B
A prolapsed umbilical cord is dangerous because the:
A) cord might pull the placenta from the uterine wall during delivery.
B) mother may die of hypoxia due to compromised placental blood flow.
C) cord may be wrapped around the baby’s neck, causing strangulation.
D) baby’s head may compress the cord, cutting off its supply of oxygen.
D
Your assessment of the newborn reveals that she has a patent airway, is breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 130 beats/min. Her face and trunk are pink, but her hands and feet are cyanotic. You have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. You should:
A) massage the lower part of the mother’s uterus until the placenta delivers.
B) give the newborn high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport.
C) reassess the newborn every 5 minutes and transport after the placenta delivers.
D) keep the newborn warm, give oxygen to the mother if needed, and transport.
D
A patient overdosed on several drugs and is unresponsive with shallow breathing and facial cyanosis. As you continue your assessment, the patient suddenly vomits. You should:
A) suction his oropharynx at once.
B) turn the patient onto his side.
C) insert an oropharyngeal airway.
D) begin assisting his ventilations.
B
A known diabetic female is found unresponsive. Her respirations are rapid and shallow; her skin is cool, clammy, and pale; and her pulse is rapid and weak. Which of the following would BEST explain the likely cause of her condition?
A) Insulin overdose
B) Excessive eating
C) High blood sugar
D) Failure to take insulin
A
A 29-year-old pregnant female complains of a severe headache, blurred vision, and swelling of her hands and feet. Which of the following additional assessment findings would the EMT MOST likely encounter?
A) Hypertension
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Abdominal pain
D) Vaginal bleeding
A
In which position would you expect a patient with severe dyspnea to be found?
A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Fowler’s
D) Lateral recumbent
C
You are caring for a man with terminal cancer when his caretaker presents you with a Physician Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) form. The purpose of this form is to:
A) advise medical providers that resuscitation is not to be attempted.
B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders.
C) enable the caretaker to make healthcare decisions on the patient’s behalf.
D) limit the treatment provided to the patient to basic life support care.
B
A 69-year-old man complains of dyspnea that began two days ago and has gotten worse. Which of the following assessments would give you the MOST information regarding the possible cause of his dyspnea?
A) Lung sounds
B) Mental status
C) Oxygen saturation
D) Pulse rate and quality
A
A 73-year-old male presents with confusion; cool, pale, clammy skin; absent radial pulses; and a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The patient’s wife tells you that he has had abdominal pain for a week and began vomiting a coffee-ground substance yesterday. His past medical history includes hypertension and gastric ulcer disease. Your MOST immediate concern should be that:
A) his blood glucose level is probably too high.
B) he is bleeding from his gastrointestinal tract.
C) he is in shock and requires prompt transport.
D) his condition requires surgery within 2 hours.
C
Which of the following is an abnormal finding?
A) Heart rate of 80 beats/min in a 3-month-old infant
B) Rapid, irregular breathing in a newly born infant
C) Systolic BP of 100 mm Hg in a 10-year-old child
D) Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min in a 2-year-old child
A
Unresponsiveness, shallow breathing, and constricted pupils are indicative of which type of drug overdose?
A) Narcotic
B) Marijuana
C) Barbiturate
D) Amphetamine
A
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause flushed skin?
A) Blood loss
B) Hypothermia
C) Exposure to heat
D) Low blood pressure
C
A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. His blood pressure is 106/58 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. Treatment for this patient should include:
A) elevation of the affected part and ice packs.
B) splinting and lowering of the affected part.
C) ice packs to the wound and splinting.
D) proximal arterial constricting band and splinting.
B
Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings?
A) Distraction
B) Subluxation
C) Axial loading
D) Hyperextension
A
Assessment of an injured man reveals that he opens his eyes when the EMT speaks to him and pulls his arm away when the EMT palpates it. He knows his name, but cannot remember what happened and does not know what day it is. He should be assigned a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of:
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
C
You are performing abdominal thrusts on a 19-year-old male with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After lowering him to the ground and placing him in a supine position, you should:
A) open his airway and look inside his mouth.
B) begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.
C) continue abdominal thrusts until ALS responders arrive.
D) assess for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds.
B
Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) respiratory failure.
C) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
D) accidental electrocution.
C
A 31-year-old man presents with uncontrolled twitching of his left arm that began shortly after he experienced an odd taste in his mouth. He denies loss of consciousness and states that this has happened to him before. What should you suspect?
A) Absence seizure
B) Generalized seizure
C) Simple partial seizure
D) Complex partial seizure
Feedback :
Seizures are classified as being generalized or partial. Generalized seizures are further classified as being tonic-clonic (formerly called grand mal) or absence (formerly called petit mal) seizures. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures result from abnormal electrical discharges from large areas of the brain, usually involving both hemispheres. They are characterized by unconsciousness and generalized severe twitching of the body’s muscles; they last several minutes or longer. Absence seizures are characterized by a brief lapse of consciousness in which the patient seems to stare and does not respond to anyone. Absence seizures do not involve any changes in motor activity. Partial (focal) seizures begin in one part of the brain and are classified as simple and complex. In a simple partial seizure, no change occurs in the patient’s level of consciousness. Patients may report numbness, weakness, or dizziness. The senses may also be involved; the patient may report visual changes and unusual smells or tastes. A simple partial seizure may also cause twitching of the extremity muscles that spreads slowly from one part of the body to another. In a complex partial seizure, the patient has an altered mental status and does not interact normally with his or her environment. This type of seizure results from abnormal discharges from the temporal lobe of the brain. Other signs may include lip smacking, eye blinking, and isolated convulsions or jerking of the body or one part of the body, such as the arm. The patient may experience unpleasant smells and visual hallucinations, exhibit uncontrollable fear, or exhibit repetitive physical behavior such as constant sitting or standing.
