MICHIGAN BUILDERS LICENSE EXAM (GENERAL CONTRACTOR) 2023-2024 ATUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE

Created to serve as a complete, comprehensive code regulating the construction of single-family, two-family and buildings consisting of three or more townhouse units.
IRC (International Residential Code)

Administrative
First 2 chapters of code book are

True
Plans or supporting documents are almost always required by the controlling authority prior to issuing a permit. T or F

Yes
Does the building official have the authority to render interpretations of the code?

8 foot fence.
None of the following require a permit, EXCEPT:
sidewalks and driveways
tiling
an 8 foot fence
playground equipment

False
Tables and illustrations are always supported by information found in the written code and footnotes. T or F

Live load.
The amount of evenly distributed weight imposed by inhabitants, goods and removable objects on a floor or roof system is referred to as

True.
If a code requirement is in the book, it is both acceptable and enforceable by the code official. T or F

Figures.
Illustrations are typically referred to as

Determine that buildings are built to the minimum enforceable standard.
Generally speaking, the building official’s job is to

True.
It is required that all manufacturer instructions be at the jobsite at the time of inspection. T or F

Kitchen.
All of the following are not considered habitable spaces EXCEPT:
bathrooms
kitchens
storage spaces
closets

3.
Bathrooms must be provided with an aggregate glazing area no less than _ square feet, half of which must be openable.

44 inches.
The maximum height of an egress window above the floor is

5.7 sq ft.
A basement bedroom must have an egress window with a clear opening of at least __ square feet.

3.
At least one side-hinged exit door must be in each dwelling unit, and must be _ feet wide.

30 inches.
A porch more than _ inches above grade must be provided with 36″ guards.

200.
Wall and ceiling finishes shall have a flame-spread classification of no more than __ .

7 days.
According to code, concrete must reach at least 70% of it’s ability within ____________days.

40%.
A stud used for a non-bearing partitions may not be notched more than __% of the stud width.

Additions, alterations, renovation and repairs.
The Michigan Uniform Energy code applies to new buildings as well as

U-factor.
_ is a measure of how well the window or door assembly conducts heat. The lower the number, the better insulation the assembly will provide.

50%.
Energy losses from recessed lighting fixtures can often reach _% of the total thermal loss of a ceiling.

R-3.
Michigan requires a minimum thermal resistance of ____________for mechanical system piping.

True.
Oversized HVAC equipment has a higher initial cost, a higher operating cost, provides less comfort, and shorter life expectancy. T or F

Prescriptive Path.
_ is the compliance route that applies Table 402.1.1 to building envelope components, and is considered the most simple.

Area weighted averages.
_ can be used to satisfy U-factor and SHGC requirements.

IC (Insulation Contact)
Recessed lights must be _ rated.

True.
Up to 15 square feet of glazing per dwelling unit is exempted from U-value requirements. T or F

Registered design professional.
The 2009 IECC requires a permanent certificate posted on the electrical distribution panel. The certificate shall be completed by the builder or

State energy code requirements.
One hurdle contractors face when bidding for an energy efficient project is choosing materials that fit the design, and also meet

False.
Historically significant buildings are not exempt from code changes. T or F

R-value
Settled thickness
Manufacturer name
Insulation products (blown and sprayed) must be documented with:

March 2011.
The new Michigan codes took effect in

10.
Below grade walls are insulated from the top of the basement wall down to _ below grade, or the basement floor, whichever is less.

Area weighted average.
The _ is the combined Solar Heat Gain Coefficient of all the glazed fenestration products in the building.

Thermal insulation R-values
Design criteria
Equipment systems
Plans and specifications must be detailed in regards to:

2009.
In Michigan, the residential energy code is based on the _ IECC, with certain amendments.

Air leakage.
_ is the rate of air infiltration in the presence of a specific pressure differential.

Windows
Attic access hatches
Recessed lights
Air leakage is the random movement of air into and out of __ through cracks and holes.

Table 402.1.1
2009 IECC
R-values for insulation and fenestration requirements by component can be found in

International Energy Conservation Code
IECC

U-factor and UA alternatives.
The _ compliance method allows for more innovative construction techniques like SIPs or Advanced Framing.

500 sq feet
R-30 is permitted in vaulted ceilings, but is limited to

True.
Floor insulation must be installed to maintain permanent and continuous contact with the underside of the subfloor decking. T or F

5, 6 and 7.
Michigan falls into climate zones

False.
It is permissible for supply ducts to be run through the framing cavities of a residential building. T or F

IC rated (Insulation Contact)
__ means an electrical fixture has been tested and listed as suitable for installation in a cavity where the fixture may come in contact with insulation.

3%.
According to the Dept. of Energy, improved energy codes could reduce CO2 emissions by

300 sq ft.
Attic insulation markers must be installed every _ square feet.

True.
Buildings that are exempted from the new regulations are those with very low energy use or ones that are neither heated or cooled. T or F

Yes.
A contractor needs to remove a non-load bearing wall, does he need to pull a permit?

No.
A concrete contractor has been hired by an owner to install a driveway and sidewalks. The lot is flat and the concrete is being place on undisturbed earth with a prepared base. Does the contractor need to pull a permit?

Yes.
A permit has been issued for a building project and there is a code infraction in the building plans that has been overlooked by the building official. Can the building official require a correction to a project that they previously overlooked?

Health department.
Who issues a well and septic permit?

200 sq. feet.
IRC R105
Permits are not required for one story detached accessory structures not exceeding:

The next business day.
If work requiring a permit is provided in an emergency situation, the permit application must be submitted within:

True.
If an inspection official is refused entry to a building project, the official will have recourse to the remedies provided by law which include securing a warrant from the court and returning with an officer of the law.

No.
IRC R104.8
Can a building official be held liable for any damage occurring to persons or property as a result of their actions or inaction?

Yes.
An owner needs a foundation wall repaired, it has seriously buckled due to excessive lateral loading from soil pressure. Does the contractor need to pull a permit?

6 ft.
IRC R105.2
Although contractors should check for restrictive covenants and local zoning requirements, a permit isn’t required from the building official for installing a fence not over _ tall.

180 days.
If a permit is applied for but not yet approved and the applicant is not persueing approval after______ days the application will be considered abandoned.

Yes.
Can a building official revoke a Certificate of Occupancy?

True.
When a project requiring a permit has commenced prior to the issuance of a permit, the building official is authorized to charge an additional fee. T or F

450
Foam plastic is used as insulation. The flame spread index cannot exceed 75 and the smoke development index cannot exceed

8″.
Foam plastic used for interior trim shall have a maximum thickness of 1/2″ and a maximum width of

10%.
Foam plastic interior trim must not constitute more than __ of the total wall and ceiling area of any room or space.

1/2″.
Foam plastic used as insulation in walls must be separated by an approved thermal barrier. What is the minimum thickness of gypsum wall board being used as a thermal barrier for spray foam insulated walls?

Framing.
Which of these inspections happens last?
Mechanical rough
Plumbing rough
Framing
Electrical rough

Yes.
A retaining wall will be five feet tall from the bottom of the footing to the top of the wall. Do you need to pull a permit?

At the time of inspection.
Your building is utilizing engineered products such as engineered floor joists. When do the installation instructions need to be available at the work site?

1 3/8″ solid wood
1 3/8″ honeycomb core
20 minute fire rated
Any of the above
A door directly between a garage and a residence shall never open directly into a sleeping room. The door must also be

1 1/4″
The nosing for stairs shall not be less than 3/4″ but not be more than

No.
A front porch is 25 inches above the grade below. Are guards required to be installed?

False.
If a smoke alarm is in a bedroom, it doesn’t need to be right outside the bedroom also.

1/2″
If spray foam insulation is used to insulate a wall, what is the minimum thickness of drywall needed to cover the foam plastic?

200
Finishing materials used for walls and ceiling shall have a flame-spread index not to exceed

No.
Wood joists are 19″ above exposed ground. Do they have to be preservative treated or naturally durable wood?

True.
You may bulldoze, grade and remove tree stumps in a wetland as long as you have a permit.

True.
Current code requires that the lowest floors in newly constructed buildings in flood hazard areas not located in designated Coastal A Zones, must have the lowest floors elevated to or above the 100-year design flood elevation. T or F

Cohesive, granular, organic.
What are the three basic soil types?

Reduce settling
Provide stability
Increase load-bearing capacity
The principal reasons to understand soil composition are to:

150 yards
If a excavating company needs to haul away 125 yards of bank soil that will swell 20% how many yards of loose soil will they haul away?

Setback.
The exact location of property lines should be determined early in the design phase in order to comply with __ requirements.

True.
A garden shed over 200 square feet will require a permit.code T or F

Bulldozer.
What tool would you use to peel back topsoil?

Cutting into
Piling soil over
Compacting
_ the root system of a tree during construction can potentially kill it.

Builders level.
You would use a __ to determine a floor is level, but this tool would not help determine if a wall is plumb.

1/2 inch.
The condition of erosion control devices must be checked after a rainfall event of _ or more within a 24 hour period.

15 feet from the property line.
A side yard easement of 15 feet means your building structure must be:

Who set the monument
When was it set
Where was it set
You can identify survey monuments by the following

Easements.
Public _ provide utilities access to run lines or pipes across or under your property.

