16[Date]AORN Periop 101 Final Exam Questions andAnswers (2022/2023) Using mechanical friction when prepping will NOT aid inA. Removal of resident bacteriaB.Removal of dirt and oilC.The effectiveness of antimicrobialsD.Removal of transient bacteria Correct Ans – A. Removal ofresident bacteriaReduction in resident bacteria is aided by:A. Use of a degreaser B. Use of antimicrobialsC. Prepping clean to dirtyD. Mechanical friction Correct Ans – B. Use of antimicrobialsProlonged contact of skin antisepsis agents due to pooling of the solutions can cause patient injuries that include:1.Chemical burns2.Thermal burns3.Injuries related to equipment malfunction Correct Ans – A. 1 and2Which one of the following statements is TRUE?A. Povidone-iodine’s mechanism of action is to disrupt the cell membrane B. Povidone-iodine is nonirritating to the skinC. Povidone-iodine cannot be used on mucous membranesD. Heating povidone-iodine may decrease its effectiveness Correct Ans-D. Heating povidone-iodine may decrease its effectivenessDocumentation of the preoperative skin prep includes all of the follow EXCEPT:A.Hair removalB.Manufacturer of solutions usedC. AllergiesD. Name of the person who performed the prep Correct Ans – B.Manufacturer of solutions usedWhen prepping an extremity, which one of the following is ALWAYS required?A. Positioning the extremity to prevent prep solution from running toward the incision siteB.Assistance in holding the limbC.Scrubbing nails with a brush before the formal prepD.Prepping so that the entire limb can be draped Correct Ans -A. Positioning the extremity to prevent prep solution from running toward the incision site1
16Surgical wound infections can result in decreased . A. Hospitalization timeB. Intraoperative time C. Income for hospitalsD. Workload for perioperative nurses Correct Ans – C. Income forhospitalsPreoperative skin preparation is accomplished by . A. Removing soil and transient microbesB. Reducing resident microbesC. Using antimicrobial agents that inhibit growth of microbes D. All of the above Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveAccording to AORN’s guidelines for skin preparation of patients, hair at theoperative site is .A. Allowed to remain unless it interferes with the surgical procedures B. Always removed with a depilatoryC. Removed at least two hours before surgeryD. Dry shaved as opposed to wet shaved Correct Ans – A. Allowedto remain unless it interferes with the surgical proceduresThe concept of prepping from clean to dirty means . A. Cleaning all stomas or open wounds firstB.Beginning at the incision site and using circular strokes toward theperipheryC.Prep solution is changed after cleaning contaminated areasD.Surgical scrub solutions used first and then surgical paint Correct Ans-B. Beginning at the incision site and using circular strokes toward theperipheryCommon resident bacteria include all EXCEPT:A. Staphylococcus epiermidis B. Staphylococcus aureusC. Diphtheroid bacillusD. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Correct Ans – wrongWhich one of the following statements about the skin prep is FALSE? A. Povidone-iodine should not be allowed to dryB.Manufacturers’ guidelines should be followedC.Skin prep is performed after the patient has been positionedD.The name of the person performing the prep should be documentedCorrect Ans – A. Povidone-iodine should not be allowed to dryObjectives of the surgical prep include all EXCEPT:
16A.Removal of dirt, skin oil, and microbes from the skin
16B.Sterilization of skinC.Reduction of bacterial countD.Prevention of regrowth of microbes for several hours Correct Ans- B. Sterilization of skinThe generally recognized length of time required for contact of antimicrobialagents to be effective isA. 1 to 3minutes B. 2 to5 minutes C. 3to 5 minutesD. According to manufacturers’ directions Correct Ans – D.According to manufacturers’ directionsThe principles of preoperative skin preparation include all of the following EXCEPT:A. Prep from clean to dirty B. Use aseptic technique C. Prep stomas firstD. Prevent pooling Correct Ans – C. Prep stomas firstWhich one of the following topical antimicrobial agents is neurotoxic? A. Povidone-iodineB.AlcoholC.PCMX (parachlorometaxylenol)D.Chlorhexidine gluconate Correct Ans – D. ChlorhexidinegluconateWhich statement is TRUE about iodophor with alcohol? A. It provides rapid reduction in microbial counts of skinB. Persistence or residual activity is excellentC. It has been shown to be nontoxic and nonirritatingD. Percutaneous absorption does not occur across mucous membranesCorrect Ans – wrongWhich statement is FALSE about eye, extremity, or vaginal preps?A.A 5% sterile ophtalmic prep solution is commercially available for eyeprepsB.The vagina should be prepped first as part of a vaginal prepC.When prepping an extremity, it should be positioned so that the incisionsite is the upper-most portion of the prepD.If fingers or toes are included in the surgical field (extremity prep), it may be necessary to scrub the nail with a brush and soap solution Correct Ans – B. The vagina should be prepped first as part of a vaginal prepHand hygiene should be performed after which of the following? A. Touching the operating room bed controls
16B. Adjusting a patient’s bed linens C. EatingD. Marking the surgical siteE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the aboveWhen should perioperative team members use an alcohol-based rub for hand hygiene?A. After hands have been exposed to blood or other bodily fluids B. After using the restroomC. When the hands are not visibly soiledD. When caring for patients with spore-forming organisms Correct Ans-C. When the hands are not visibly soiledWhat is the minimum length of time perioperative team members should spend performing hand hygiene by washing with soap and water?A. 7 seconds B. 15 secondsC. 20 secondsD. 30 seconds Correct Ans – B. 15 secondsHow much of an alcohol-based hand rub should be used when performing hand hygiene?A. A dime-sized amount B. A quarter-sized amountC. 10 dropsD. The amount recommended by the manufacturer Correct Ans -D. The amount recommended by the manufacturerPerioperative team members should maintain fingernails at a maximum ofwhat length?A. 2 mm (0.08inch) B. 6 mm(0.24 inch) C. 10mm (0.4 inch)D. 12 mm (0.5 inch) Correct Ans – A. 2 mm (0.08 inch)Which of the following measures is helpful for maintaining healthy skin and minimizing the risk of hand dermatitis?A. Completely drying hands before putting on glovesB. Avoiding water hotter than 80° F (27° C)C. Using approved moisturizing productsD. Using glove linersE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the aboveWhich of the following types of jewelry is acceptable for perioperative teammembers to wear in patient care areas?A.One ring per hand