C
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of a fractured spinal vertebra?
A) Lack of pain at the site of the injury
B) Palpable pain at the site of the injury
C) Decreased movement on one side of the body
D) Decreased grip strength in the upper extremities
B
When treating a patient with chest pain, pressure, or discomfort, you should FIRST:
A) administer supplemental oxygen.
B) place the patient in a position of comfort.
C) request an ALS ambulance response to the scene.
D) assess the blood pressure and give nitroglycerin.
B
Upon assessing a newborn, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 80 beats/min. What should you do?
A) Initiate positive-pressure ventilations
B) Provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
C) Assess the newborn’s skin condition and color
D) Start chest compressions and contact medical control
A
Which of the following structures is the primary pacemaker, which sets the normal rate for the heart?
A) Bundle of His
B) Purkinje fibers
C) Sinoatrial node
D) Atrioventricular node
C
The coronary arteries fill with blood when the:
A) aortic valve closes.
B) left ventricle contracts.
C) aortic valve opens.
D) right ventricle contracts.
A
What type of injury occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion, resulting in swelling but no deformity?
A) Sprain
B) Strain
C) Fracture
D) Dislocation
A
Which of the following is considered a severe burn in a pediatric patient?
A) Partial thickness burns to 15% of the body surface area
B) Any full-thickness burn, regardless of body surface coverage
C) Any partial-thickness burn that involves the lower extremities
D) Superficial burns that cover 5% to 10% of the body surface area
B
Which of the following patients would MOST likely present with vague or unusual symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction?
A) 55-year-old obese female
B) 66-year-old male with angina
C) 72-year-old female with diabetes
D) 75-year-old male with hypertension
Feedback :
Not all patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction (AMI) present with the classic signs and symptoms one would expect. Middle-aged men often minimize their symptoms and attribute their chest pain or discomfort to indigestion. Some patients, however, do not experience any pain. In particular, elderly women with diabetes may present with vague, unusual, or atypical symptoms of AMI; their only presenting complaint may be fatigue or syncope. Do not rule out a cardiac problem just because a patient is not experiencing chest pain, pressure, or discomfort; this is especially true in elderly females with diabetes.
C
Internal or external bleeding would be especially severe in a patient:
A) with hemophilia.
B) who takes aspirin.
C) with heart disease.
D) who is hypotensive.
A
A 24-year-old female presents with a rash to her left leg and swollen, painful knee joints. She tells you that she and her friends returned from a hiking trip in the mountains a week ago. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 112/62 mm Hg, a pulse of 84 beats/min, and respirations of 14 breaths/min. What should you suspect?
A) Tetanus
B) Lyme disease
C) An allergic reaction
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B
A patient reports pain in the upper midabdominal area. This region of the abdomen is called the:
A) peritoneum.
B) epigastrium.
C) mediastinum.
D) retroperitoneum.
B
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute:
A) battery.
B) negligence.
C) abandonment.
D) assault.
A
Which of the following devices is contraindicated in patients with blunt thoracic trauma?
A) Oral airway
B) Nasal airway
C) Bag-valve-mask device
D) Oxygen-powered ventilator
D
Chest compression effectiveness is MOST effectively assessed by:
A) listening for a heartbeat with each compression.
B) carefully measuring the depth of each compression.
C) palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression.
D) measuring the systolic blood pressure during compressions.
C
A 57-year-old male presents with flu-like symptoms. He is conscious and alert; his skin is pink, warm, and dry; and he denies chest pain or respiratory distress. During your assessment, you cannot feel radial or carotid pulses, and are unable to obtain a blood pressure. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
A) He is in the advanced stages of shock
B) He has a left ventricular assist device
C) He has a dissecting aortic aneurysm
D) He recently had a coronary artery bypass
B
In most states, the EMT is required to report which of the following occurrences?
A) Animal bite
B) Drug overdose
C) Injury to a minor
D) Motor-vehicle crash
A
The method by which you administer supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient depends MOSTLY on the:
A) presence or absence of cyanosis.
B) patient’s level of consciousness and heart rate.
C) suspected underlying cause of the hypoxemia.
D) severity of hypoxemia and adequacy of breathing.
D
A patient is unresponsive and has sonorous breathing. This indicates:
A) vomitus in the airway.
B) upper airway swelling.
C) reduced tidal volume.
D) anatomic obstruction.
D
To obtain the MOST reliable assessment of a patient’s tidal volume, you should:
A) assess for retractions.
B) listen for airway noises.
C) count the respiratory rate.
D) look at the rise of the chest.
D
Which of the following structures stimulates the ventricles and causes them to contract?
A) Sinus node
B) Sinoatrial node
C) Purkinje fibers
D) Atrioventricular node
C
In which of the following circumstances would external bleeding be the LEAST difficult to control?
A) Lacerated brachial artery; BP of 140/90 mm Hg
B) Lacerated jugular vein; BP of 100/60 mm Hg
C) Lacerated carotid artery; BP of 90/50 mm Hg
D) Lacerated femoral vein; BP of 70/40 mm Hg
D
A 29-year-old man with abdominal pain tells the EMT that he has hemophilia A. This means that:
A) his red blood cells break down rapidly.
B) he will lose blood at a much faster rate.