Fill.
A deposit of earth material placed by artificial means is called

True.
Grading is changing the earth surface by either excavating or filling or a combination of both. T or F

Rough grade.
The stage at which the grade approximately conforms to approved plans is called:

True.
Water wells should be located on the opposite side or uphill side of the house from the drainfield. T or F

Lifts.
When back filling around the foundation the soil should be compacted in __ of 6 inches at a time.

True.
The ablility to achieve maximum density when compacting soil requires that the soil has it’s optimum moistute content. T or F

True.
The heavier the plates are on a vibratoty plate compactor the more compaction force it will generate. T or F

False.
All soil types have the same optimum moisture content for compaction.

Plot plan and site plan.
Which drawing shows the shape and boundary lines of a lot, as well as locating the building, driveway, sidewalks, well and septic system, elevation contours, etc.
Plot Plan
Site plan
Elevation plan
Both A and B

Proctor test
Sand cone test
Nuclear density test
What is a method of determining soil density?

Without adequate moisture or containing too much water.
It is virtually impossible to compact soil
without adequate moisture
containing too much water
with optimum moisture content
both A and B

Point of reference or a benchmark.
A basic starting point from which measurements in building layout can be made using a transit or builders level is called a

All of the above.
When building in a floodplain, special precaution must be made concerning:
flood resistant construction.
determining the design flood elevation.
placing the lowest floor at the proper elevation.
all of the above

Parking vehicles , building access or storage.
When building in a floodplain, enclosed areas below the design flood elevation will be used solely for

True.
Increasing the weight of the plates on vibratory plate compactors is the best way to increase their efficiency. T or F

True.
Rammers are the most efficient compactor to use in clay (cohesive) soils. T or F

Avoid raising or lowering the grade around the trees
Bore under the tree roots instead of trenching for Utility installations
Barricade the area around the trees keeping heavy equipment off
Special precautions should be taken with desirable trees on a building site to avoid injuring and even killing them such as:

True.
The optimum moisture content for soil compaction will depend on the type of soil being compacted.

Moisture content.
Proper ___ is the most important factor in efficient soil compaction.

Shoring up the side walls.
Three methods of preparing an excavated hole to prevent cave-ins are: 1) providing the correct angle of repose for the specific soil type, 2) the benching method and 3)_______________________.

5 feet.
If an excavation is more than _, an adequate protective system from cave-ins must be utilized.

True.
Grading is changing the earth surface by either excavating or filling or a combination of both.

Removing vegetation, noncomplying fill and topsoil.
Before filling, the ground must be prepared to receive fill. An example of this would be:

Final grade.
Site vision GPS systems are installed on bulldozers to help establish :

Lifts.
When compacting soils, soils should be compacted in ________ of 6 inches. This will provide for proper compaction through all levels.

Slope.
A ground surface inclination expressed as a ratio of horizontal distance to vertical distance is called

Hand shovel.
How should the excavator remove excess soil from beneath a buried electrical line?

Prevent evaporation.
There are two ways to insure proper curing of concrete: apply water to make up for water lost due to evaporation, and

True.
When pouring concrete, the concrete should be placed near its required point. Excessive handling of the concrete weakens it. T or F

Never acceptable.
Pouring concrete on frozen earth is:

1/2″
The diameter of a No. 4 deformed bar is:

All of the above.
Which of the following are true in regard to cold-weather construction?
calcium chloride is added to concrete to help it set quickly.
insulation of straw, hay, or polyethylene is placed around concrete footings.
concrete block walls are usually laid with heated mortar.
all of the above

1/4 the thickness.
When sawing a control joint in a concrete slab, the joint must be a minimum of how deep?

Middle one third.
Rebar placement for a footing should be in the ____________ of the footing depth.

Chairs.
The most precise way of positioning rebar for a slab is to use:

True.
Chairs are classified according to their degree of rust protection. Class #1 is the maximum protection, class #2 is moderate protection, and class #3 is no protection. T or F

Curing.
Proper ______ prevents most problems in the finished concrete. Methods used to ensure a high quality, finished product, include a sprayed on membrane curing compound, polyethylene sheets, waterproof paper or wet burlap.

Slump cone.
A _____ is a 12″ high cone which determines the amount of water in the mix.

5% to 7%
In cases of severe cold weather exposure, the air content in a concrete mix should be about:

Scale or spall.
If concrete is exposed to de-icers and it is not air entrained, it will:

Scaling.
When concrete becomes flaky and fragmented on the surface, this is called:

One quarter the space between side forms
Three quarters the space between reinforcing bars
One third the depth of the slab on ground
The maximum size aggregate is limited to the lesser of:

150 lbs.
How much does one cubic foot of concrete weigh?

28 days.
Concrete is considered to be fully cured or set after ______________days.

True.
Air entrainment protects concrete from frost damage, but also makes concrete more workable. For that reason, not as much water is necessary for the mix. T or F

Retarders.
On hot sunny days in the summertime, a contractor may decide to use __ to slow down the setting time of concrete.

Cement, sand, water, and gravel.
Concrete is made by mixing:

Cause it to shrink more
Weaken it
Cause it to crack more
Adding too much water to a concrete mix will ___ it.

Screeding
_____ concrete is the process of leveling the freshly poured concrete before it is floated.

True
Floating of the freshly screeded concrete is accomplished with a wood or magnesium bullfloat which smoothes out, levels, compacts and brings the small particles to the surface for finishing. T or F

Power trowel.
On large areas, it may be necessary to use a ______ to finish the surface area.

Non-slip surface.
On sidewalk surfaces, it is necessary to broom the surface of concrete to provide a:

Cure.
It is necessary to maintain the temperature above 50 degrees in order for concrete to properly:

2″
Welded wire mesh should be placed _ from the top of concrete slab surface.

Efflorescence.
The white salty powder that forms on the finished surface of concrete is called

Slab.
A concrete floor may also be called a:

The top cures faster.
Concrete slabs on grade have a tendency to curl because:

Power screed.
As concrete is placed in a form it needs to be leveled off. This can be done manually or mechanically with a

Movement, expansion or contraction.
A control joint allows for what?

To slow down the setting time of concrete.
What is the purpose of adding retarders to a concrete mixture?

Water reducers.
What is added to make concrete more workable with less water?

10′
A one car driveway should have a minimum width of?

18′
A two car wide driveway is usually how wide?

3″
Where concrete is cast against and permanently exposed to the earth, reinforcement steel should be ______ from the earth.

Increase the slump to the level specified in the mix design.
In most specifications, adding water to a batch of concrete is permitted only one time at the job site as long as the water/cement ratio is not exceeded. This would be done in order to:

Lower the cement factor and increase the size of the aggregate.
A method to prevent cast concrete from excessive shrinking is to:

Control random cracking.
Contraction joints, also known as control joints, in a slab are used to:

Movement
Isolation joints isolate differing parts of a structure to permit independent:

Construction joints.
____________ are a convenient way to limit the size of the placement of concrete to a manageable volume and are a stopping place for a day’s work.

Base.
For a slab placed below grade, it is necessary to provide at least 4″ of crushed gravel or stone. This should be compacted. It will prevent moisture from collecting under the slab. This 4″ area is known as ____________.

At least 12 hours.
The timing for the removal of forms is important. The concrete has to achieve a strength great enough to support its own weight and the weight of any construction loads placed upon it. General guidelines for wall and column form removal is _____________ after placement.

Rich concrete.
Concrete that has a lot of Portland cement in the mix may be referred to as:

Improves ductility and reduces surface cracks.
What is the reason for using fiber reinforcement in concrete?

Form release agent (oil).
What is used to prevent concrete from sticking to wood forms?

Calcium chloride.
The most commonly used additive to help concrete set rapidly and more cohesively is:

Tool for leveling concrete.
What is a screed?

90 minutes.
With the exception of special conditions, maximum delivery time between the water being mixed with the Portland cement in batching and the time of completion of discharge from a transit-mix truck is

Prevent cracks from opening.
What is the sole purpose for welded wire fabric in a floor slab?

True.
The reason for tying reinforcing bars with tie wire is to keep the rebar in place while pouring. It does not add any additional stength to the concrete. T or F

Stay-in-place forms.
Concrete slabs poured above grade are often supported by ribbed or corrugated steel decking. These forms are called

False.
Rebar is placed in concrete mainly to improve its compression strength. T or F

16 gauge soft annealed.

What is the usual size of tie wire for rebar placement?

Temperature reinforcement.
Reinforcing steel placed to resist the stresses due to shrinkage and weather changes is called

27
Ready mix concrete is purchased by the cubic yard, which is how many cubic feet?

The curing process.
The thermal process known as hydration refers to:

Determining water mix in concrete.
A slump cone is a metal cone used for:

Air entraining agents.
What admixture is used to improve the durability of concrete that is exposed to freezing and thawing?

Reinforcing rod or welded wire.
Reinforced concrete is accomplished by adding:

1/4 inch.
The term “fine aggregate” refers to well-graded gravel up to:

Has more workability and is more watertight.
In comparison to regular concrete, air entrained concrete:

Making concrete more durable in freeze/thaw conditions.
Air entrainment is used for what?