16B.WatchC.Loose bracelet D. Fitness monitorE. No jewelry is acceptable Correct Ans – E. No jewelry is acceptableWhich of the following is a primary line of defense for protecting the patientfrom the transmission of pathogens during surgical procedures?A. Sterile glovesB. Sterile gownsC. Surgical hand antisepsisD. Surgical masks Correct Ans – C. Surgical hand antisepsisWhich of the following parts of the surgical gown is considered sterile? A. The axillary regionB.The backC.The cuf f of the gown sleeveD.The front from the chest to the level of the sterile fieldE.The shoulders Correct Ans – D. The front from the chest to the level of the sterile fieldWhich method of gloving should be used by team members during the initialgowning and gloving process for surgical procedures?A. Assisted gloving with gown cuffs at fingertips B. Assisted gloving with gown cuffs at wristsC.Open glovingD.Open assisted glovingE.Any of the above Correct Ans – A. Assisted gloving with gowncuffs at fingertipsHow often should surgical gloves be changed during an invasive surgical procedure?A. Every 60 to 90 minutes B. Every 90 to 150 minutesC. Surgical gloves only require changing if a known or suspected break in technique occurs or a tear is identified in the gloveD. There is no recommended time for changing gloves Correct Ans -wrongWhich of the following is the preferred method for assessing hand hygiene in the perioperative setting?A.Direct observationB.Measurement of product usageC. Automated monitoringD. Self-reporting Correct Ans – wrong
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16Approximately what percentage of surgical patients develop a surgical site infection during hospitalization?A.1%B.5%C. 10%D. 15%E. 20% Correct Ans – B. 5%Which of the following terms is used to refer to seepage of fluid through a sterile material with subsequent bacterial penetration?A. Breakthrough B. Pierce throughC. Punch throughD. Strikethrough Correct Ans – D. StrikethroughWhich of the following type of drape is designed to be tubular? A. Fenestrated drapeB. Flat sheet C. StockinetteD. Towel Correct Ans – C. StockinetteWhich of the following is recommended when opening a sterile field in the perioperative setting?A.All sterile fields for all patients should be opened in a designated centralsterile area and transported to the OR for useB.Cables and tubing should be secured with non-perforating devicesC.Drapes should be shaken after opening and before placement to removedustD.When draping a patient, the RN should drape the peripheral areas first and move inward toward the surgical site Correct Ans – B. Cablesand tubing should be secured with non-perforating devicesWhich surfaces of the sterile drape are considered sterile?A. Top onlyB. Top and bottom but not sidesC. Top and sides but not bottomD. Top, bottom, and sidesE. Bottom and sides Correct Ans – A. Top onlyDrapes are considered contaminated under which of the following conditions?A.A hole is discoveredB.The drape drops below waist levelC. The drape is placed incorrectlyD. There is some doubt about the drape’s sterilityE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the above
16The perioperative RN should do which of the following when draping a patient for a laparotomy?A.Stand on the opposite side of the OR bed when handing sterile towels tothe surgeonB.Secure sterile towels with pointed, penetrating clipsC.Place the opening of the laparotomy sheet directly over the surgical siteD. Unfold the drapes toward the bottom and top of the patient before unfolding to the sideE. All of the above Correct Ans – C. Place the opening of thelaparotomy sheet directly over the surgical siteWhich of the following is an important consideration when draping patients for procedures on the eye?A.It is important to repel waterB.The environment must be free of lintC.Cataract procedures are often performed without sedation D. Adequate air exchange for the patient must be maintainedE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the aboveThe perioperative RN should follow which of these procedures when draping equipment?A.Drape equipment that will be positioned over the sterile fieldB.Drape equipment that will be positioned immediately adjacent to thesterile fieldC.Drape large pieces of equipment as close to the time of use as possibleD. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions for useE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the aboveWhich of the following is an acceptable position for the hands and arms of a scrubbed person for maintaining the integrity of the sterile field?A. Straight down at the sidesB. Above waist levelC.Folded with hands in the axillary areaD.Resting against another scrubbed person’s backE.All of the above Correct Ans – B. Above waist levelWhen should perioperative team members wear surgical attire and a surgicalhead covering?A. Any time they enter an operating room for any reasonB. Only when they are directly involved with patient careC. Only when they are part of the scrubbed teamD. Only when they are transferring sterile items to the sterile fieldE. Only when they will remain in an operating room for more than 1 minuteCorrect Ans – A. Any time they enter an operating room for any reason
16Which of the following is the most important practice for minimizing the risk for infectious organism transmission?A. Keeping doors to the operating room closedB. Observing isolation precautionsC. Performing hand hygiene and surgical hand antisepsis D. Properly preparing the sterile fieldE. Wearing a gown and gloves Correct Ans -C. Performing handhygiene and surgical hand antisepsisWhich of the following parts of a surgical gown are considered sterile?A. The backB. The neckline C. The shouldersD. The sleeves from the cuf f to 2 inches above the elbowE. All of the above Correct Ans – D. The sleeves from the cuf f to 2 inches above the elbowWhich of the following statements about preparation of sterile fields is most accurate?A.Sterile fields for all procedures planned for the day should be prepared inthe morning before patients arriveB.Sterile fields should be prepared in a dedicated sterile room andtransported to the operating rooms for useC.Perioperative team members should perform surgical hand antisepsisbefore preparing a surgical sterile fieldD.Sterile fields for multiple patients can be prepared at the same time to improve efficiency Correct Ans – C. Perioperative team membersshould perform surgical hand antisepsis before preparing a surgical sterilefieldWhich of the following areas of a properly draped sterile field is considered sterile?A. The bottom B. The sides C. The topD. Any area above the tallest scrubbed team member’s waistlineE. All of the above Correct Ans – C. The topWhich of the following isolation technique procedures should be followed to prevent the spread of cancer cells from one area to another during resectionof metastatic tumors?A.Changing surgical gloves when soiledB.Covering existing sterile drapes with new sterile drapes after the resectionC. Discontinuing use of instruments after they were used for the tumor excision