C) his risk for a pulmonary embolism is high.
D) he will bleed for a longer period of time.
D
The chest pain associated with an acute coronary syndrome is often described as:
A) sharp.
B) stabbing.
C) pressure.
D) cramping.
C
A young woman reports significant weight loss over the last month, persistent fever, and night sweats. When you assess her, you note the presence of dark purple lesions covering her trunk and upper extremities. You should suspect:
A) HIV infection.
B) tuberculosis.
C) rheumatic fever.
D) end-stage cancer.
A
A 7-year-old child has an altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash. You perform your assessment and administer supplemental oxygen. En route to the hospital, you should be MOST alert for:
A) hypotension.
B) convulsions.
C) combativeness.
D) respiratory distress.
B
Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is correct?
A) HEPA respirator should be placed on any patient with tuberculosis.
B) Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
C) A surgical mask provides better protection against tuberculosis than a HEPA respirator.
D) A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is coughing.
B
To ensure you deliver the highest concentration of oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask, you should:
A) set the flow rate to at least 10 to 12 L/min.
B) securely fasten the mask to the patient’s face.
C) make sure that the reservoir bag is preinflated.
D) cover the one-way valves on the oxygen mask.
C
A 30-year-old man sustained partial-thickness burns to the anterior chest and both anterior arms. Based on the Rule of Nines, what percentage of his body surface area has been burned?
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 27%
D) 36%
B
A 44-year-old male complains of dizziness and lightheadedness. His BP is 88/62 mm Hg; his heart rate is 190 beats/min and weak; and his skin is cool, clammy, and pale. Which of the following would BEST explain why his BP is low?
A) Widespread systemic vasoconstriction
B) Decreased ventricular filling time
C) Increased ventricular stroke volume
D) Decreased myocardial oxygen demand
B
Which of the following signs or symptoms would you MOST likely encounter in a patient with an inflamed gallbladder?
A) Vomiting dark red blood
B) Pain in the right shoulder
C) Bruising around the umbilicus
D) Pain to the right lower quadrant
B
Assessment of a 40-year-old patient reveals respiratory distress, tachycardia, audible expiratory wheezing, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The EMT should suspect:
A) fluid in the lower airways.
B) diffuse bronchoconstriction.
C) swelling in the laryngeal area.
D) infection of the lower airway.
B
The bite of a brown recluse spider is characterized by:
A) immediate pain, swelling at the site, and painful muscle spasms.
B) delayed onset of pain, swelling, and blister formation at the site.
C) two small puncture marks, swelling, and delayed onset of pain.
D) rapid swelling within 30 minutes and a decline in mental status.
B
With regard to the ECG, what is artifact?
A) significant abnormality discovered by the paramedic
B) The complete absence of electrical activity on the ECG
C) Electrical interference that can make diagnosis difficult
D) Improper lead placement, resulting in misdiagnosis
C
A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension began experiencing chest pressure while mowing his lawn. After taking a baby aspirin and resting for approximately 10 minutes, the pressure in his chest completely resolved. Which of the following would BEST explain this?
A) The patient’s blood pressure increased after he ceased exertion, causing his chest pressure to resolve
B) The cessation of exertion decreased the workload of the heart and blood flow around a coronary clot improved
C) The aspirin dissolved a small clot in a coronary artery and reestablished blood flow to that part of the heart
D) Blood flow to a part of the myocardium was restored because of constriction of a diseased coronary artery
B
A 42-year-old man has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. He is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
A) carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and begin CPR.
B) carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and apply the AED.
C) secure the knife in place with a bulky dressing and transport immediately.
D) stabilize the knife with bulky dressings, begin CPR, and transport at once.
A
Which of the following statements regarding the AED is correct?
A) The AED should be applied to patients at risk for cardiac arrest.
B) AEDs will analyze the patient’s rhythm while CPR is in progress.
C) The AED should not be used in patients with an implanted defibrillator.
D) AEDs can safely be used in infants and children less than 8 years of age.
D
A 9-month-old infant presents with a cough, runny nose, and respiratory distress. A whoop sound is heard during inhalation. What should you suspect?
A) Croup
B) Pertussis
C) Bronchiolitis
D) Pneumonia
B
You should suspect that your patient has pulmonary edema if he or she:
A) has swollen feet and ankles.
B) cannot breathe while lying down.
C) is hypertensive and tachycardic.
D) has a dry, nonproductive cough.
B
Which of the following signs is LEAST suggestive of a diabetic emergency?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Combativeness
D) Fruity breath odor
A
A 72-year-old female complains of dyspnea that woke her from her sleep. Her feet and ankles are swollen, and auscultation of her lungs reveals crackles to both lung bases. She has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes, and a heart attack 2 years ago. Her BP is 170/94 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored, and her oxygen saturation is 85% on room air. What should you suspect?
A) Acute asthma attack
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Acute hypertensive crisis
D) Emphysema exacerbation
B
If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries during the:
A) first collision.
B) second collision.
C) third collision.
D) fourth collision.
C
The MOST obvious way to reduce heat loss from radiation and convection is to:
A) move away from a cold object.
B) wear a thick wind-proof jacket.
C) move to a warmer environment.
D) increase metabolism by shivering.
C
A 40-year-old man is conscious, but has an increased rate of breathing. You should:
A) apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
B) immediately insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
C) assess the regularity and quality of breathing.
D) ventilate him with a bag-mask device.
C
Which of the following would MOST likely occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?
