A 6-month-old child from Guatemala was adopted by an American family in Indiana. The child’s socialization into the American midwestern culture is best described as:
A. Assimilation.
B. Acculturation.
C. Biculturalism.
D. Enculturation.
D. Enculturation.
Socialization into one’s primary culture as a child is known as enculturation.
A 46-year-old woman from Bosnia came to the United States 6 years ago. Although she did not celebrate Christmas when she lived in Bosnia, she celebrates Christmas with her family now. This woman has experienced assimilation into the culture of the United States because she:
A .Chose to be bicultural.
B. Adapted to and adopted the American culture.
C. Had an extremely negative experience with the American culture.
D. Gave up part of her ethnic identity in favor of the American culture.
B. Adapted to and adopted the American culture.
Assimilation results when an individual gradually adopts and incorporates the characteristics of the dominant culture.
To enhance their cultural awareness, nursing students need to make an in-depth self-examination of their own:
A. Motivation and commitment to caring.
B. Social, cultural, and biophysical factors.
C. Engagement in cross-cultural interactions.
D. Background, recognizing her biases and prejudices.
D. Background, recognizing her biases and prejudices.
Cultural awareness is an in-depth self-examination of one’s own background, recognizing biases and prejudices and assumptions about other people.
Which of the following is required in the delivery of culturally congruent care?
A. Learning about vast cultures
B. Motivation and commitment to caring
C. Influencing treatment and care of patients
D. Acquiring specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes
D. Acquiring specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes
Specific knowledge, skills, and attitudes are required in the delivery of culturally congruent care.
A registered nurse is admitting a patient of French heritage to the hospital. Which question asked by the nurse indicates that the nurse is stereotyping the patient?
A. “What are your dietary preferences?”
B. “What time do you typically go to bed?”
C. “Do you bathe and use deodorant more than one time a week?”
D. “Do you have any health issues that we should know about?”
C. “Do you bathe and use deodorant more than one time a week?”
Nurses need to avoid stereotypes or unwarranted generalizations about any particular group that prevents further assessment of the individual’s unique characteristics.
When action is taken on one’s prejudices:
A. Discrimination occurs.
B. Delivery of culturally congruent care is ensured.
C. Effective intercultural communication develops.
D. Sufficient comparative knowledge of diverse groups is obtained.
A. Discrimination occurs.
Prejudices associate negative permanent characteristics with people who are different from the valued group. When a person acts on these prejudices, discrimination occurs.
A nursing student is doing a community health rotation in an inner-city public health department. The student investigates sociodemographic and health data of the people served by the health department, and detects disparities in health outcomes between the rich and poor. This is an example of a(n):
A. Illness attributed to natural and biological forces.
B. Creation of the student’s interpretation and descriptions of the data.
C. Influence of socioeconomic factors in morbidity and mortality.
D. Combination of naturalistic, religious, and supernatural modalities.
C. Influence of socioeconomic factors in morbidity and mortality.
Health disparity populations are populations that have a significant increased incidence or prevalence of disease or that have increased morbidity, mortality, or survival rates compared to the health status of the general population.
Culture strongly influences pain expression and need for pain medication. However, cultural pain is:
A. Not expressed verbally or physically.
B. Expressed only to others from a similar culture.
C. Usually more intense than physical pain.
D. Suffered by a patient whose valued way of life is disregarded by practitioners.
D. Suffered by a patient whose valued way of life is disregarded by practitioners.
Patients suffer cultural pain when health care providers disregard values or cultural beliefs.
Which of the following best represents the dominant values in American society on individual autonomy and self-determination?
A. Physician orders
B. Advance directive
C. Durable power of attorney
D. Court-appointed guardian
B. Advance directive
Informed consent and advance directives protect the right of the individual to know and make decisions ensuring continuity of individual autonomy and self-determination.
The nurse at an outpatient clinic asks a patient who is Chinese American with newly diagnosed hypertension if he is limiting his sodium intake as directed. The patient does not make eye contact with the nurse but nods his head. What should the nurse do next?
A. Ask the patient how much salt he is consuming each day
B. Discuss the health implications of sodium and hypertension
C. Remind the patient that many foods such as soy sauce contain “hidden” sodium
D. Suggest some low-sodium dietary alternatives
A. Ask the patient how much salt he is consuming each day
In an Asian culture spoken messages often have little to do with their meanings. It is important for the nurse to clarify how much salt the patient is consuming in his diet.
A female Jamaican immigrant has been late to her last two clinic visits, which in turn had to be rescheduled. The best action that the nurse could take to prevent the patient from being late to her next appointment is:
A. Give her a copy of the city bus schedule.
B. Call her the day before her appointment as a reminder to be on time.
C. Explore what has prevented her from being at the clinic in time for her appointment.
D. Refer her to a clinic that is closer to her home.
C. Explore what has prevented her from being at the clinic in time for her appointment
Present-time orientation is in conflict with the dominant organizational norm in health care that emphasizes punctuality and adherence to appointments. Nurses need to expect conflicts and make adjustments when caring for ethnic groups.
A nursing student is taking postoperative vital signs in the postanesthesia care unit. She knows that some ethnic groups are more prone to genetic disorders. Which of the following patients is most at risk for developing malignant hypertension?