16D. Organizing the sterile field in a way that minimizes risk of exposure to cancerous cellsE. All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the aboveWhich of the following practices should be followed when transferring sterile items to the sterile field?A.An unscrubbed team member should stand as close as possible to thesterile field when transferring itemsB.Only a scrubbed team member may transfer sterile items to the sterilefieldC.Open and transfer all sterile items needed for the procedure to the sterilefield before the patient enters the roomD.Present heavy or sharp sterile items directly to a scrubbed team memberreceiving the items onto the sterile fieldE.Toss sterile items onto the sterile field from a distance whenever possibleCorrect Ans – D. Present heavy or sharp sterile items directly to a scrubbed team member receiving the items onto the sterile fieldWhat is the best practice to follow if a contaminated item is discovered in a set of sterilized instruments?A. Consider all opened instruments in the room to be contaminated B. Consider only the involved item to be contaminatedC. Consider the entire set to be contaminatedD. Consider the involved item and any other item within 4 inches of the involved item to be contaminated Correct Ans – C. Consider theentire set to be contaminatedWhich of the following statements regarding the use of a unidirectional ultra clean air delivery system is most accurate?A. Heater-cooler devices should be positioned inside the air curtain B. Scrubbed team members should stand outside the air curtainC. The sterile instrument table should be positioned inside the air curtain D. The surgical site should be positioned outside the air curtainE. Unscrubbed team members should remain inside the air curtain as much as possible Correct Ans – wrongWhich of the following practices should scrubbed team members follow to maintain the integrity of the sterile field?A. Avoid folding the arms with hands in the axillary area B. Keep hands and arms above the waist level at all timesC.Maintain distance between themselves and other scrubbed teammembers when changing positionD.Remain face to face or back to back with other scrubbed team memberswhen changing positionE.All of the above Correct Ans – E. All of the above
16The use of a pneumatic tourniquet during extremity surgery: A. Is a noncontroversial practiceB.Requires effective communication and collaboration between nurses,anesthesia personnel, and the surgeonC.Is safe for all patients as long as tourniquet time does not exceed 30minutesD.All of the above Correct Ans – B. Requires effective communication and collaboration between nurses, anesthesia personnel, andthe surgeonPhysiologic effects of exsanguination and pneumatic tourniquet inflation during surgery typically include all of the following EXCEPT:A. Increase in central venous pressure B. Increased heart rateC. Increased core body temperatureD. Decreased core body temperature Correct Ans – D. Decreasedcore body temperatureWhich of the following is NOT a common physiologic effect ofpneumatic tourniquet deflation following a period of inflation during surgery?A.HypotensionB.Decreased heart rateC.Increased core body temperatureD.Decreased core body temperature Correct Ans – C. Increasedcore body temperatureThe acid-base effects of pneumatic tourniquet deflation following a period of inflation are characterized by:A. Elevated PaCO2 with respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis B. Elevated PaCO2 with respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis C. Decreased PaCO2 with respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosisD. Decreased PaCO2 with respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis Correct Ans – B. Elevated PaCO2 with respiratory acidosis and metabolicacidosisA type of tissue in the extremities that is highly susceptible to ischemia is: A. Skeletal muscleB. NervesC. BoneD. Skin Correct Ans – A. Skeletal muscleA perioperative nurse is performing a preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following is NOT a primary contraindication for pneumatic tourniquet use?A.Significant vascular disease, including recent bypass, history of deepvenous thrombosis, or impaired peripheral circulation
16B.Sickle cell anemia and other forms of hemoglobinopathyC.History of pain or weakness in the bones or muscles of the extremitiesD.History of ulcerative colitis Correct Ans – D. History of ulcerativecolitisChoose the FALSE statement about pneumatic tourniquet safety.A.Wider, contoured cuffs are generally safer than narrow cuffs because theyrequire less pressure to achieve a near bloodless fieldB.Increased tourniquet time increases the risk of postoperativecomplicationsC.Narrow cuffs are generally safer than wide, contoured cuffs because theyrequire less pressure to achieve a near bloodless fieldD.Increased cuf f pressure increases the risk of postoperative complicationsCorrect Ans – C. Narrow cuffs are generally safer than wide, contoured cuffs because they require less pressure to achieve a near bloodless fieldChoose the FALSE statement regarding intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier’s block).A.After a procedure is over, the perioperative nurse should leave the cufffully inflated for at least 60 minutesB.Intermittently deflating and reinflating the cuf f for several cycles after the procedure is over may help minimize peak blood concentration of the local anesthetic and reduce the risk of a systemic toxic reactionC.Central nervous system abnormalities are usually the earliest warning signs of a systemic toxic reaction during intravenous regional anesthesia D. Before applying a pneumatic tourniquet, nurses should screen patients for sensitivities to local anesthetics and communicate with the anesthesia professional to confirm the plan for intravenous regional anesthesia Correct Ans – A. After a procedure is over, the perioperative nurse should leave the cuf f fully inflated for at least 60 minutesChoose the extremity and nerve most frequently affected by pneumatictourniquet-induced nerve damage.A. Lower limb, peroneal nerve B. Upper limb, radial nerve C. Upper limb, median nerveD. Upper limb, ulnar nerve Correct Ans – B. Upper limb, radial nerveA perioperative nurse is assessing patients for DVT risk factors prior to lowerlimb surgeries. Based on the following descriptions, which patient DOES NOThave risk factor(s) for DVT?A.A 35 year old patient on prolonged bed restB.A 70 year old smoker with no history of significant medical problemsC. An obese 45 year old who is otherwise healthy