A) Vertex presentation
B) Prolapsed umbilical cord
C) Maternal hypertension
D) Premature rupture of the amniotic sac
B
A patient who overdosed on an opioid would be expected to present with:
A) tachycardia.
B) dilated pupils.
C) bradypnea.
D) hyperpnea.
C
What occurs during recoil of the chest in between compressions?
A) Positive pressure accumulates in the thoracic cavity
B) A vacuum is created and blood returns to the heart
C) Excessive amounts of air are expelled from the lungs
D) Forward flow of blood moves to the body’s vital organs
B
Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis?
A) Cool, clammy skin and a slow onset
B) Cool, clammy skin and a rapid onset
C) Warm, dry skin and a slow onset
D) Warm, dry skin and a rapid onset
C
Which of the following describes pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
A) disorganized, chaotic quivering of the heart muscle that does not generate a pulse
B) The presence of a palpable pulse in the absence of any electrical activity in the heart
C) A rapid cardiac rhythm that does not produce a pulse, but responds to defibrillation
D) Any organized cardiac rhythm, slow or fast, that does not produce a palpable pulse
D
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt facial trauma, you note the presence of a hyphema. This indicates:
A) a fracture of the nasal bone.
B) an orbital blowout fracture.
C) direct trauma to the eyeball.
D) that the pupils are unequal.
C
If the EMT could initially only take two pieces of equipment to the side of a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following should he or she select?
A) AED and suction device
B) AED and oxygen cylinder
C) Pocket mask and oxygen cylinder
D) Bag-valve-mask and suction devices
A
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a rapid drop in a patient’s blood glucose level?
A) Mild exertion after eating a meal
B) Eating a meal after taking insulin
C) Taking too much prescribed insulin
D) Forgetting to take prescribed insulin
C
Your partner is ventilating an apneic woman at a rate of 24 breaths/min while you reassess her vital signs. You notice that her systolic BP has decreased by 20 mm Hg and her heart rate has increased by 25 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these vital sign changes?
A) The patient is being ventilated to fast
B) The patient is in a supine position
C) The patient overdosed on cocaine
D) The patient has an intracranial hemorrhage
A
Snoring respirations in an unresponsive patient are MOST often the result of:
A) foreign body airway obstruction.
B) upper airway obstruction by the tongue.
C) collapse of the trachea during breathing.
D) swelling of the upper airway structures.
B
Which of the following conditions would place the patient at greatest risk for complications after receiving epinephrine?
A) Asthma
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypovolemia
D) Heart disease
D
Prior to being reoxygenated in the lungs, blood passes through the:
A) mitral and tricuspid valves.
B) aortic and tricuspid valves.
C) aortic and pulmonic valves.
D) tricuspid and pulmonic valves.
D
man was struck in the side of the head with a steel pipe. Blood-tinged fluid is draining from the ear and bruising appears behind the ear. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
A) elevating the lower extremities and providing immediate transport.
B) applying high-flow oxygen and packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.
C) controlling the drainage from the ear and immobilizing the entire spine.
D) immobilizing the spine, administering oxygen, and monitoring for vomiting.
D
A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant complains of a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, which she describes as a tearing sensation, and vaginal bleeding. Her medical history includes hypertension and she admits to using cocaine. Which of the following should you suspect?
A) The umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby’s neck
B) The placenta has implanted over the cervical opening
C) Excessive fetal movement has torn the amniotic sac
D) The placenta has detached from the wall of the uterus
D
A 30-year-old woman overdosed on pain pills and is unresponsive. She is breathing at a rate of 6 breaths/min with shallow depth. Left untreated, she will develop:
A) hypocarbia and acidosis.
B) hypercarbia and alkalosis.
C) hypocarbia and alkalosis.
D) hypercarbia and acidosis.
D
Which of the following patients obviously needs positive-pressure ventilation assistance?
A) Combative; respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and deep
B) Semiconscious; respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min and good chest rise
C) Restless; respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume
D) Responsive to pain only; respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and shallow
D
A 60-year-old male complains of a sudden tearing sensation in his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 148/88 mm Hg, a pulse of 120 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min. You should:
A) auscultate over his epigastrium to assess for bowel sounds.
B) vigorously palpate his abdomen to assess for a pulsating mass.
C) transport at once and be prepared to treat him for severe shock.
D) perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment and prepare for transport.
C
Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. You should:
A) immediately resuction its mouth and nose.
B) begin ventilations with a bag-valve-mask.
C) gently flick the soles of its feet for up to 60 seconds.
D) start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min.
B
You are called to treat a 55-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of:
A) actual consent.
B) informed consent.
C) implied consent.
D) formal consent.
A
In which position should you place an uninjured, unresponsive patient with a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min and adequate tidal volume?
A) Supine
B) Full Fowler’s
C) Semi-Fowler’s
D) Lateral recumbent
D
The EMT is auscultating an adult patient’s breath sounds after the paramedic has inserted an endotracheal (ET) tube. Which of the following would indicate that the ET tube was advanced too far into the trachea?
A) Absent breath sounds over the left chest.
B) A gurgling sound over the epigastric region.
C) Crackles over the lower lobe of the left lung.
D) Weak breath sounds over the right lung apex.
A
Hypoxia-induced unresponsiveness during a submersion injury is usually the result of:
A) laryngospasm.
B) water in the lungs.
C) a cardiac dysrhythmia.
D) associated hypothermia.
A
A patient with a chest injury has a BP of 100/70 mm Hg and a heart rate of 100 beats/min. Reassessment reveals a BP of 90/74 mm Hg, a pulse of 120 beats/min, and the development of jugular venous distention. What should you suspect?