Hydration
When water is added to Portland cement it causes the mass to harden. This reaction is called:

Calcium chloride.
Accelerators speed up the curing process. Which of the following is an accelerator?

True.
Concrete cures best in cool, damp environments. T or F

Durability
Surface soundness
Reducing cracking
Besides ensuring the proper strength of concrete, proper curing of concrete also aids in:

12″
R1003.2 Chimneys
What is the minimum thickness of concrete footings for fireplaces?

3 1/2″
What is the minimum thickness of concrete used for floors on grade?

Hot days and large pours with small crews
Retarders slow down the setting time of concrete allowing more time for finishing. This is especially useful on:

True.
When pouring concrete directly on earth for exterior purposes such as driveways and side walks, if the base is dry it will tend to draw the moisture out of the concrete prematurely. It’s a good idea to moisten the base prior to the pour, no puddles though.

Concrete not being air entrained
Overworking while finishing air entrained concrete Exposure to deicers within 30 days of the pour
Scaling of concrete is caused by?

True.
Concrete with larger aggregate will need less air entrainment. T or F

Sand and water.
When air entrainment is used the amount of _ in the mix is reduced. T or F

Cool damp conditions.
Concrete cures best in?

Once.
Transit mix concrete allows for water to be added to the mix __ at the jobsite.

Hydrolic cement or epoxy injection.
To repair a crack in a concrete foundation wall use

Slope the ground away from the wall 5%
Use impermeable backfill at the building perimeter
Install downspouts that carry water away from the foundations
The best way to avoid moisture problems below grade is to:

House wrap.
_ allows water vapor molecules to pass through, while keeping out liquid rain water.

Siding.
__ is the first line of defense against moisture coming in contact with the wall framing, insulation and interior wall finishing.

6″
Exterior wood framed walls, sheathed walls and wood sidings that are less than __” above finished grade must be made of either naturally durable wood or preservative treated wood.

1 1/4 inch
The minimum horizontal lap for fiber cement siding is

U-factor.
The IECC defines _ as: The rate at which a window, door, or skylight conducts non-solar heat flow

True.
The lower the U-factor, the more energy efficient the window is. T or F

Storm doors
Hot tub enclosure
Unframed swinging doors
Which of the following areas require safety glazing?

30″
The International Residential Code requires a cricket or saddle built immediately upslope and behind any chimney wider than __“.

14 1/2 inches
What is the actual distance between studs that are placed at 16″ O.C.?

Moisture to escape.
Housewrap is a special infiltration barrier on the outside surface of the wall sheathing that is installed before the siding is installed. It’s high tech design prevents air infiltration while still allowing:

Which is 6 inches of drop over 10 feet.
The required slope for the grade around a home away from the foundation is least 5 % for the first 10 feet.

6 inches.
Exposed insulating material applied to the exterior of foundation walls shall be protected to a minimum depth of _ below the finished grade.

Michigan Uniform Energy Code
MUEC

True.
To help keep rain water from the roof from saturating the soil around the foundation use a less permeable top-soil or a clay cap at grade so water more effectively moves away from the foundation. T or F

Conduction, convection and radiation.
What are the three methods of heat transmission?

Warm side in winter.
Where should a vapor barrier be placed on an exterior wall?

An indication of a materials ability to reduce heat transmission.
What does R-value represent?

True.
Flashing is required above all window and door openings as well as above all horizontal projecting trims that do not have ship lap or built-in flashing edges. T or F

3
When crawl spaces are naturally ventilated a ventilation opening is required with __ feet of each corner.

R-1
Wood that is one inch in thickness has approximately what R-value?

True.
Homes with uninsulated crawl space foundation walls require insulation that is in permanent and continuous contact with the underside of the subfloor decking. T or F

True.
When installing foam board sheathing using adhesives a solvent adhesive will damage the foam board. T or F

True.
1/2 inch gypsum board has an R- value of .45, softwood lumber has an R- value of 1.25 per inch. T or F

True.
Ventilation baffles insure that the required air space below the roof sheathing isn’t obstructed by insulation materials. T ot F

Paperbacking on batt insulation
Polyethylene sheeting
Closed cell sprayfoam insulation
In cold climates like Michigan It’s important to have a vapor retarder on the inside surface of exterior walls behind the finished wall surface. this can be accomplished with?

8″
When a fireplace lining of firebrick at least 2″ in thickness is installed, the total minimum thickness of the back and side wall is _____, including the firebrick.

1″ minimum to 4 1/2″ maximum.
The air space between brick siding and the plywood sheathing should be:

Weep holes.
To insure that water moisture is not trapped behind brick veneer, small holes are made in the joints of the lowest course of bricks. These holes are called:

Running.
Which brick pattern is the strongest?

2.67
Brick ties should be placed not more than every 2 feet horizontally, and vertically so that no more than _ square feet are supported by one tie.

Lime.
What ingredient, when increased in mortar, decreases strength but increases workability?

Pilaster
A masonry column that is used to support other structural members is called:

Fireplace flues should be kept straight as possible, but furnace flue direction can change within code limitations.
When building flues for fireplaces or furnaces:

Flue.
The passageway in a chimney which allows the smoke and fumes to escape is the:

Width.
A 12″ masonry block is referring to what?

16 plus 2 full corners.
How many concrete blocks are needed to lay one course of 8x8x16 blocks in a wall that is 24 feet long?

Key stone.
The center stone in the middle of an arch is called?

Corner leads.
When constructing a masonry building using block, the __ are laid first.

3 feet.
What is the minimum height of a chimney located at the ridge of a roof?

Thin set.
What is the mortar base used when laying ceramic flooring?

Add proper amount of sand and mortar.
How would you thicken mortar that has too much water in it?

Sufficiently braced.
Backfill shall not be placed against the wall until the wall has sufficient strength and has been anchored to the floor above or has been __ to prevent damage.

water.
Mortar is a mixture of lime, Portland cement, sand and

2-1/2
When the air temperature is above 80F, mortar should be used within _ hours after originally mixed.

True.
Masonry units shall be dry before placing. T or F

3/8″
Concrete blocks are __ shorter in all dimensions (length, width and height) than the nominal dimensions.

8′
Bracing is required when a masonry wall exceeds __ while under construction.

Add water and thoroughly remix.
To retemper mortar that has stiffened:

3/4″
The minimum allowable bed joint for a starting course on a footing is 1/4″ and the maximum allowable is

3/8″ to 1/2″
Other than the starting course, horizontal bed joints for masonry shall be:

32-3/8″ x 40-3/8″
Constructing a panel using 8″ nominal glass block, with the block being four blocks wide and five blocks high, what should the size of the opening be, in order to maintain the bond of the surrounding blocks in the wall?

7-3/4″ x 7-3/4″ x 3-7/8″
What is the actual size of a nominal 8″ square glass block?

Hydraulic cement
What product is a non-corrosive, non-rusting and non-shrinking material that is best used to seal cracks in masonry and concrete?

Diamond tip blade.
What blade would you use to cut brick with?

1-1/2
Grout shall not be used after _ hours after originally mixed.

Prior to mixing, heat sand and water to produce mortar above 40 degrees
In cold weather, to prevent mortar from freezing

Closure block
The block which fills the final gap in a course between corners is called the:

Bed joints
In constructing a stack bond joint, #9 gage steel reinforcement is required in every other course. The joint reinforcement is placed horizontally in the:

3/8″
Bed joints are horizontal joints. The first course of bed joints can’t be less than 1/4″ or more than 3/4″. Ideally, all joints should be:

9 gauge wire
Wall ties are either #22 gauge galvanized sheet metal or:

8″
Masonry walls for fireplaces shall not be less than __ in thickness where a firebrick lining is used.

20″
The firebox shall not be less than _ in depth.

1/4″
Joints in fire brick shall not exceed:

hearth
The fireplace ________ shall be composed of brick, concrete, stone or other approved noncombustible materials and not be less than 4″ thick.

8″
The throat in the fireplace shall not be less than _ above the fireplace opening and shall not be less than 4″ in depth.

muriatic acid
Mix 15 parts water to one part ____________ to remove efflorescence and excess mortar from the face of brick that has recently been laid.

True.
Mortar bearing surfaces of glass block have rough edges to form a good bond with mortar. T or F

raking
Removing fresh mortar from a fresh joint is called:

width
In an 8″ cement block, this measurement refers to:

3/8″ shorter than its nominal dimensions
A standard concrete block is:

U
A lintel block is what shape?

3-5/8″x 8″ x 2-1/4″
What are the dimensions of a standard non-modular brick?

lintel
Where would a mason use angle iron?

to keep moisture from getting between the bricks and the flue
Why does a brick chimney have a cement cap on it?

minimum #9 gage wire
corrosion resistant sheet metal
When laying bricks, what are the brick ties made of?

16″
What is the minimum hearth extension in front of a fireplace with less than 6 sq.ft. of opening?

20″
When the fireplace opening is more than 6 sq.ft. the hearth extension in front of the opening must be at least?

12″
When the fireplace opening is 6 sq.ft. or larger the hearth extension for each side must be at least?

8″
When the fireplace opening is less than 6 sq.ft. the hearth extension must be how much wider on each side than the opening?