16D. A 20 year old non-smoking athlete with a left anterior cruciate ligament tear Correct Ans – D. A 20 year old non-smoking athlete with a leftanterior cruciate ligament tearThe average estimated number of surgical fires every year in the United States is:A. 20 to 30 B. 200 to 240C. 700 to 1000 D. 2000 to 2500E. 2500 to 2700 Correct Ans – B. 200 to 240Choose the FALSE statement about perioperative fire prevention and management plans.A.They should be developed by a multidisciplinary group of keystakeholdersB.They should describe key content and frequency of fire safety educationactivitiesC.They should specify policies and procedures for fire prevention andresponseD.They generally are not needed unless required by a health care facility’sinsurance policyE.They should specify team member roles and responsibilities during fireprevention and response Correct Ans – D. They generally are notneeded unless required by a health care facility’s insurance policyThe three components of the fire triangle are oxidizing source, ignition source, and fuel source.A.TrueB.False Correct Ans – A. TrueThe three overriding principles of operating room fire safety are: A. Awareness, communication, teamworkB. Oxidizing source, heat source, fuel source C. Inspect, check, respondD. Prevent, extinguish, evacuateE. Source, extinguish, safety Correct Ans – D. Prevent, extinguish, evacuateExamples of ignition sources include:A. Electrocautery units and active electrosurgical electrodes B. Fiber-optic light cordsC. Lasers D. A and CE. A, B, and C Correct Ans – E. A, B, and C
16A fire risk assessment should be performed:A.Only before procedures involving electrocautery, an electrosurgical unit,or a laserB.Only if requested by the surgeon or first assistantC. Before all operative proceduresD. Only before surgical procedures above the xiphoid process and in the nasopharynxE. Only if the patient requires more than 30% supplemental oxygenCorrect Ans – C. Before all operative procedureshe flash point of flammable materials is , while the flash point of combustible materials is :A. Less than 100° F, greater than 100° FB. Greater than 100° F, less than 100° F C. Equal to 100° F, greater than 100° F D. Less than 120° F, greater than 120° FE. Greater than 120° F, less than 120° F Correct Ans – A. Less than100° F, greater than 100° FOxidizing sources in the operating room include:A.OxygenB.Nitrous oxide C. Carbon dioxideD. A and BE. A, B, and C Correct Ans – D. A and BFuel sources in the operating room include:A. Gauze sponges B. Floor glueC. Ceiling tile D. ScrubsE. Surgical instruments Correct Ans – A. Gauze spongesPerioperative registered nurses and scrub personnel have primary control over which component of the fire triangle during an operating or other invasive procedure?A. Oxidizing sourcesB. Fuel sourcesC. Ignition sources D. A and BE. A and C Correct Ans – B. Fuel sourcesChoose the FALSE statement about fire risks in the operating room.A.Patients with their heads draped are at increased risk of fire becausesupplemental oxygen can accumulate under drapes
16B.Substances that would not ignite in room or medical air can do so in an oxygen-enriched environment, which may occur in the operating roomC.Evaporated gases from flammable prep solutions can ignite, especially ifthey are allowed to accumulate under drapesD.Bowel surgeries are associated with the highest risk of surgical firesE. A piece of equipment that is smoking unexpectedly represents animmediate fire risk Correct Ans – D. Bowel surgeries are associatedwith the highest risk of surgical firesFire blankets should NOT be used in the operating room because they: A. Are made of wool, which can catch fire in an oxygen-enriched environmentB. Can cause wound contamination or move instruments at the surgical site C. Can trap fire next to or under a patientD. All of the aboveE. B and C Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveWhich of the following fire safety practices should be implemented when alaser is used during surgery?A.Keep wet towels and saline on the sterile fieldB.Place moist sterile towels, sponges, and drapes around the surgical siteC. Use standard endotracheal tubes for upper airway procedures involvinglaserD.allow fumes from flammable solutions to dissipate before activating thelaserE.A and B onlyF.A, B, and C only G. A, B, and D onlyH. A and D onlyI. C and D only Correct Ans – wrongWhich type of fire extinguisher is most appropriate to extinguish a fire on or in a patient?A.Carbon dioxide extinguisherB.Ammonium phosphate or other dry powder extinguisher C. Water mist extinguisherD. Foam extinguisherE. A or C Correct Ans – wrongPatients and personnel must be evacuated because of an operating roomfire. The proper order of steps to take is:A.Alarm, confine/contain, rescue, evacuateB. Rescue, alarm, confine/contain, evacuateC. Rescue, evacuate, alarm, confine/containD. Confine/contain, alarm, rescue, evacuate
16Rescue, alarm, confine/contain, evacuateIf evacuated because of a fire, health care personnel should go: A. To the front doors of the buildingB.Outside the buildingC.Behind at least two sets of fire doorsD. To the nearest stairwellE. To the nearest safe location where they can resume caring for patientsCorrect Ans – E. To the nearest safe location where they can resume caring for patientsA scrubbed perioperative registered nurse observes a fire start on a patient in the operating room. After alerting the team, the nurse should immediately:A. Obtain and operate the nearest fire extinguisher by using the PASS techniqueB. Pat the flames with a drapeC. Smother the fire with a towel or pour nonflammable liquid on the fire D. Lift the patient and transport him or her out of the roomE. Turn of f the oxygen source Correct Ans – C. Smother the fire with a towel or pour nonflammable liquid on the fireWhich practice is NOT recommended to prevent fires during surgeries athigh-risk sites?A.use an ignition source to enter gas-distended bowelB.pack the back of the throat with radiopaque sponges prior totonsillectomyC.stop supplemental oxygen or nitrous oxide for one minute before using anignition sourceD.place an adhesive incise drape between the surgical site and the oxygen sourceE.inflate endotracheal tubes with tinted solutions prior to tracheotomyCorrect Ans – A. use an ignition source to enter gas-distended bowelIfan airway fire occurs, perioperative team members should be prepared to help the anesthesia professional do which of the following:A.disconnect and remove the anesthesia circuit and turn of f the flow of oxygenB.remove the endotracheal tube from the airway, including any burnedfragmentsC.pour saline or water into the airway D. examine and re-establish the airwayE. assess the surgical field for secondary fireF. all of the aboveCorrect Ans – F. all of the aboveE. Alarm, rescue, evacuate, confine/contain Correct Ans – B.