A) Massive hemothorax
B) Simple pneumothorax
C) Pericardial tamponade
D) Traumatic aortic rupture
C
Prevention of cardiac arrest in infants and small children should focus primarily on:
A) keeping the child warm.
B) avoiding upsetting the child.
C) providing immediate transport.
D) ensuring adequate ventilation.
D
An unresponsive patient has an end-tidal carbon dioxide level of 70 mm Hg. From this, you should conclude that the patient is:
A) hypercarbic and breathing adequately.
B) hypocarbic and breathing adequately.
C) hypercarbic and breathing inadequately.
D) hypocarbic and breathing inadequately.
C
Which of the following clinical findings is MOST indicative of a skull fracture?
A) Non-reactive pupils
B) Blood in the ear canal
C) Decorticate posturing
D) Increased blood pressure
B
Which of the following is the MOST significant finding in a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A) Hoarseness
B) Headache
C) Abdominal cramps
D) Widespread rash
A
A 65-year-old woman complains of severe chest pain that radiates to her back, in between her shoulder blades. She tells you that this is the most severe pain that she has ever experienced, and that it has been intense since it began. Her past medical history includes hypertension. When you palpate her radial pulses, you note that they are unequal in strength. What should you suspect?
A) Acute aortic dissection
B) Unstable angina pectoris
C) Acute hypertensive crisis
D) Acute myocardial infarction
A
Switching compressors during two-rescuer CPR:
A) should take no more than 15 seconds to accomplish.
B) should occur every 2 minutes throughout the arrest.
C) is necessary only if the compressor becomes fatigued.
D) is performed after every 10 to 20 cycles of adult CPR.
B
A man was stabbed in the right side of the chest, lateral to the nipple. He is tachypneic, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. His jugular veins are collapsed and breath sounds are difficult to hear on the right side. You should suspect a:
A) hemothorax.
B) ruptured spleen.
C) liver laceration.
D) pneumothorax.
A
Following blunt force trauma to the anterior chest, a man presents with difficulty breathing, distended jugular veins, absent breath sounds over the left side of the chest, and hypotension. Which of the following BEST describes the pathophysiology of this patient’s injury?
A) Increased pressure in the pleural space is compressing the great vessels
B) Blood is filling the pleural space and is collapsing the lung on the left side
C) Blood is filling the pericardial sac and is restricting cardiac relaxation
D) The aorta has been injured and blood is rapidly filling the thoracic cavity
A
At the end of ventricular relaxation, the left ventricle contains 110 mL of blood. This is referred to as the:
A) preload.
B) afterload.
C) stroke volume.
D) cardiac output.
A
Of the following, the MOST detrimental effect of gastric distention in infants and children is:
A) tracheal rupture.
B) decreased ventilatory volume.
C) acute rupture of the diaphragm.
D) less effective chest compressions.
B
You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody sputum and has an oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear coarse crackles in all lung fields. This patient MOST likely has:
A) congestive heart failure.
B) acute-onset emphysema.
C) decompensated asthma.
D) severe bacterial pneumonia.
A
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a reduction in tidal volume?
A) Flaring of the nostrils
B) Accessory muscle use
C) Unequal chest expansion
D) Increased minute volume
C
A woman is 30 weeks pregnant. During your assessment, she tells you that she delivered a stillborn baby at 38 weeks and currently has no living children. How should you document her obstetric history?
A) Gravida 1; para 1
B) Gravida 2; para 1
C) Gravida 1; para 2
D) Gravida 2; para 2
D
A man was stabbed in the lower right ribcage. He is diaphoretic; his pulse is rapid and weak; and his respirations are regular and unlabored at 24 breaths/min. Which of the following injuries should the EMT suspect?
A) Liver laceration
B) Ruptured diaphragm
C) Massive hemothorax
D) Tension pneumothorax
A
Which of the following is an example of the EMT providing care based on standing orders?
A) Following assessment of a patient with a terminal illness, the EMT contacts the patient’s personal physician to determine whether he or she requires any special care.
B) Prior to administering oral glucose to a patient with hypoglycemia, the EMT confirms the proper dosage and requests authorization from the base station physician.
C) The EMT defibrillates a patient with the AED, directs immediate resumption of CPR, and then contacts medical control for further guidance.
D) After confirming that a patient’s blood pressure is adequate, the EMT contacts medical control and requests permission to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.
C
In most people, the inferior aspect of the left ventricle receives its blood supply from the:
A) circumflex artery.
B) right coronary artery.
C) left main coronary artery.
D) left anterior descending artery.
B
Which of the following drugs can cause or worsen excited delirium?
A) Heroin
B) Cocaine
C) Ketamine
D) Marijuana
B
A 19-year-old male is experiencing hallucinations and paranoia after abusing an unknown substance. His heart rate is 170 beats/min, he complains of a headache, and he is experiencing muscle twitching. Which of the following substances would MOST likely explain his presentation?
A) Heroin
B) Bath salts
C) Ketamine
D) Valium
B
You are administering oxygen at 15 L/min to a patient with respiratory distress. If you are using a D cylinder (cylinder constant, 0.16), which reads 1500 psi, how long will it take before you need to replace the oxygen cylinder?
A) 9 minutes
B) 11 minutes
C) 14 minutes
D) 18 minutes
C
EMTs are assessing a man who is under the influence of an unknown substance. The patient is agitated, his BP is 180/100 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 150 beats/min, and his skin is hot to the touch. Which of the following drugs would MOST likely cause these signs and symptoms?