2′ higher than a point on the roof that is 10′ on a horizontal measurement
When the chimney is located on the slope of the roof the chimney must be how much higher?

6″
Solid masonry walls in one story buildings may be of __ nominal width when not over 9 feet in height.

8″
With the exception of a solid masonry wall for one story buildings, all other load-bearing exterior walls shall have a minimum thickness of:

solid masonry units
Masonry fireplaces shall be constructed of:

the shell is thicker at the center of the block
there is more room to place the reinforcement bars
the two hole block is stronger than the three hole block
Two hole blocks are preferred over three hole blocks for reinforce block walls because

True.
Block wall can be reinforced with steel rods call rebar. t or F

M and S
What two mortar types are allowed for foundations?

post and beam and
timber framing
CBC p. 374
Long spans between bearing points require floor and roof sheathing to be 2″ nominal tongue and groove planks, or tongue and groove plywood that is 1-1/8″ thick in this framing method.

16 inches
What is the most common spacing of floor joists?

use proper bridging
To stiffen floor construction, a builder should:

the ribbon
In balloon framing, the second floor joists rest on

rigidity and strength to floor joists
Bridging is used to provide:

either doubled or laddered
Bearing walls running above and parallel to the floor joists require that the floor joists be:

all walls
Typically there is a double plate on the wall frame over:

within the middle 1/3 rd of the span
Joists should not be notched:

boards with few knots or irregularities.
In lumber classification, Firsts and seconds (FAS) is best described as:

strength and stiffness
Floor joists are selected mainly on the basis of:

three 8d nails
For nailing ceiling joists to the top plate you should use at least:

19/32″ particle board
For a fire stop, you should not use:

False
Temporary ground bracing for roof trusses is only done by bracing from the ground. T F

soleplate to the top plate
In platform construction the wall studs extend from the:

king stud
What is the name of the full-length stud that a jack stud is fastened to?

to which rafter ends are attached
The ridge board is the horizontal member at the peak of the roof:

8 feet
When floors require bridging, use one row of 1 x 3 or 2 x 2 wood; or metal bracing for spans over _.

two 16 D
To secure studs to either the top or bottom plates, how many face nails are used?

the notch cut on the underside of a rafter to fit the top plate
A bird’s mouth is:

matched lumber
Boards that are shaped to form a tongue-and-groove joint at the edge are called?

framing
Timber, balloon, post and beam, and platform refer to the four basic kinds of:

bottom chord
The lowest horizontal member of a truss is called a:

1/360 of the span
The deflection of floor joists should not exceed _____.

prevent the spread of flames
The purpose of a fire wall is to

allow for a sloping ceiling of an interior space
The scissors truss could be used to:

1 1/2″
What is the minimum amount of bearing area if a joist is placed over a girder or sillplate?

6d common nail
You are nailing a 1/2″ x 4′ x 8′ wood structural panel sheeting on an exterior wall. What is the minimum size nail to use?

gusset
The name for the metal or wood plate used to strengthen the joints of a truss is:

22″ x 30″
What is the minimum size rough framed attic access hole?

2-8d
How many and what size nail(s) should the carpenter use when nailing a 1X4 wood corner brace to a 2X4 wall frame?

2-8d
How many and what size nail(s) should the carpenter use when nailing a metal corner brace to a 2X6 wall frame?

doubled
When framing for large openings in the floor, the joist and header should be:

2 rows
One row of bridging is installed for a joist over 8′ long and ______ for a joist over 16′ long.

the joints must be staggered
When installing square edge or tongue and groove plywood subflooring:

at the top and bottom of each stair run
Firestopping for enclosed stairs are required:

1000 square feet
According to the International Residential Code draft stopping is required in all ceiling and floor openings larger than:

4″ x 4″
When using lumber for a post or column, the minimum size is:

True
Joists shall be supported laterally at the ends by full depth solid blocking not less than 2″ nominal thickness, or by attachment to a header, band or rim joist, or to an adjoining stud. T F

True
CBC p. 388
The most common mistake when using joist hangers is to use too few nails. T F

balloon
If the studs run from the mudsill to the top plate of the second floor, what type of framing method is being used?

rafters
Position of the ceiling joists should be coordinated with:

or normally run across the narrow span of the building
Ceiling joists usually:

a strip for joists to rest on
A ledger is:

3
Joists resting on beams or girders must overlap a minimum of how many inches, if they don’t run continuous?

hangers
If joists are to be framed flush with the top of a wood girder, it is best to use:

two # 8D
How many nails do you use on each end of wood bridging?

face of the finished walls
The inside measurements of a room are made from the:

plumb cut
The cut made in a rafter so that it fits against the ridge board is the:

is glued and nailed directly to the joists
When installing a glued floor system, the subflooring:

2 – 8d nails
Where the wood wind braces cross each stud you should use:

Douglas fir
Which of these is not a hardwood:
oak
willow
Douglas fir
maple

eight 16d nails
When notching or drilling a hole in the top plate of a load bearing or exterior wall, if the hole or notch exceeds 50% of the top plates width, you must provide a galvanized metal tie that is a minimum of 16 gauge, 1-1/2 inches wide across each side of the opening with:

not be closer than 2″ to the top or bottom of the joist
Holes drilled into floor joists for piping shall not exceed 1/3 of the depth of the joist and:

1-1/2″ x 3-1/2″
What is the actual dressed size of a 2×4 stud?

cripple studs
CBC p. 449
What is the name of short vertical wall framing members used below window openings?

to layout windows and doors
For what reason would you use a story pole?

5/8″
Holes bored in a single stud in exterior walls and bearing walls shall not exceed 40% of the stud depth and not be closer than ______ to the edge of the stud.

joist, posts, girders and sills
Floor framing consists of:

10d nails, 32″ o.c.
When making a wood girder using 2″ lumber, you should use _ nails for each layer and nails should be spaced _ at tops and bottoms and staggered, with 2 nails at each end and at each splice.

20 lbs.
Roof assemblies subject to wind uplift pressures of __ per square foot or greater require approved connectors between the top plate and rafter or truss.

True
Walls can be braced with the materials that cover them as long as the material provides the structural strength. T F

a load bearing wall
Where practical, an I-beam can be replaced in residential construction by:

soleplate
The bottom horizontal member of a wall frame in platform construction is called a:

top plate
The horizontal member located at the top of a wall frame is called:

noncorrosive
The best type of nail to attach a 4 x 8 sheet of exterior plywood used as siding or soffit, above grade is:

between the roof and chimney
A saddle is used:

between the roof and a chimney
A cricket is used:

bridging
Bracing which prevents joists from moving side to side is called:

45
Diagonal bracing (corner or wind) is normally installed at a __ degree angle.

crown up
Rafters and floor joists should be installed with the:

sag
Deflection could be defined as:

all TCTLB are installed and bearing attachments are made
A carpenter should never release the truss being installed from the lifting sling until_________.

ground bracing
When preparing to set roof trusses, substantial _ of the first truss is critical for the proper installation and safety concerns of the project.

corner brace
The diagonal member in a wall frame is a:

veneer grade
The mark C-D stamped on a sheet of plywood refers to the:

platform framing
The type of wall framing most often built on a horizontal surface and then tilted up is called:

3-16d nails, 16″ o.c.
The required fastening for securing a sole plate to a joist or blocking at braced wall panels is:

Easily adapted to prefabrication
It does not require unusually long lengths of lumber
On multi-story buildings, firestops are built into the construction
What would be an advantage of platform frame construction over balloon frame construction?

lay out wall locations on the subfloor
The first step in wall framing is to:

stud locations
When laying out the soleplate, lay out door and window openings, partitions and ___.

32″ roof sheathing and 16″ subflooring
A sheet of plywood stamped 32/16 has a maximum span of:

36″
The minimum hall width in a single family dwelling is:

perpendicular to joists
Recommended installation of sheet subflooring over joists is:

the top of the bridging is nailed before, and the bottom is nailed after the subfloor is nailed
When should bridging be installed?

sill sealer
The material placed between the sill plate and the top of the foundation wall is called:

4′ o.c.
CBC p. 411
Floor joists running parallel to and supporting bearing walls shall be doubled. If the wall will contain plumbing or heating ducts, the joist can be separated by blocking. The blocking must be cut from the same size stock as the floor joists and spaced no more than:

headers
What is used over doors/windows openings to transfer superimposed loads to vertical members

24 inches on center
Studs (2×4) carrying ceiling and roof loads only, may be spaced a maximum of:

metal wind bracing or
1 x 4 wood let-in to the studs
When framing walls, corner bracing may be:

jack or trimmer stud
A vertical framing member that extends from the soleplate to the header is called:

connect the walls together
stabilize the walls
transfer the loading
The double top plate on a wall is needed to:

W or Fink
In residential construction the most commonly used truss is:

3 3/4″
The maximum size hole that may be bored into a 12″ floor joist is:

material cost savings
labor cost savings
no need for interior bearing walls
The main reason contractors use pre-built trusses:

sills and girders
Floor joists should support the weight of the floor between the:

APA
Plywood testing and rating is performed by:

12″
A chimney 48″ wide is running parallel to the ridge of the roof. What must be the height of the cricket, as measured from the base of the chimney at the upper roof surface intersection, to the ridge of the cricket? The pitch of the roof is 6″ in 12″.