16All of the following are appropriate practices to manage oxidation sources in the operating room EXCEPT:A.administer the lowest concentration of oxygen needed to maintainadequate oxygen saturationB.use a laryngeal mask or endotracheal tube if the patient needs more than30% supplemental oxygenC.ensure that there are no leaks in the anesthesia circuitD.turn the warmer blower of f when using a warming blanket with an attached head drapeE.prevent oxygen from accumulating under drapes Correct Ans -wrongWhich of the following is a potential oxidizer for fires in the operating room? A. Electrosurgical unitsB. GauzeC. Nasal cannulaeD. Nitrous oxideE. Solutions containing alcohol Correct Ans – wrongAll of the following are safety precautions common to all energy-generating devices EXCEPT:A.Alcohol-soaked pads should not be allowed on the surgical field whenenergy-generating devices are usedB.Foot pedals should be enclosed in a fluid resistant cover whenever thereis potential for a fluid spillC.Oxygen delivery to the patient should be stopped or reduced to the lowest possible level when energy-generating devices are used around thehead, face, or neckD.The RN circulator should activate the foot pedal at the direction of the surgeon using the hand pieceE.The lowest power settings that will accomplish the desired task should beused Correct Ans – D. The RN circulator should activate the foot pedal at the direction of the surgeon using the hand pieceWhen is it acceptable to disable the alarms on energy-generating devices? A. Alarms should never be disabledB. During the time out before the procedure C. When the device is on standbyD. When they are creating a distraction for the practitioner performing the procedureE. When they are making the patient anxious Correct Ans -A. Alarms should never be disabledWhich of the following is an accurate statement about dispersive pads used with monopolar electrosurgical units?A.Disposable pads can be removed and repositioned several times
16B.The pad should be cut to conform to the curves of the patient’s bodyC. The pad should be placed as far from the surgical site as practical tominimize interference with the procedureD. The pad should be placed distal to a tourniquet whenever possibleE. There should be no metal objects between the pad and the surgical siteCorrect Ans – E. There should be no metal objects between the pad andthe surgical siteWhich of the following tissue types is the best conductor of electricity? A. BoneB. Fat C. HairD. MuscleE. Scar tissue Correct Ans – D. MuscleWhich of the following statements is most accurate about the interaction ofenergy-generating devices and implanted electronic devices such as pacemakers?A.A magnet should always be placed on an implanted device during the procedureB.Different models of the same type of device from the same manufacturerrespond the same way when exposed to energy-generating devicesC.Most modern implanted electronic devices are constructed with shieldingto protect them from energy discharges and do not require any special precautionsD.Standard protocols should be established for management of implantedelectronic devicesE.The team managing the implanted device should be consulted to developa plan of care Correct Ans – E. The team managing the implanted device should be consulted to develop a plan of careWhich of the following systems should be used to minimize the risk for injury during minimally invasive surgery?A. Active electrode shielding systems B. Conductive trocar systemsC. Hybrid trocar systemsD. All of the aboveE. A and B only Correct Ans – E. A and B onlyWhich of the following is true about eye protection in areas where lasers are in use?A.All lasers require the same type of eye protectionB.Eye protection is required for everyone in the hazard zoneC.Looking away while the laser is in use is sufficient protection in mostcases
16D.Patients under general anesthesia with eyes taped shut do not requireeye protectionE.Prescription glasses provide sufficient protection for most lasers Correct Ans – B. Eye protection is required for everyone in the hazardzoneWhich of the following people is responsible for verifying that protective equipment for lasers is available and properly maintained?A. Biomedical engineerB. Laser operatorC. Laser safety officer D. Laser safety specialistE. Laser user Correct Ans – C. Laser safety officerWhich of the following is a risk unique to argon-enhancing coagulation systems?A. Alternate site injuries B. Antenna couplingC.FireD.Gas embolizationE.Retinal damage Correct Ans – D. Gas embolizationAlcohol should be used for cleaning and disinfection of large blood spills. A. TrueB. False Correct Ans – B. FalseWhich of the following disinfectants is required for general disinfection ofnon-critical items?A. High-level disinfectant B. Low-leveldisinfectantC. Intermediate-level disinfectantD. Sanitizer Correct Ans – wrongTerminal cleaning is typically the responsibility of the Environmental Services Team.A.TrueB.False Correct Ans – A. TrueDust is not known to contain human skin and hair, pollens, and mold. A. TrueB. False Correct Ans – B. FalseInfections can potentially be acquired from which of the following sources? A. Contaminated environmental surfacesB. Contaminated handsC. Contaminated skin
16D. All of the above Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveFederal law requires that all sharps be placed in biohazard containers prior to disposal.A.TrueB.False Correct Ans – A. TrueWhich of the following basic components of personal protective equipment should be worn by the perioperative nurse when likely contacting potentially infectious material?A.GlovesB.Gown, mask, and eye shieldsC. N-95 respiratorD. All of the above Correct Ans – wrongWhich federal agency regulates the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard? A. AORNB. CDCC. HHSD. OSHA Correct Ans – D. OSHAWhich of the following are typical microorganisms found in the perioperative setting?A. ESBL-producing organisms B. SerratiaC. StaphylococcusD. All of the above Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveClostridium difficile is primarily transmitted via which of the following routes?A. Respiratory/inhalationB. IV InjectionC. Fecal-oralD. None of the above Correct Ans – C. Fecal-oralWhich of the following pathogens requires special attention for disinfection of tsurfaces contaminated with brain, eye, or spinal cord tissue?A.CJDB.Clostridium difficileC. MRSAD. VRECorrect Ans-A. CJDWhich of the following microorganisms are found routinely in water pipes in ceilings or during wall demolitions?A. MRSAB. VREC. Aspergillus