A) Heroin
B) Cocaine
C) Alcohol
D) Valium
B
Which of the following patient presentations would MOST likely require the EMT to don a high-efficiency particular air (HEPA) respirator?
A) Fever, weight loss, and jaundice
B) Fever, a cough, and night sweats
C) Jaundice, vomiting, and weakness
D) Nuchal rigidity, fever, and headache
B
All of the following would cause an increased level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood, EXCEPT:
A) reduced tidal volume.
B) deep, rapid breathing.
C) short exhalation phase.
D) slow, shallow breathing.
B
Which of the following injuries has the potential to produce the greatest amount of internal blood loss?
A) Pelvic fracture
B) Femur fracture
C) Tibial fracture
D) Humeral fracture
A
Because of the property of automaticity, cardiac muscle cells are able to:
A) contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source.
B) rest for up to 2 minutes before initiating another electrical impulse.
C) survive for long periods of time if oxygen does not reach the heart.
D) generate an electrical impulse from the same pacemaker every time.
A
An elderly woman with COPD is semiconscious with labored breathing. Her face is cyanotic, her pulse is rapid and weak, and her oxygen saturation is 75%. You should:
A) avoid high-flow oxygen because this may cause her to stop breathing.
B) apply oxygen via nasal cannula and reassess her respiratory status.
C) insert a nasal airway and give her oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D) ventilate her with a bag-valve-mask device and high-flow oxygen.
D
Which of the following clinical signs should alert the EMT that a patient has left heart failure?
A) An irregular pulse
B) Dyspnea on exertion
C) Severe peripheral edema
D) Jugular venous distention
B
While assessing a patient who was ejected from his truck, the EMT notices that his chest collapses and his abdomen rises during inhalation. What should the EMT suspect?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Fractured sternum
C) Ruptured diaphragm
D) Intra-abdominal bleeding
A
Patients who abuse opioids by injecting them are also at risk for:
A) hepatitis A.
B) tuberculosis.
C) hepatitis C.
D) schizophrenia.
C
Which of the following clinical signs would you MOST likely observe in an infant or small child with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal deviation
B) An irregular pulse
C) Distended jugular veins
D) Progressive respiratory distress
D
You assess an unresponsive 65-year-old man and find that he is apneic and pulseless. The patient’s wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardioverter/defibrillator. After initiating CPR, you should:
A) deactivate the implanted defibrillator by running a magnet over it.
B) apply the AED as soon as possible and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
C) ask the wife why and when he had the automatic defibrillator implanted.
D) avoid using the AED because the implanted defibrillator is more effective.
B
A 62-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease began experiencing chest pain and nausea while on his daily jog. After sitting down and resting for 5 minutes, his pain and nausea resolve. Which of the following BEST describes this patient’s condition?
A) Musculoskeletal chest pain
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Unstable angina pectoris
D) Stable angina pectoris
D
When insulin levels in the blood remain high:
A) a fruity odor can be detected on the patient’s breath.
B) the cells starve for glucose and begin to metabolize fat.
C) the patient urinates excessively and becomes dehydrated.
D) glucose is rapidly taken out of the blood to fuel the cells.
D
Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that a patient with a foreign body airway obstruction has poor air exchange?
A) Stridor
B) Anxiety
C) Wheezing
D) Tachycardia
A
A scuba diver complains of shortness of breath and severe muscle and joint pain immediately after ascending from a dive. He is cyanotic and is coughing up bloody froth. What should you suspect?
A) The bends
B) Air embolism
C) Decompression sickness
D) Nitrogen bubbles in the blood
B
Which of the following statements regarding lightning-related injuries is correct?
A) The majority of patients who are struck by lightning die, even if CPR is provided immediately.
B) The cardiovascular and nervous systems are most commonly injured during a lightning strike.
C) Because of the high electrical energy associated with lightning, full-thickness burns are a common finding.
D) Multiple fractures, including those of the cervical spine, are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.
B
A 23-year-old female with a history of bulimia is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood and complains of pain in her upper abdominal area. What should you suspect?
A) Mallory-Weiss tear
B) Esophageal varices
C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D) Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
A
An elderly woman complains of pain to her right groin area after she fell. Her right leg is shortened and externally rotated. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way of stabilizing her injury?
A) Bind her legs together and position her on her left side
B) Apply a long board splint and secure her to the stretcher
C) Apply a traction splint and secure her to a long backboard
D) Place her on a scoop stretcher and pad her hip with pillows
D
Active rewarming of a patient with moderate or severe hypothermia should be avoided in the field because:
A) the risk of inadvertently inducing hyperthermia is too high.
B) rewarming too quickly can cause a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia.
C) it is painful for the patient and you cannot give analgesic drugs.
D) active rewarming has been shown to cause severe hypertension.
B
Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing in an infant?
A) Sunken fontanelles
B) Abdominal breathing
C) Expiratory grunting
D) Heart rate of 130 beats/min
C
A patient with multiple injuries presents with pallor, diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/min, and a BP of 112/64 mm Hg. The EMT should recognize that these signs are the result of:
A) the shunting of blood to the periphery of the body.
B) increased parasympathetic nervous system activity.
C) nervous system failure and decompensated shock.
D) increased epinephrine and norepinephrine release.
D
A high normal respiratory rate for an infant between 1 month and 1 year of age is:
A) 30 breaths/min.
B) 40 breaths/min.
C) 60 breaths/min.
D) 70 breaths/min.