8 feet
IRC R802.5.1
Purlins are supported by braces no less than 2″ x 4″ that span between the rafter and a bearing wall below. The brace cannot have an angle greater than 45 degrees from horizontal and the brace cannot exceed __ in length.

web stiffeners
When installing I-Joists using hangers, if the sides of the hanger do not extend at least 3/8th” up the I-Joist top flange, _ should be installed preventing the joist from moving side to side.

5″ x 5″
Structural timber is lumber that is __ or larger.

True
CBC pp. 374-375
Post and beam framing is rigid enough not to require sheathing for structural stability. T F

knee wall
CBC p. 904
A half height wall often found in 1 1/2 story homes with a roof pitch steep enough to provide attic living space is called a:

True
Interior soffits need to have fireblocking installed in the wall at or lower than the lowest part of the soffit. T F

solid wood
1″ x 3″ cross bridging
metal straps cross bracing
CBC p. 410
Floor joists taller than 12″ require bridging which can be:

30 lbs.
Floors in residential construction are engineered to have a minimum of 40 pounds per square foot with the exception of sleeping areas, which can be at:

collar ties
CBC p. 543
A horizontal framing member that prevents opposing rafter pairs from spreading apart and rafters from bowing in under a load are:

species
To determine a maximum span for a floor joist, one first has to know the spacing, the grade, the dimension and the _ of the lumber.

Deflection = 1/360th of the span
At the top of span tables for floor joists, what does L/triangle (symbol) = 360 mean?

diagonal 1″ x 4″ let-in to studs or
diagonal metal strips
If a building is to be sheathed with continuous rigid foam exterior sheathing, braced walls can be constructed with:

45 to 60
Diagonal corner bracing must be installed at a __ degree angle.

sole
The lowest horizontal member of a stud wall frame is a _ plate.

3-16d nails 16″ o.c.
What is the minimum fastening of the soleplate to joist or blocking at braced wall panels?

are easier to install
create a stiffer floor
are less likely to squeak
CBC p. 421
Plywood and OSB have replaced 1″ boards for sub-flooring nailed diagonally across the floor joist because they:

studs
CBC pp. 432-434
A king, jack, trimmer and cripple are all?

King, Fink (W), and Scissors
What are the three most commonly used trusses on homes?

sill plate (mudsill)
CBC p. 269
The lowest horizontal framing member fastened to the top of the foundation wall is a _ .

notching
boring holes
making cuts
When using engineered wood products, what action is prohibited without the permission of the manufacturer or registered design professional?

Weight from building materials and permanent mechanical systems
What is meant by the term dead load?

live load
IRC Table R301.5
Weight that a floor, attic floor, balcony, deck, stairs, or even railing system is designed to support is called _

8d nail 6″ o.c.
Rim joists are required to be fastened to the top plate a minimum of :

24″
Joints in double top plates must be offset from a joint in the lower plate by at least:

band joists
rim joists
Joists that rest on the sill plate and run parallel with the foundation walls around the perimeter are called __.

dormer
CBC p. 518
A roof projection from a slanted roof which typically includes a window and also provides more headroom is a __

True
Panelized wall systems are either open or closed. Buildings with a closed panelized wall system have the plumbing and electrical systems enclosed in the wall as well as the insulation and interior wall finish. T F

soffit or
bulkhead
CBC p. 460
Where ceilings are lowered above cabinets in kitchens, and where lighting is installed in bathrooms is called a:

4
Openings in a roof, ceiling, or floor when the header span is longer than __ feet, require that both the headers and the trimmer joist or rafter be doubled.

6
Openings in a roof, ceiling, or floor where a header is longer than _ feet require that approved hangers be used at the connection between the doubled header and the doubled trimmer joist or rafter.

purlin
CBC p. 544
What is a horizontal framing member that supports roof loads and transfers them to structural supports?

3″
If a beam is resting on masonry or concrete, how much area does the end of the beam have to be resting on?

3″
What is the minimum lap of floor joists over a bearing point?

4′
When framing an opening in a floor, an opening exceeding __ requires the header and trimmer joist to be doubled.

1
A finished basement has a drop ceiling. The basement area is 1700 square feet. How many draft stops are required between the floor above and the top of the drop ceiling?

24″
End joints of doubled top plates must be offset by at least __.

Never notch the middle third!
What is the maximum notch depth in the middle third of a rafter?

the first coat on metal lath
A scratch coat of plaster is:

24″
The standard depth for a base kitchen cabinet is:

two screws through the rails
Kitchen cabinets are secured to the wall by using:

a sound deadener
Ceiling tiles are used for:

24″
How deep are kitchen cabinets below the counter top?

36″
How far above the kitchen floor should the kitchen sink be?

4″
The required guards on raised floor areas, balconies and porches shall not have openings larger than _____ in residential structures:

18″
The sum of one riser and one tread of a stair should be about:

Main runners, cross Tees and wall molding
In suspended ceilings, what are the three components used for the grid system to support the panels?

Durability
The fiber in high quality brushes is six important characteristics: tipping or flagging, stiffness, flex, snapback, trim and __________.

12′
The maximum vertical rise between floor levels or landings in a flight of stairs is:

12″
The standard depth for an upper kitchen cabinet is:

miter cut
45-degree cut made across a baseboard or piece of trim is called a

4 3/8″
Guard openings below the stair-railing should be no larger than _ in a residential structure:

balustrade
The complete railing system of a residential stair is called a:

nosing
The front edge of a stair tread that overhangs the riser is called the:

a separation between two window panes
a separation between two door panels
A mullion describes:

a pocket door will be installed
Having to install a track on the door jamb before installing wall board indicates:

the vertical difference between the finished floors
The total rise of a stair run is:

84″ to 87″
What would the height be from the finished floor to the top of a 30″ wall cabinet?

corner bead
Two gypsum wall boards meet at an outside corner. The best way to protect the joint is with:

5/8″ type X gypsum board or equivalent
A living unit is built directly above a garage. The ceiling in the garage must have:

Nylon
Which paint brush would you use for latex paint?

1/2″
The usual distance allowed between the finished floor and the bottom of a swinging door for clearance is _.

6 foot level
An accurate and fast way to plumb side jambs of a doorframe is by use of a _________.

6″
When installing ceramic tile around a bathtub with a showerhead, the tiles should extend a minimum of 5′ above the rim of the tub or __ above the showerhead, whichever is higher.

8 percent
Wood used for interior finish should be dried to a moisture content of __.

platform
The intermediate area between two parts of a flight of stairs is called a __.

ceiling first, then walls
What is the standard sequence of attaching gypsum wallboard at the ceiling intersection?

1 1/4″, 2″
Handrails that have a circular cross-section must have a minimum diameter of and a maximum diameter of .

True
Handrails should be provided on at least one side of stairways with four or more risers. T F

Wall brush
What type of paintbrush would be best for painting exterior siding?

before the carpenter installs the siding
Two outside walls meet at a corner. When does the carpenter install the corner boards?

covered and protected
What is the proper way to store wood flooring on a job site?

Bugle Phillips screws or type S drywall screws
When using metal studs, how are the wall sheathing/surface materials attached to the studs?

start in one of the corners
How should base cabinets be installed properly?

A
Which of the following is the highest grade of veneer in plywood?

Jamb
What is the frame that surrounds an interior door called?

S4S
What is the abbreviation for lumber that has been surfaced on all four sides?

Determine height of ceiling and install level perimeter molding
What is the first step when installing a drop ceiling?

1 3/8″
Most interior doors are manufactured in a thickness of ___.

reveal
The setback of door casing from the face of the jamb is often referred to as the __.

6′
When installing ceramic tile in a shower stall, tiles should be a minimum of _ above the shower floor or 6″ above the shower head, whichever is higher.

landing
The floor at the top or bottom of each story where the flight of stairs ends or begins is a __.

1/2″
When gypsum wallboard is used for a draftstop, it must be a minimum of _ thick.

3/8″
What is the maximum height variation between all risers on a stairway?

Insufficient or overly thin compound used under the tape
What would be the likely cause of blisters in wallboard tape?

Sash brush
What type of paintbrush would be best for painting interior trim

3″
When installing the grid system for a suspended ceiling, the top edge must be at least 3″ below the bottom of the joist:

Quarter sawn
The method used to saw a log has an effect on how stable the lumber will be. Which method provides the most table lumber?

Bow
Crook
Cup
If a board is warped, it has this defect.

Find the highest part of the floor and use that point to establish your layout line 34 1/2″ from the floor.
When installing base cabinets, the first step is to:

Four – Two through the upper rail and two through the lower rail
When installing wall cabinets, a minimum of __ #10 round headed wood screws should be used for each cabinet.

12″
In kitchens that have a soffit above the cabinets, the soffit is usually __ below the rest of an 8′ ceiling.

True
When laying strip wood flooring, it is preferred to lay the flooring perpendicular to the floor joist below. T F

open
If hardwood flooring has a higher moisture content than the building it is being installed in, it will develop _ joints after installation.

8 1/4 inches
What is the maximum height of risers in a set of steps?