16D. None of the Above Correct Ans – C. AspergillusFloors should be mopped or wet-vacuumed with an EPA registered disinfectant after all scheduled cases are completed.A.TrueB.False Correct Ans – A. TrueLiquid waste can be disposed in which of the following manners? A. Adding a solidifying powder to the liquidB.Using a medical liquid waste disposalC.Pouring the liquid down a sanitary sewerD.All of the above Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveDisinfectants used in health care facilities do not require EPA registration.A. TrueB. False Correct Ans – B. FalseDamp-dusting should be performed using EPA registered disinfectant.A. TrueB. False Correct Ans – A. TrueWhich of the following would be considered noncritical items? A. Blood pressure cuffsB. Foley cathetersC. NeedlesD. All of the above Correct Ans – A. Blood pressure cuffsIce machines are known vectors of infection transmission when not properly maintained and cleaned.A.TrueB.False Correct Ans – A. TrueA hierarchy of controls should be used to prevent sharps and injuries in health care settings. The CORRECT order of implementation, ranked from potentially most effective to least effective, is:A.Hazard elimination, engineering controls, work practice controls,administrative controls, PPEB.Hazard elimination, work practice controls, engineering controls, PPE, administrative controlsC.Engineering controls, hazard elimination, administrative controls, workpractice controls, PPED.Hazard elimination, engineering controls, PPE, work practice controls, administrative controlsE.PPE, work practice controls, administrative controls, engineering controls, hazard elimination Correct Ans – A. Hazard elimination, engineeringcontrols, work practice controls, administrative controls, PPE
16Cases of bloodborne pathogen transmission from sharps injuries are primarily the result of , although more than 20 other pathogens havebeen implicated.A. HBV, HCV, and HIVB. HBA, HBV, and HIVC. HAV, HBV, and HCVD. HBA, HBV, and HAV Correct Ans – A. HBV, HCV, and HIVSharps injuries in the OR are especially hazardous because surgical procedures often involve substantial amounts of blood and other possibly infectious body fluids. The most common cause of sharps injuries in the OR is , followed by :A. Scalpels, bone cuttersB. Scalpels, syringesC. Sharp suture needles, scalpelsD. Hypodermic syringes, sharp suture needles Correct Ans -C.Sharp suture needles, scalpelsAll of the following are examples of hazard elimination for sharps safety EXCEPT:A. Using electrosurgery instead of a scalpel when making a surgical incisionB. Requiring at-risk health care workers to participate in annual trainings onsharps safetyC. Ensuring that the facility only uses needleless IV systemsD. Eliminating the use of injectable needles when feasible and clinically appropriate Correct Ans – B. Requiring at-risk health care workersto participate in annual trainings on sharps safetyExamples of appropriate administrative controls to prevent sharps injuries include all of the following EXCEPT:A.Developing and updating sharps policies and proceduresB.Incorporating sharps safety prevention into a new or existing committeestructureC.Allowing only doctors to handle sharpsD.Educating and training employees on the proper handling and disposal ofsharps and safety engineered devices Correct Ans – C. Allowing only doctors to handle sharpsAll are UNSAFE practices in the OR EXCEPT which of the following?A.Passing sharps hand-to-hand between team members during orthopedic surgeryB.Waiting until after surgery to say something if you observe unsafe sharpshandlingC.Carefully recapping contaminated needles using a scooping technique
D. Disposing of sharps in an unlabeled bag Correct Ans- C.Carefully recapping contaminated needles using a scooping technique16Which of the following is NOT an appropriate work practice control to preventsharps injuries in the OR?A.Use of a neutral or safe zone when passing sharps between team membersB.Grasping and manipulating needles and scalpel blades with instruments orsuture packs instead of fingersC.Wearing a colored pair of gloves outside a standard pair during surgery D. During microscopic surgeries, placing the sharp in the surgeon’s hand andhaving the surgeon place the sharp in the designated neutral zone to return it to the scrub personE. Grasping a needle with a blunt instrument when suturing Correct Ans-C. Wearing a colored pair of gloves outside a standard pair during surgeryWhich of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a sharps injury inthe workplace?A.Immediately wash the area with soap and water and seek medicaltreatmentB.Report the injury to your supervisor as soon as possibleC.Report the injury to your supervisor only if the wound becomes infectedD. Discuss with your supervisor the risk of infection based on the infectionstatus of the patient and the presence of blood and other body fluids at time of injury Correct Ans – C. Report the injury to your supervisor only ifthe wound becomes infectedChoose the FALSE statement about introducing safety engineered sharps devices in health care settings?A.Sharps products under consideration should primarily be evaluated byadministrators who can compare them to benchmarking standardsB.Sharps products under consideration by a facility should be evaluated byfront-line users trained in correct use of the deviceC.Final product selections should be based on results of a one-page testersurvey tool that is easy to complete and score and includes room for commentsD.Safety engineered devices must be evaluated every year Correct Ans-A. Sharps products under consideration should primarily be evaluated byadministrators who can compare them to benchmarking standardsBloodborne pathogen exposure control plans must conform to all of the following EXCEPT:A. Be written and must follow federal, state, and local rules and regulationsB. Establish and define work restrictions for health care workers who have transmissible bloodborne infections
16C. Specify processes for education, training, competency evaluation, evaluation of the efficacy and utility of sharps safety devices, and annual review of sharps safety issuesD. Be posted in every room in which sharps are handled Correct Ans- D. Be posted in every room in which sharps are handledDouble gloving is an example of using PPE to reduce the risk of sharps injuries. Based on available evidence about its effectiveness, double gloving should be practiced:A. When the surgeon gives consent to do so B. During all surgical proceduresC. When there is a written policy requiring the use of double gloves during surgeryD. When the surgical patient is known to have a bloodborne pathogeninfection Correct Ans – B. During all surgical proceduresEngineering controls help prevent sharps injuries. Which statement about safety engineered devices is FALSE?A.Safety engineered devices include blunt-tip needles, single-use scalpels,retractable scalpels, and needles with sliding sheaths or needle guardsB.Studies have not yet shown that safety engineered devices significantly reduce needlestick injuries, but they should be used anyway as a precautionC. Safety engineered devices should be used during surgery unless their usecould negatively affect patient safetyD. Blunt-tip needles are safety engineered devices designed to penetrate muscle and fascia, but not skin Correct Ans – B. Studies have notyet shown that safety engineered devices significantly reduce needlestick injuries, but they should be used anyway as a precautionWhich statement about neutral zones is FALSE? A. A kidney basin is appropriate for a neutral zoneB. The neutral zone should be designated during preoperative briefing C. When moving a sharp to the neutral zone, give verbal notice such assaying “sharp”D. Only one sharp and one hand at a time should be in the neutral zoneE. The sharp should be positioned for easy retrieval by the surgeonCorrect Ans – A. A kidney basin is appropriate for a neutral zoneIf a needle must be-recapped, the proper technique to use is:A.Hold the cap with your fingers sideways and slide the needle into the capwith your other handB.With the cap on a stable, flat surface, guide the needle into the cap while holding only the syringe attached to the needle, then tip up the syringe so the cap sits on the needle hub and secure the cap in placeC.Hold the syringe vertically while sliding the cap over the needle