C
A 58-year-old man is found unresponsive by his wife. According to his wife, he was complaining of a “dull ache” in his chest the day before, but refused to allow her to call 911. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. Further assessment reveals that his skin is cool, pale, and clammy. You should suspect:
A) cardiogenic shock.
B) hypovolemic shock.
C) acute septic shock.
D) pulmonary embolism.
A
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following blunt trauma to the anterior neck should make you MOST suspicious for a:
A) pneumothorax.
B) fractured larynx.
C) ruptured esophagus.
D) carotid artery injury.
B
Which of the following signs or symptoms is MOST suggestive of a systemic reaction following ingestion of a poison?
A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Burns around the mouth
C) Tachycardia and hypotension
D) Painful or difficult swallowing
C
Which of the following types of stroke would MOST likely present with a sudden, severe headache?
A) Ischemic
B) Hemorrhagic
C) Thrombotic
D) Embolic
B
Patients with significant closed head injuries often have pupillary abnormalities and:
A) paralysis.
B) paresthesia.
C) hypertension.
D) tachycardia.
C
In contrast to a patient with a blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL, a patient with a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL would be expected to present with:
A) profuse diaphoresis and pallor.
B) an acute alteration in mentation.
C) tachycardia and poor skin turgor.
D) a rapid, shallow breathing pattern.
C
A 29-year-old man presents with an acute onset of severe pain to the left upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert and states that he is very thirsty. The EMT should:
A) keep him sitting up and give him small sips of water to drink.
B) begin the assessment by palpating the left upper quadrant.
C) assess his vital signs and prepare for immediate transport.
D) position him supine and encourage him to straighten his legs.
C
A 67-year-old woman presents with acute weakness and nausea. She is conscious and alert and her skin is cool and clammy. Her BP is 140/88 mm Hg, pulse is 70 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 16 breaths/min and unlabored. Her medical history includes hypertension and diabetes, and she advises that she has an implanted pacemaker. What should you suspect?
A) Pacemaker malfunction
B) Acute hypertensive crisis
C) Infection with influenza
D) Acute myocardial infarction
D
Which of the following is MOST indicative of a primary cardiac problem?
A) Tachypnea
B) Tachycardia
C) Irregular pulse
D) Sudden fainting
C
A 60-year-old woman presents with chest discomfort, confusion, and weakness. The patient’s husband tells you that she vomited once before EMS arrival. The patient’s BP is 70/40 mm Hg, her pulse is 45 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 14 breaths/min and unlabored. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of her hypotension?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypovolemia
C) Myocardial ischemia
D) Respiratory compromise
A
Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with decompensated shock?
A) Diaphoresis and pallor
B) Falling blood pressure
C) Restlessness and anxiety
D) Tachycardia and tachypnea
B
Following blunt injury to the anterior torso, a patient is coughing up bright red blood. You should suspect:
A) intra-abdominal bleeding.
B) gastrointestinal bleeding.
C) bleeding within the lungs.
D) severe myocardial damage.
C
A patient presents with severe bradycardia, hypersalivation, vomiting, and excessive tearing. Which of the following agents would MOST likely cause his signs and symptoms?
A) Soman
B) Anthrax
C) Chlorine
D) Phosgene
A
Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct?
A) Not all patients experiencing heatstroke have dry skin.
B) Heatstroke is caused by a hyperactive sweating mechanism.
C) Heatstroke is more likely to occur when the humidity is low.
D) As core body temperature rises, the patient becomes more agitated.
A
Aspirin is beneficial to patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome because it:
A) prevents a clot from getting larger.
B) effectively relieves their chest pain.
C) decreases cardiac workload by lowering the BP.
D) destroys the clot that is blocking a coronary artery.
A
Assessment of an older man with respiratory distress reveals that his chest has a barrel-shaped appearance and he is exhaling through pursed lips. What is the pathophysiology of these findings?
A) Decreased tidal volume
B) Increased residual volume
C) Increased vital capacity
D) Widespread bronchodilation
B
Which of the following injury mechanisms involves axial loading?
A) skater slips and falls, landing on her outstretched arm
B) A construction worker falls off a roof and lands feet first
C) A woman’s knees impact the dash during a frontal collision
D) A man’s neck is forced laterally during a side impact collision
Feedback :
Axial loading injuries occur when a sudden, excessive compression force drives the long axis of the body toward the head, or the head toward the feet. Common injuries that involve axial loading are heavy objects falling on a patient’s head, diving head first into shallow water, and falls in which the patient lands feet first. All of these mechanisms cause compression of the spine, potentially resulting in serious injury. None of the other injury mechanisms described are consistent with axial loading.
A
Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for fibrinolytic therapy?
A) 50-year-old man who has slurred speech and left arm weakness that started 45 minutes ago; history of a heart attack 8 months ago
B) 53-year-old woman who experienced a sudden, severe headache and is now unresponsive; history of a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago
C) 59-year-old man whose mental status has declined over the past 12 hours; history of renal failure, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes
D) 63-year-old woman had a syncopal episode and is now confused; she takes blood thinners and has a history of deep vein thrombosis
A
A middle-aged male was found unresponsive by his wife. When you arrive at the scene, you assess the patient and determine that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
A) immediately begin CPR, reassess for a carotid pulse after 60 seconds, and then apply the AED.
B) immediately apply the AED, analyze his cardiac rhythm, deliver a shock if indicated, and begin CPR.
C) begin CPR starting with chest compressions, apply the AED as soon as possible, and request backup.
D) perform CPR with a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2, apply the AED, and request backup.
C
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to a vesicant agent is:
A) tachycardia.