9 inches
What is the minimum tread depth in a set of steps?

chair rail
A __ is a molding that runs horizontally across walls at 3′ to 4′ from the floor.

5.0 square feet
R310.1.1
A sleeping room window on the ground level floor shall have a minimum opening of:

pocket door
A door that slides into the wall is called a ______.

a net clear opening of 5 square feet
a minimum net clear opening of 20″ width and 24″ height
a sill no more than 44″ above the floor
A bedroom window on the first floor must have:

5.7 square feet
R310.1.1
A bedroom on the third floor must have an egress window with a net clear opening of

two standard panes with 1/4″ dead air space
The most energy efficient type of glazing is:

11″
What is the recommended distance from the bottom of the door to the bottom of the bottom hinge?

7″
What is the recommended distance from the top of the door to the top of the top hinge?

36″ to 38″
What is the recommended height of the door knob off the floor?

6’8″
The height of a standard residential door is __?

1 1/2″
The large egress door must have a landing on the exterior side. This landing shall not be more than ____ below the top of the threshold.

2
Where there is a stairway with _ or fewer risers located on an exterior side of a door, a landing is not required (with the exception of the large egress door).

7 3/4″
Other than the large egress door, landings or risers cannot exceed _ rise to the threshold.

7 3/4″
Other than the large exit door, landings or risers cannot exceed ________ rise to the threshold.

egress
The main reason for properly sized windows in a bedroom area is:

a net clear opening of 5.7 sq. ft.
a minimum net clear opening of 20″ width or 24″ height
a sill height not more than 44 inches above the floor or ground
R310.1.1,R310.1.2,R310.1.3
All egress windows above the first floor must have:

True
R311.2
The large egress door must provide a minimum of a 32″ wide opening when measured from the face of the door when the door is open 90 degrees to the door stop. T F

Yes
R311.7.5
Can there be a door at the top of a stair run if the door does not swing over the stairs?

8
R303.1
In habitable rooms glazing (window area) must be not less than what percent of the floor area?

No
R310.1.1
An egress window has an opening 20 inches wide by 24 inches high with the bottom of the opening 44 inches above the floor. Does this window meet code for the first floor?

fixed and ventilating
What are the two basic types of skylights?

True
On a roof slope facing south or west, the skylight may permit a maximum of “solar heat and radiation gain”, which can increase room temperatures and fade rugs and furniture. Placing the unit on an east or north slope will give you adequate light but less direct sunshine. T F

bottom hinged window
A hopper window is a _______.

casing
The trim that is installed around windows and doors is called ______.

have 3 hinges
Solid core doors should:

pocket
This type of door should have the track installed before the drywall is hung.

in the direction of egress
All stairway means of egress doors shall swing _________.

jamb
What is the frame that surrounds the door on three sides called?

The carpenter stands with his back to the hinge side of the door jamb and if the door swings left it is a left hand door
When the finish carpenter hangs a door, how does he know if it is a left or right hand door?

sash
The part of the window that holds the glass is called the ______.

safety glazing
All doors ingress and egress including storm doors must have _________.

4.34
To figure R-Value, divide 1 by the U-Value: 1 divided by .23 =
What would be the R-Value of a window rated U 0.23?

two square
How many squares of vinyl siding are in a carton?

1024
How many square feet of siding will the builder need to cover a house that has 8 ft. walls and is 28 ft. X 36 ft.? Do not account for any window or door openings.

excessive moisture in the house
The most common cause of outside paint blistering is:

3 days
Newly applied stucco should be shaded and kept moist for __.

plywood
Celotex
Thermax
Aluminum siding may be installed over:

it dents easily when struck by any hard object
What is the principal disadvantage of aluminum siding?

1/4″
3/8″ when installing in temps below 40 degrees
Where vinyl siding meets the accessories, you should always leave an expansion gap of:

8′
The standard length for shingle panels is:

7 1/4″
The standard face width of 8 inch beveled siding is:

24″
When horizontal siding is applied over sheathing that consists of solid plywood or fiberboard, the nails can be spaced (horizontally) about how far apart?

1 1/2 inch
Plain beveled siding is lapped so it will provide a tight exterior wall covering. In standard installation, 10 inch beveled siding is lapped about _.

True
Siding needs to be flashed and caulked. T F

butt tip coursing
Wood shingles used for siding can be installed by several methods, which choice below isn’t a method.

in the center of the batten
When batten boards are nailed over vertical siding, they are nailed:

from any front corner
Where would you start when installing vinyl siding to minimize the number of joints?

6″
From grade, untreated siding must be a minimum of:

True
When installing horizontal wood siding a siding gauge can be use to accurately mark siding pieces that must fit against vertical surfaces. T F

1″
The 6′ beveled siding should be lapped:

level from the lowest point
How would you level siding when you start?

water proof covers
When applying new siding over existing siding, electrical boxes should be covered using:

any corrosion resistant nail
On wood siding, what kind of nail would you use?

before the carpenter installs the siding
Two outside walls meet at a corner. When or where does the carpenter install the corner boards?

scratch, brown and finish
What are the names of the three layer of traditional stucco?

Yes
When siding a residential structure using horizontal wood siding with batten boards or panel siding with shiplap joints, is it required by code that house wrap or felt paper be used? T F

False
Vinyl siding is a waterproof barrier. T F

One nail at each stud. The nail should be just above the top of the lower board.
When applying horizontal beveled siding, how should the siding be nailed?

2
The minimum number of nails for a shingle used for siding is:

F channel
When applying vinyl siding on a vertical wall, what is used to hold the aluminum soffit in place?

2 1/2 inch
What size nail do you use for vinyl siding with a 1 inch backer?

overlap
When using reverse board and batten plywood, how are the seams sealed?

Copper
When installing aluminum siding it should not be in contact with?

7 1/2 inches
When applying 16 inch wood shingles what is the recommended maximum exposure?

8 1/2 inches
When applying 18 inch wood shingles, what is the recommended maximum exposure?

11 1/2 inches
When applying 24 inch wood shingles, what is the maximum exposure?

just under 1/2 of its total length
Normal siding practice dictates that the exposure of any wood shingle is:

screw driver
What tool would you NOT use to install vinyl siding?

12
Wood siding, at the time of installation, should have a moisture content of about_____________% with the exception in extremely dry climates in the southwestern states.

battens
Square edge vertical siding requires the joints to be covered with slender pieces of solid wood called ______.

clap board siding
Horizontal siding requires a lap of at least 1 inch, unless rabbeted. When rabbeted it is 1/2 inch. Plain beveled siding is also called _______.

2 inches
Building felt is available in 15 lb. or 30 lb. weight. It is used to protect wall sheathing from moisture. It comes in rolls 36 inches wide and is applied horizontally with joints lapped at least ______.

6 inches
When installing building felt on exterior walls, if a vertical joint is needed, it should be lapped at least _.

True
Housewrap is used as an alternative to felt paper over wall sheathing. It has the ability to allow water vapor to pass through, but not liquid water. T F

Z flashing
Plywood panel siding applied vertically may have vertical shiplapped joints or a square edge. The square edge panel requires battens that cover the joints, but the horizontal square edge joints require ______.

True
As with all siding, vinyl siding requires a weather resistive barrier between the siding and the wall sheating. T F

True
When installing vinyl siding panels, nails should be driven straight, in the middle of the nailing slot and NEVER driven tight. This allows the panel to expand and contract without warping. T F

False
It is not necessary to prime or seal the edges and end of plywood panel siding before installation. T F

Never
Horizontal joints between courses of beveled siding should __ be caulked.

backer boards
To install vinyl or alluminum siding over existing siding, foam _ may be installed first to provide a flat wall surface to fasten the siding over.

starter strips
When installing vinyl siding, what is installed first around the perimeter of the building?

7 1//2 inches
When using #1 grade shingles and shakes for exterior wall siding, using the single course method, code requires the maximum exposure of the shingle or shake to be 1/2 inch less than the center point of the piece. Example: 16 inch lengths have a maximum exposure of __.

doubled
When installing wood shingles and shakes, code requires that the first course be ____.

True
Flashing (drip cap) is required above all window and door openings, as well as above all horizontal projecting trim. T F

siding
sheathing
framing
Wood walls __ having a clearance of less than 6 inches from the ground or less than 2 inches measured vertically from concrete steps, porch slabs or patio slabs must be naturally durable wood or preservative treated.

True
When fastening horizontal wood siding up to 6 inch widths, code requires 1 nail per stud. At widths of 8 inches and up, code requires 2 nails per stud. T F

hot dipped zinc coated
stainless steel
aluminum
When fastening wood shingles and shakes, code requires 2 _ nails per shake or shingle. They must be long enough to penetrate the sheathing or furring strips at least l/2 inch and not over driven.

False
Vinyl siding does not expand and contract as much as wood siding. T F

False
Vinyl siding is a waterproof barrier. T F

5/16″
Nails used to install vinyl siding should be at least .120 in shank diameter and have a head diameter of at least _.

balloon framing
steel framing
If stucco is being applied to buildings that are more than one story, __________ should be used for exterior walls.

Brown
The second layer of stucco is called the __ coat.