D. Use both hands to center and push the cAns-B. With the cap on a stable, flat surface, guide the needle into the cap while holding only the syringe attac16Which of the following is NOT an appropriate way to prevent sharps injuries in the OR?A.Communicating the location of sharps on the sterile field during personnelchangesB.Removing suture needle from suture before tyingC. Using double-gloved hands to retract tissueD. Cutting the exposed ends of sharp pins or Kwires, or covering them with aprotective cap after they have passed through a patient’s skin Correct Ans – C. Using double-gloved hands to retract tissueNeedleless systems should be used when:A.Withdrawing fluids from multi-use vialsB.Withdrawing body fluids after establishing initial accessC. Administering fluids or medicationsD. Withdrawing IV fluidsE. A, B, and CF. B, C, and D G. A and DH. A, B, C, and D Correct Ans – D. Withdrawing IV fluidsSelect the FALSE statement about alternative wound closure.A.Tissue adhesive is comparable to suture in terms of infection rates, cost,and patient and user satisfactionB.Tissue adhesive enables faster wound closure than sutureC.Tissue adhesive can be associated with higher rates of wound dehiscence than sutureD.Other examples of alternative wound closure devices include tissue staplers and adhesive skin closure strips Correct Ans – B. Tissueadhesive enables faster wound closure than sutureIf a sharps injury occurs during a surgery, employers must:A. Report the name of the injured worker and details of the exposure to OSHA B. Conduct source testing and risk assessmentC. Take responsibility for post-exposure prophylaxis D. B and CE. A and B Correct Ans – D. B and CSelect the FALSE statement. To reduce the risk of injuries to staf f and patients during invasive procedures, the scrub person should:A.Stack used non-sharp instruments on top of contaminated reusable sharpsfor transport to the decontamination area
16B.Use needle-counting devices to contain and isolate sharps on the sterileback tableC.Place used needles in a disposable, puncture resistant needle counter thatis appropriately labeled or color-coded and leak-proof on the sides and bottomD.Make sure sharps are not removed from the OR until the final count reconciliation is done and the patient has been removed from the roomCorrect Ans – A. Stack used non-sharp instruments on top of contaminated reusable sharps for transport to the decontamination areaSharps disposal containers in the perioperative area outside the sterile field should be:A.Kept on a table behind other equipmentB.Replaced as soon as they begin to overflowC.Open containers as long as they are labeled with a biohazard symbol D. Leak-proof, puncture-resistant, and closeable Correct Ans – D.Leak-proof, puncture-resistant, and closeableIonizing radiation is useful for diagnostic radiology because: A. It can harm cellsB. It is of low frequency C. It can penetrate tissueD. It is absorbed by lead Correct Ans – C. It can penetrate tissueChoose the TRUE statement.A.Only pregnant women are at risk from ionizing radiation exposureB.The risks of adverse effects from ionizing radiation exposure decreasewith increasing doseC.Anyone exposed to ionizing radiation can have adverse effectsD. There is a minimum (safe) threshold for exposure to ionizing radiation Correct Ans – C. Anyone exposed to ionizing radiation can have adverseeffectsThe primary occupational source of ionizing radiation exposure in health care facilities is:A.CarelessnessB.Incorrect positioning of equipmentC. ScatterD. Lack of following radiation protocols Correct Ans – C. ScatterThe three fundamental principles of radiation safety are:A. Regulations, protocols, and consistencyB.Measure, protect, and reportC.Aprons, dosimeters, and leaded wallsD.Time, distance, and shielding Correct Ans – D. Time, distance, and shielding
16Ionizing radiation doses should be:A. Monitored only if the radiation worker is a minor or is older than 50 years. B. Administered at the highest level necessary, regardless of a patients’ exposure history.C. Kept as low as reasonably achievable.D. Monitored only if the radiation worker is pregnant Correct Ans -C. Kept as low as reasonably achievable.In health care settings, the primary occupational source of radiation exposure is:A.LasersB.Direct beam radiationC. MRI scannersD. Scatter Correct Ans – D. ScatterLead shielding should be used:A. Only at the discretion of a surgeon or radiologist B. Whenever possible to attenuate radiationC. If a patient or staf f person requests itD. If an ionizing radiation dose to a patient is expected to exceed 20 remCorrect Ans – B. Whenever possible to attenuate radiationA 0.25 mm lead apron will reduce scattered x-rays by approximately: A. 15%B. 25%C. 50%D. 95% Correct Ans – D. 95%Average cumulative radiation exposure has in the past several decadesas a result of changes in medical applications of ionizing radiation:A. DecreasedB. IncreasedC. Remained about the same Correct Ans – B. IncreasedA person who works with radiation is required to be monitored if:A. He or she asks to beB. His or her annual dose is likely to exceed 15 mrem C. He or she is likely to exceed 10% of the dose limitD. He or she is likely to exceed 50% of the dose limit Correct Ans -C. He or she is likely to exceed 10% of the dose limitFor adults who work with radiation, the annual occupational whole body dose limit is:A. 5 rems B. 15 rems
16C. 50 remsD. 500 rems Correct Ans – wrongFor adults who work with radiation, the annual dose limit for the skin/extremities is:A. 5 rems B. 15 remsC. 50 remsD. 500 rems Correct Ans – C. 50 remsFor adults who work with radiation, the annual dose limit for the lens of the eye is:A. 5 rems B. 15 remsC. 50 remsD. 500 rems Correct Ans – B. 15 remsFor minors who work with radiation, the annual dose limit is:A. 10% of adult dose limitsB. 50% of adult dose limits C. 75% of adult dose limitsD. 150% of adult dose limits Correct Ans – A. 10% of adult doselimitsThe dose limit for a fetus is:A. 0.5 rem during the entire pregnancy B. 0.5 rem per monthC. 5 rem during the entire pregnancyD. 5 rem per month Correct Ans -A. 0.5 rem during the entirepregnancyThe linear-no-threshold model assumes that the stochastic effects of radiation:A. Are inversely proportional to the doseB. Are directly proportional to the doseC. Occur only after a certain level of cumulative exposureD. Increase exponentially as exposure increases Correct Ans – B.Are directly proportional to the doseAll of the statements about the proper use of dosimeters (badges) in the workplace are TRUE except for:A.When one dosimeter is used, all personnel should wear it at the sameplace on the bodyB.Badges should be exchanged for assessment and replaced at pre-determined intervals
16C.Badges should not be taken home at the end of the workday