B) skin blistering.
C) vomiting blood.
D) muscle twitching.
B
You are ventilating an apneic adult with a bag-valve-mask device and high-flow oxygen. Her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and she has cyanosis to her face and chest. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed ventilations in this patient?
A) Slight dissipation of her cyanosis
B) Noted abdominal rise with each ventilation
C) Decreased compliance with each ventilation
D) A decrease in her heart rate to 90 beats/min
D
In the patient with diabetes, insulin shock typically presents with:
A) dry skin and a slow onset.
B) dry skin and a rapid onset.
C) clammy skin and a slow onset.
D) clammy skin and a rapid onset.
D
Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident?
A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal evisceration
B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns
C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her airway
D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal gasps
B
Which of the following patients would be the BEST candidate for treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)?
A) Conscious; respiratory distress; fever; and hypotension
B) Unresponsive; labored breathing; cyanosis; and tachycardia
C) Conscious; labored breathing; anxiety; and coarse crackles
D) Semiconscious; shallow breathing; and audible wheezing
C
During the inhalation phase of breathing:
A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and ascend.
B) air passively enters the lungs as pressure within the thorax increases.
C) pressure within the thorax decreases and air is drawn into the lungs.
D) the muscles in between the ribs relax, which lifts the ribs up and out.
C
An 88-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode. She is now conscious, but complains of dizziness and generalized weakness, and her pulse is 170 beats/min and irregular. The EMT should recognize that this patient’s syncope was MOST likely caused by:
A) an acute cardiac dysrhythmia.
B) increased parasympathetic tone.
C) widespread systemic vasodilation.
D) decreased sympathetic tone.
A
Treatment for a patient with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath may include:
A) prophylactic suctioning of the airway.
B) hyperventilation with a bag-valve-mask.
C) supine positioning and elevation of the legs.
D) up to three doses of sublingual nitroglycerin.
D
Signs of inadequate breathing in an unresponsive patient include:
A) an irregular pulse.
B) warm, moist skin.
C) symmetrical chest rise.
D) cyanotic oral mucosa.
D
A woman has a painful, deformed humerus after she fell. The injured arm is cool and pale, and a radial pulse cannot be palpated. The EMT should:
A) allow her to stabilize the arm on her own and transport.
B) splint the arm in the position found and transport at once.
C) realign the arm to its normal anatomic position and splint it.
D) apply gentle traction in order to reestablish distal circulation.
D
Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include:
A) unequal pupils, irregular pulse, and pallor.
B) ringing in the ears, headache, and epistaxis.
C) chest discomfort, weak pulses, and cool skin.
D) vomiting without nausea and hemiparesis.
B
Which of the following situations would MOST likely impair oxygenation, despite the fact that the patient is inhaling and exhaling?
A) Limb amputation
B) Intracranial hemorrhage
C) Acute myocardial infarction
D) Entrapment in a mine
D
You receive a call for a 49-year-old woman who passed out. The patient’s husband tells you that they were watching TV when the incident occurred. No trauma was involved. The patient is semiconscious and has cyanosis to her lips. After opening her airway with the head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver, you should:
A) assess her respiratory effort.
B) begin ventilation assistance.
C) insert an oropharyngeal airway.
D) insert a nasopharyngeal airway.
D
Which of the following complications would MOST likely occur if a patient with end-stage renal disease missed several dialysis treatments?
A) Severe dehydration
B) Potassium depletion
C) Bacterial infection
D) Pulmonary edema
D
A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. What should you suspect?
A) Croup
B) Epiglottitis
C) Lower respiratory infection
D) Foreign body airway obstruction
D
Which of the following is MOST indicative of compensated shock in an adult?
A) Unresponsive, pallor, absent radial pulses, tachypnea
B) Confusion, mottling, tachycardia, BP of 88/60 mm Hg
C) Restless, diaphoresis, tachypnea, BP of 104/64 mm Hg
D) Weak carotid pulse, cool skin, increased respiratory rate
C
A 40-year-old male with a history of depression and schizophrenia appears frightened and tells you that he sees snakes everywhere. You should:
A) tell him that you do not see any snakes, but they are obviously scaring him.
B) let him know that going to the hospital will keep him safe from the snakes.
C) advise him that you suspect he has not been compliant with his medications.
D) let him know that it is important for him to be transported as soon as possible.
A
The appropriate technique for performing two-rescuer CPR on a 4-year-old child includes:
A) 30 compressions to 2 ventilations, compressing the chest one-third the depth of the chest, and delivering each breath over 1 second.
B) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations, compressing the sternum with the heel of your hand, and ventilating until visible chest rise occurs.
C) 30 compressions to 2 ventilations, compressing the sternum with the heel of both hands, and delivering each breath over 1 to 2 seconds.
D) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations, compressing the sternum with your thumbs, and delivering 100 to 120 compressions per minute.
B
Damaged small blood vessels beneath the skin following blunt trauma cause:
A) mottling.
B) cyanosis.
C) hematoma.
D) ecchymosis.
D
An unresponsive man is found lying supine in his bed. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that his gag reflex is depressed or absent?
A) gurgling sound during breathing
B) High-pitched inspiratory stridor
C) Breathing that is slow and shallow
D) Cyanosis to the face, neck, and chest
A
Jb learning final exam questions and answers pdf
jb learning final exam quizlet
emt final exam 100 questions
emt final exam 150 questions quizlet
emt final exam quizlet multiple choice
emt final exam 200 questions quizlet
emt final exam 120 questions
platinum education test