True
A story pole is a measuring devise made to insure a uniform layout all around a house. T F

40 degrees F
Stucco should not be applied in temperatures below __.

1″
What is the minimum lap for plain beveled siding?

weep screed
Stucco siding requires a ___ be placed a minimum of 4″ above the earth or 2″ above paved areas.

True
Exterior insulation finishing systems (EIFS) that are nondrainable are not permitted. T F

1 1/4″
The minimum lap for horizontal fiber cement siding is __.

The weight of occupants, furniture and generally anything not permanently attached to the building
Live load is:

The weight of the building materials
Dead load is:

Is not allowed
Splicing cold-formed steel joist_____________.

Shall be “in-line” with trusses, joists and rafters in order to maintain a continuous load path
Steel studs, located in bearing walls________________.

¾”
“In-line” framing creates a continuous “load-path” of all loads in and on the building to the building’s foundation. In order to maintain this “load-path” when using steel framing components, the maximum allowable “off-center” spacing between the center-lines of framing members is _?

No. 10 screws
Fasteners, used to connect steel rafters and trusses at the bearing wall and ridge, shall be __.

2″x2″
The minimum clip angle used to connect steel roof framing members to supporting members shall be___________________ and fastened with two No. 10 screws per leg.

Stud, Track, U-channel, Furring, “L-Headers”
S T U F L stands for ____?

Joining and stiffening joist ends over bearing walls
Bottom an top plates of walls
Component headers
Steel track material is used for __________?

2″™ and 1″™
Roof overhangs on buildings with steel joist “rafters” are limited to _______________at the eaves and ____________at the gable/rake.

3-1/2″ deep, stud/joist, 1-5/8″ wide and 33-mil steel
The designation 350S162-33 means_______________________.

fascia
The trim board applied to the lower edge of a sloping roof before applying the roof surface material is called the _.

saddle
The purpose of a __ is to divert the flow of water and prevent ice and snow build-up behind the chimney.

the underside of a roof or porch overhang
A soffit is:

protects the sheeting from moisture until shingles are laid.
provides additional weather protection by preventing wind-driven rain.
prevents contact between shingles and resinous areas in the sheathing.
Underlayment:

4
Three tab shingles require a minimum of how many nails per strip?

4 in 12
The term “steep roof” as defined by OSHA is referring to a roof slope above:

on roofs over 3 in 12 pitch
Three-in-one tab shingles are most commonly found:

100 square feet
A square of roofing material is equal to:

slope of roof
The selection of roofing materials is influenced by such factors as cost, durability, appearance, application methods, and:

1/4″ to 3/8″
Wood shingles, when applied to a roof, must be spaced _ apart.

use metal step flashing between the shingles
What must be done where the roof intersects with a wall?

head lap
The shortest distance from the lower edge of an overlapping shingle to the upper edge of a shingle in the second course below. The triple coverage portion of the toplap of strip shingles is called:

boxed, close, and open
Cornices are classified according to which types?

a wood member used for the outer surface of a boxed cornice
The fascia is:

valley rafter
The principle member of valley roof construction is called a:

12″ deep x 36″ wide
The usual size of an asphalt shingle is:

No 1, 2 or 3.
The most common type of wood shingles are usually graded:

4 in 12
The minimum roof pitch with one layer underlayment, which will accept asphalt shingles is:

valley
The part of a roof most likely to leak due to water or snow pressure is the:

the sloped end of the roof that overhangs the gable end
The roof rake is:

2:12
Minimum pitch for asphalt shingled roofs with double underlayment is:

three
How many bundles of shingles equal a square of roofing?

asphalt rolls
Which of these should not be used as solid sheathing for wood shingles?

galvanized
Nails for fastening asphalt shingles usually are:

24″ inside the interior wall line when projected through the roof sheathing
At the eave ice and water shield must be installed to a point that is:

the nails should penetrate through the sheathing
When nailing roof shingles to 5/8″ roof sheathing:

3:12
Wood shingles and shakes shall not be installed on roof slopes below:

1 1/2″
How far is the drip edge overhang for cedar shakes?

2″
What is the minimum amount of overlap for felt paper?

nail down felt paper
On a built up roof covering a wood deck, how do you attach the first layer?

shakes are rough sawed and hand split
The difference between wood shingles and cedar shakes is?

24″
What is the minimum width of sheet metal used in an open valley for a 1- to 2-family dwelling?

3/12
What is the minimum roof pitch for metal roof panels that have nonsoldered seams w/o lap sealant?

1/8″ to 12″
What is the minimum roof slope of a built-up roof with the use of coal-tar?

sheet metal
What is often used for base flashing around chimneys?

shingle butt
The lower edge of a shingle is called:

exposure
The distance (in inches) between the edge of one course and the next higher course.

head lap
Indicates the amount of protection provided by the third layer of overlapping shingles.

roll roofing is recommended.
When the roof pitch is less than 4 in 12:

2
What is the maximum number of layers of asphalt shingles on a roof?

metal
On an open valley, it is O.K. to use which of the following materials?

1″
What is the minimum air space requirement between insulation and the roof sheathing at or near the eave in the attic space?

22″ x 30″
What is the minimum rough opening requirement for access to an attic space?

Yes, if 2 layers of 15 lb. felt is used as underlayment
Can asphalt shingles be installed on a 2-in-12 or 3-in-12 roof pitch?

True
Avoid using the open valley method where two roofs forming a valley have considerably different slopes. T F

6 inches
When nailing shingles near a valley keep fasteners __ away from the centerline of the valley.

3-tab
The closed-cut valley can be used with all types of strip shingles but the woven closed valley is only recommended with __ shingles.

True
Where two roofs forming a valley have considerably different slopes and the open valley method cannot be avoided, be sure to use metal valley flashing with a splash diverter and water guards. T F

valley
The __ is the part of the roof where leaks are most likely to happen.

12″
When flashing a valley without metal where a lap joint is needed, lap the upper section over the lower section by at least __ inches.

6″
When flashing a valley with metal where a lap joint is needed, lap the upper section over the lower section by at least __ inches.

True
Step flashing is also a base flashing. T F

True
Chimneys require both base flashing and counter flashing (also called cap flashing). T F

24
Code requires that if a chimney’s width down slope from a ridge is more than 30 inches in width, a cricket or saddle must be installed, but it is recommended they be installed at a width greater than __ inches.

A
Roof shingles are rated for fire resistance. They are classified as either A, B, or C. Which classification has the highest fire resistance?

5
The most common amount of exposure for asphalt shingles is:

True
To get a neat, professional look, taper the lap portion of hip and ridge with shingles that have been salvaged from scraps and full shingles as needed. T F

step flashing
Where a roof intersects with a wall, the roof underlayment should be carried up the wall 3 to 4 inches and __ must be used as the shingles are installed.

True
Asphalt shingles have a base mat of tough asphalt-saturated roofing felt or fiberglass. T F

1 1/2 inches
The drip edge for wood shingles and shakes should extend past the eave fascia.

3/8 to 5/8 inches
Wood shakes should be spaced __ apart to allow for expansion.

3 to 8 inches
Wood shingles and shakes should be from _ in width. If the shake or shingle is too wide, split it with a roofer hatchet.

1 1/2 inches
Wood shingles and shakes require a side lap of _ or more.

10 inches
Valley flashing for wood shingles shall be minimum 26 gauge corrosion resistant sheet metal and shall extend _ from the centerline each way for roof slopes 12 and 12 or less.

11 inches
Valley flashing for wood shakes shall be minimum 26 gauge corrosion resistant sheet metal and shall extend _ from the centerline each way.

4 in 12
The building code prohibits the use of wood shingles or shakes on roof slopes below 3 in 12, but it is recommended that _ be the least slope for shakes.

True
A drip edge should be installed under the underlayment at the eave and over the underlayment at the rake. T F

25F or less
Wood shingles and shakes can be installed over solid sheathing or spaced sheathing. It is required that only solid sheathing be used in areas of the country where the mean temperature in January is:

once
With the exception of areas in the country with moderate to severe hail exposure, asphalt shingled roofs are permitted to be covered over with new shingles __.

use a tarp or other appropriate item to catch the debris without damage to the plants
A builder is replacing the gutters and downspouts on a house and the homeowner has just landscaped around the house. What should the builder do to protect the owner’s interest?

4′
What is the minimum height of an enclosure for a private swimming pool?

7 days
How many days notice must the builder give to adjacent property owners before demolishing a structure?

in bedrooms, in the vicinity of all bedrooms and in the basement and on all floor levels
According to the building codes, smoke detectors should be installed:

0
When installing a rain gutter all the way around a hip roof house, how many end caps are needed?

50′
At 25′ of gutter for each downspout, what would be the maximum spacing between downspouts?

brushed
When applying waterbase waterproof paint to a basement wall, what method should be used?

3″
Pedestrian access gates must open outward away from a pool, must be self-closing and self-latching. The latch location shall be on the pool side of the gate a minimum of _ below the top of the gate (so child cannot reach over top and open gate).

2 feet
What is the deepest the water can be in a swimming pool that does not have a fence surrounding it.

15 inches
What would be the standard width of fiberglass batt insulation used to fill a wall cavity when studs are placed 16 inches on center?