16D.The best place to leave a badge when not in use is on an apron Correct Ans – D. The best place to leave a badge when not in use is onan apronBadges worn by pregnant personnel should be worn at waist level and read every:A. Week B. MonthC. Three monthsD. Six months Correct Ans – B. MonthIf a health care worker who works with radiation becomes pregnant, she should:A.Stop working with any form of radiationB.Promptly inform the radiation safety officer C. Wear a badge at waist level outside her apronD. Switch from a lead apron to a lead-free alternative for comfortCorrect Ans – B. Promptly inform the radiation safety officerThe most serious long-term effect of ionizing radiation exposure is: A. BlindnessB. Osteoporosis C. CancerD. Skin injuries Correct Ans – C. CancerTo minimize patients’ risk of adverse effects from radiation exposure, perioperative nurses should do all of the following except:A. Keep extraneous body parts out of the primary radiation beam B. Place lead shielding between the radiation source and the patientC. Place lead shielding on the opposite side of the patient from the radiation sourceD. Check medical records before radiographic procedures to ensure patientsdo not have substantial amounts of residual radioactive material in their bodies Correct Ans – C. Place lead shielding on the opposite side ofthe patient from the radiation sourceRadiation dose limits for members of the public are rem per year andless than rem in any hour.A. 0.1, 0.002B. 1, 0.02C. 5, 1D. 10, 20 Correct Ans – A. 0.1, 0.002Select the TRUE statement about appropriate handling of shielding garments.A.Protective garments should be discarded annually
16B.Leaded eyewear is not indicated unless personnel are within 6 inches ofthe primary beamC.Protective garments can be evaluated for damage by lining them up and scanning them on a CT tableD.RFIDs contribute to radioactivity and should not be used in equipment protecting against radioactivity Correct Ans – C. Protective garments can be evaluated for damage by lining them up and scanning themon a CT tableAccording to the 2013 American College of Radiology guidelines on MR safety:A. All clinical and research MR sites should maintain MR safety policies.B. An MR medical director should be designated to ensure that safety guidelines are established and updatedC. The MRI suite should be a zero tolerance zone where adverse events,MR safety incidents, or near accidents are promptly reported to the MRmedical directorD. All of the above Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveSelect the behavior or practice that does not conform with the radiation safety principles of time, distance, and shielding.A.Wear a lead-free (lead alternative) garment to protect against direct beam exposureB.Stand on the image detector side of the fluoroscopy system, away fromthe tubeC.Shield the upper legs when standing near the radiation beamD.Stand facing the radiation source or wear a wrap-around apron Correct Ans – A. Wear a lead-free (lead alternative) garment to protect against direct beam exposureWhich is not an appropriate way to decrease exposure to ionizing radiation from patients?A.Shield syringes containing radioactive microspheres (eg, seeds, microbeads)B.Follow universal precautions when patients are treated with I-131 forthyroid cancerC.When patients have undergone diagnostic nuclear medicine studies,handle their body fluids and tissues the same way as for any invasive procedureD.Label sentinel lymph node biopsy specimens as radioactive in accordancewith facility policies Correct Ans – B. Follow universal precautions when patients are treated with I-131 for thyroid cancerWhich cell type or tissue is least sensitive to the effects of ionizing radiation?A. NeuronsB.Bone marrow
16C.GonadsD.Embryonic cells Correct Ans – IncorrectAccording to American College of Radiology guidelines on magnetic resonance (MR) safety:A.patients and non-MR staf f should be allowed to travel freely through ZoneIIB.patients and non-MR staf f should have unrestricted access to Zone IIIC.non-MR staf f should have access to Zone II as long as they are wearing a dosimeterD.access to Zones III and IV should be severely restricted because of therisk of injury or death from magnetic interactions with ferromagnetic materials Correct Ans – D. access to Zones III and IV should be severely restricted because of the risk of injury or death from magnetic interactions with ferromagnetic materialsA woman undergoes standard thoracic radiographs (x-rays) for a chronic cough and enlarged left cervical lymph node. Her prior exposure to ionizing radiation is minimal. The woman later determines that she was approximately 10 days pregnant when the radiographs were taken. This woman most likely has a:A. Substantially increased risk of later developing cancerB. Very small increased risk of later developing cancer C. Substantially increased risk of spontaneous abortionD. Substantially increased risk of having a child with a hereditary defect, such as trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome) Correct Ans – B. Very smallincreased risk of later developing cancerWhen distance from the point source of radiation doubles, ionizing radiation exposure is approximately:A. One quarter of the previous levelB. One third of the previous level C. The same as beforeD. Twice the previous level Correct Ans – IncorrectIn 1920, an organization that developed a standard curriculum of OR techniques wasA. American Medical Association B. AORNC. Bellevue HospitalD. The National League of Nursing Correct Ans – D. The NationalLeague of NursingPerioperative RNs primarily use checklists to ensure that: A. Lawsuits from the patient and their family are avoided B. Surgical supplies are not wasted before or after surgery
16C. Team members begin shifts on scheduleD. The plan of care is implemented correctly before, during, and after surgery Correct Ans – D. The plan of care is implemented correctlybefore, during, and after surgeryThe TIME OUT should be performed by which member(s) of the perioperative team?A. All perioperative team membersB. RN circulatorC. Scrub personD. Surgeon Correct Ans – A. All perioperative team membersThis perioperative RN coordinates the patient’s care in the OR, prepares the OR, and assists the anesthesia professional if requested.A.PACU RNB.Pre-admission RNC. RN circulatorD. RN first assistant Correct Ans – C. RN circulatorWhich of the following best describes the semirestricted area? A. Has work areas for processing and storing instrumentsB.Includes an operating roomC.Permits wearing of street clothesD.Requires that all patients wear masks Correct Ans – A. Has workareas for processing and storing instrumentsWhat statements below are TRUE related to creating and maintaining a sterile field?A.A sterile field should be prepared as near as possible to the start time ofthe surgeryB.Movement of personnel around the sterile field should be minimizedC. The scrub person is a part of the sterile fieldD. All of the aboveE. A and B only Correct Ans – D. All of the aboveApproximately what percentage of serious medical errors are thought to be associated with miscommunication during patient hand-offs?A. < 1%B. 10%C. 50%D. 80%E. 100% Correct Ans – D. 80%Examples of allied healthcare providers include: A. Anesthesia techniciansB. Surgical residents
16C. Surgical technologistsD. All of the aboveE. A and C only Correct Ans – E. A and C onlyPatients who are “fast-tracked” from the OR to the PACU Phase II due to the administration of rapidonset, fast-emergence, general anesthetics may require an increased use of which prophylactic medications?A.AntiemeticsB.AntihypertensivesC. Pain medications D. All of the aboveE. A and C only Correct Ans – E. A and C onlyThe PACU RN observes his patient is more alert and functional and no longerrequires intensive nursing care. The PACU RN focuses on preparing the patient for self-care and care by support persons. Select this patient’s phase in recovery.A. Phase I B. Phase II C. Phase IIID. Phase IVE. Not possible to state based on this information Correct Ans – B.Phase II