23 inches
What would be the standard width of fiberglass batt insulation used to fill a wall cavity when studs are placed 24 inches on center?

R-15
Fiberglass batt insulation can be purchased in low and high density materials. What is the R-value of high density batt insulation used to fill 2″x 4″ walls?

R 3.5
The approximate R-value of cellulose loose-fill insulation per inch of thickness is:

R 2.5
What is the approximate R-value of shredded fiberglass loose-fill insulation?

thermal break
Rigid insulation is often used as non-structural exterior sheathing which provides a _ between the exterior siding and the framing.

expanded polystyrene
extruded expanded polystyrene
polyurethane and polyisocyanurate
Rigid foam board insulation is_________________ and requires a non-solvent construction adhesive when installed with adhesives .

True
Spray foam insulation fills small gaps and seals cavities much better than other insulating materials. T F

open cell
Spray foam insulation is available as either open cell or closed cell. Which one allows moisture to pass through it easily?

R-7
Closed cell spray foam insulation provides the highest R-value per inch of thickness of all commonly used insulating materials. It has an R-value of approximately _ per inch.

True
The foil faces insulation products are used to block the sun’s radiant heat as well as being a vapor retarder. T F

fiberglass
What is the most common material used for batt or blanket insulation?

floors and
ceilings
Where would blanket insulation most likely be used?

True
Besides acting as a vapor retarder, the paper backing on face batt insulation has tabs on each side used to staple the batts to framing members. T F

friction fit insulation
Unfaced batt insulation is sometimes referred to as:

shellac or stain blocking primer
Knots in wood should be sealed with ________ to prevent stains from coming through the paint.

40 degrees F
When painting the exterior of a building, the outdoor temperature must stay above _ for at least 24 hours after oil based paints are applied.

50 degrees F
When painting the exterior of a building, the outdoor temperature must stay above __ for at least 24 hours after latex paint is applied.

boxing
Pouring paint back and forth from one container into another is called _____.

pigment, binder, carrier
All paints contain these three elements:

primer
____ paint has a higher proportion of binder than standard paint. This enables it to hold particularly well to unpainted wood.

Film forming and penetrating
All wood finishes fall into two basic categories:

False
All species of wood accept paint about the same. T F

True
When spray painting rough wood surfaces, to insure proper coverage use a roller right behind the spray gun. This works the paint into uneven surfaces.

not enough drying time between coats
If cracking and alligatoring are a problem on a painted surface, a likely cause is _____________________.

14
What gage wire is used for general purpose circuits and connected to 15 amp breakers?

6 inches
How far below the frost lines must water service pipes be, at a minimum?

air to air exchangers
What is another name for heat recovery ventilators?

true
R-value is a measurement of a material’s ability to resist the transfer of heat. T F

True
U-factor is a measurement of the rate of energy loss. T F

.05
If a wall has an R-value of 20, what is it’s U-factor?

True
Carbon monoxide alarms are only required if a home has fuel fired devices or an attached garage. T F

6 feet
Barricades not less than 42 inches high, and not less than _ back from the opening, as well as the area receiving the material, are required for material chutes and drops.

4″ wide by 6″ high
What is the minimum size of the bumper used to prevent mechanical equipment and wheelbarrows from entering a material chute?

45
Material chutes that are installed at an angle greater than _ degrees are required to be entirely enclosed.

OSHA
All multiple job site injuries requiring in-patient hospitalization or a fatality must be reported to ________ within eight hours of the accident.

a company safety officer
a OSHA safety poster displayed at each job site
regularly scheduled safety meetings
OSHA requires that all businesses must have:

True
OSHA requires that all construction companies have an accident prevention program.

10 or more
All companies with ____ or more employees must keep OSHA injury and illness records.

a competent authority
Scaffolding should not be erected or dismantled except under the supervision of:

whether tennis shoes are being worn by the workers
A OSHA compliance officer would be most likely to check which of the following.

fines and imprisonment
Failure to report job site injuries to OSHA could result in:

Occupational Safety and Health Administration
OSHA stands for:

Ten foot candles
What is the minimum illumination intensity in areas where construction work is being performed?

shall not be used for any other purpose
A supply of potable water shall be available to employees in all places of employment. Containers for drinking water shall be constructed of impervious, non-toxic materials and clearly marked as to its contents, and _________________________________.

True
Dipping from a container or drinking from a common cup is prohibited. T F

True
Before beginning a project, provisions shall be made for prompt medical attention in case of emergencies. T F

telephone number of a physician, hospital or emergency service
It is the employer’s responsibility to provide the equipment necessary for contacting emergency services and also to provide _____________________________which shall be posted in a conspicuous place.

False
It is not necessary to always have a person who has a valid certificate in first aid training present at the work site to render first aid. T F

48″
If an excavation is _____________ or more in depth and occupied by an employee, a ladder must be provided that extends not less than three feet from the top of the hole if no ramp is provided.

42″
Guardrails for scaffold shall be how high?

Material safety data sheets (MSDS)
Employers must make available for employees in a readily accessible manner _________ for those hazardous chemicals in their workplace.

True
Employers are required to have material safety data sheets (MSDS) in the workplace for each hazardous chemical that is used in the workplace. T F

10′
Material being stored to be lifted by a crane shall not be closer than _______ to an electrical line rated 50 kv or below

36″
Barricades to direct vehicular traffic must be at least how high?

ground fault circuit interrupts
All temporary 120v single-phase 15 and 20 amp receptacle outlets used for construction must have an approved _______________________.

explosive
Powder actuated tools are tools that provide forced entry of fastening material through the use of _________ loads.

day
Powder actuated tools shall be tested each ________ before loading to see that safety devices are in proper working order.

mushroomed heads
Impact tools such as drift pins, chisels, wedges or hammers must be kept free of _______.

5 foot
When benching, a vertical rise shall not be more than _______ and the step back shall reach to at least the angle of repose.

8
Roof jacks or roofing brackets shall be spaced no more than ________ feet apart and the working plank shall not be less than a 2×6.

20
Ladder jacks shall not be used on heights more than _______ feet. The span between jacks shall not exceed 8 feet.

two employees
Ladder jack scaffolds shall be limited to __________ at any one time.

whether safety helmets are being worn by the workers
A OSHA compliance officer would be likely to check which of the following:

12 inches
Planking extending over an end bearer on a scaffold should extend not less than six inches and not more than:

20 feet
When using a metal ladder, what is the minimum distance to a power line?

$7,000
The maximum fine per serious violation of OSHA requirements which results in an employee injury is:

$70,000
When the contractor has willfully violated a rule or regulation, the maximum amount of fine will be:

3 feet
When a ladder is used to gain access to the roof, it should extend above the roof eave:

varnish
Which of the following materials would be best for finishing a wood ladder?

1/4th the length of the ladder
A ladder should be placed against the building so that the lower end is approximately:

6′
A ladder is extended 24’and leaned against a wall. How far from the wall must the base of the ladder be?

3 1/2″
What is the minimum height for the toe board on scaffolding?

12″
What is the amount of overlap for the boards you walk on when you are on scaffolding?

3′
What is the minimum distance that a ladder should extend above the roof edge?

10′
When working near a power line, how far from the power line should you keep a non-metal ladder?

post the citation
What is the first thing you do when you receive a citation from OSHA?

$7,000
If cited for a OSHA violation, what is the maximum fine per day for uncorrected violations?

$70,000
If cited for a OSHA violation what is the maximum fine for each uncorrected violation?

14 inches
The front of the platform of a scaffold shall not be more than __ from the work surface unless a guardrail system is erected

2″ x 10″
Planks on scaffolding shall not be less than _________

two
The scaffold platform shall consist of at least _ 2″x10″ planks side-by-side.

six feet
Each employee engaged in residential construction activities ____ or more above the lower levels shall be protected by a guardrail system, safety net system or personal fall arrest system

200 lbs.
Guardrail systems shall be capable of withstanding a force of at least __ in any outward or downward direction.

True
All employees working in areas where exposure to lead is possible should be educated in proper safety procedures. T F

False
It is considered safe to remove leaded paint if wearing an approved respirator. T F

True
By law, it is a requirement to post signs warning people of both asbestos and lead exposure. T F

seven calendar days
OSHA requires that all job site injuries be recorded by the employer within:

fines or imprisonment
Failure to report multiple job site injuries which lead to in-patient hospitalization or death could result in:

2A
OSHA requires a minimum of one _ fire extinguisher for each 3,000 square feet of building area. The fire extinguisher must be available within 100 feet of any point.

general use work gloves
general use work shoes and boots
general use steel toed footwear
This personal protective equipment is not required to be provided by the employer:

able to support twice their expected load
secured to prevent movement
labeled “Hole” or “Cover”
All holes on working/walking surfaces larger than 2 inches shall be covered, including holes for skylights and chimneys. The covers shall be:

Feb 1 and April 30 annually
OSHA record keeping forms must be used for contractors who employ 11 or more people. The 3 forms are 300-Log, 300A-Annual Report, and the 301-Incident Report. The annual report must be posted by the employer for employee viewing between:

true
If a OSHA Compliance Officer is refused entry to a construction worksite to perform an inspection, the division director of OSHA will seek a warrant from the court and return with an officer of the law. T F

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