A. Ashkenazi Jew
B. Chinese American
C. African American
D. Filipino
C. African American
Certain genetic disorders are linked with specific ethnic groups such as malignant hypertension among African Americans.
A community health nurse is making a healthy baby visit to a new mother who recently emigrated to the United States from Ghana. When discussing contraceptives with the new mom, the mother states that she won’t have to worry about getting pregnant for the time being. The nurse understands that the mom most likely made this statement because:
A. She won’t resume sexual relations until her baby is weaned.
B. She is taking the medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) shot.
C. Her husband was recently deployed to Afghanistan.
D. She has access to free condoms from the clinic.
A. She won’t resume sexual relations until her baby is weaned.
In some African cultures such as in Ghana and Sierra Leone some women will not resume sexual relations with their husbands until the baby is weaned.
During their clinical post-conference meeting, several nursing students were discussing their patients with their instructor. One student from a middle-class family shared that her patient was homeless. This is an example of caring for a patient from a different:
A. Ethnicity.
B. Culture.
C. Heritage.
D. Religion.
B. Culture.
Culture is the context in which groups of people interpret and define their experiences relevant to life transitions. This includes events such as birth, illness, and dying. It is the system of meanings by which people make sense of their experiences.
When interviewing a Native American patient on admission to the hospital emergency department, which questions are appropriate for the nurse to ask? (Select all that apply.)
A. Do you use any folk remedies?
B. Do you have a family physician?
C. Do you use a Shaman?
D. Does your family have a history of alcohol abuse?
A. Do you use any folk remedies?
B. Do you have a family physician?
C. Do you use a Shaman?
Obtain information about folk remedies and cultural healers that the patient uses. Assessment data yield information about the patient’s beliefs about the illness and the meaning of the signs and symptoms.
The patient for whom you are caring needs a liver transplant to survive. This patient has been out of work for several months and doesn’t have health insurance or enough cash. What principles would be a priority in a discussion about ethics?
A. Accountability because you as the nurse are accountable for the well-being of this patient
B. Respect for autonomy because this patient’s autonomy will be violated if he does not receive the liver transplant
C. Ethics of care because the caring thing that a nurse could provide this patient is resources for a liver transplant
D. Justice because the first and greatest question in this situation is how to determine the just distribution of resources
D. Justice because the first and greatest question in this situation is how to determine the just distribution of resources
Accountability, respect or autonomy and ethics of care are not necessarily wrong, but they deflect attention from the less personal but more pertinent issue that is at stake in this situation: justice.
The point of the ethical principal to “do no harm” is an agreement to reassure the public that in all ways the health care team not only works to heal patients but agree to do this in the least painful and harmful way possible. Which principle describes this agreement?
A. Beneficence
B. Accountability
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Respect for autonomy
C. Nonmaleficence
Nonmaleficence refers specifically to the concept of avoiding harm. Beneficence refers more to generosity and goodness, accountability to keeping promises, and respect for autonomy to the commitment by providers to include patients in decisions about all aspects of care.
A child’s immunization may cause discomfort during administration, but the benefits of protection from disease, both for the individual and society, outweigh the temporary discomforts. Which principle is involved in this situation?
A. Fidelity
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Respect for autonomy
B. Beneficence
The immunization is a clear effort to provide benefit. Beneficence refers to “doing good.” Fidelity refers more to keeping promises. Nonmaleficence refers to the commitment to avoid harm. Respect for autonomy refers to the commitment to include patients in the decision-making process regarding health care plans.
When a nurse assesses a patient for pain and offers a plan to manage the pain, which principal is used to encourage the nurse to monitor the patient’s response to the pain?
A. Fidelity
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Respect for autonomy
A. Fidelity
Requiring a return to the patient to evaluate the effectiveness of an intervention exemplifies keeping a promise, a concrete example of fidelity.
What is the best example of the nurse practicing patient advocacy?
A. Seek out the nursing supervisor in conflicting procedural situations
B. Document all clinical changes in the medical record in a timely manner
C. Work to understand the law as it applies to an error in following standards of care
D. Assess the patient’s point of view and prepare to articulate it
D. Assess the patient’s point of view and prepare to articulate it
Seeking out the nursing supervisor, documenting clinical change in the medical record in a timely manner and working to understand the law as it applies to an error in following standards of care are not wrong; but advocacy generally refers to the nurse’s ability to help speak for the patient.
Successful ethical discussion depends on people who have a clear sense of personal values. When a group of people share many of the same values, it may be possible to refer for guidance to philosophical principals of utilitarianism. This philosophy proposes which of the following?
A. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
B. People’s values are determined by religious leaders.
C. The decision to perform a liver transplant depends on a measure of the moral life that the patient has led so far.
D. The best way to determine the solution to an ethical dilemma is to refer the case to the attending physician or health care provider.
A. The value of something is determined by its usefulness to society.
Utilitarianism specifically refers to the greatest good for the greatest number of people, whereas goodness is determined primarily by usefulness. The concept is easier to apply in a community where shared values allow for agreement about a definition of usefulness.
The philosophy sometimes called the ethics of care suggests that ethical dilemmas can best be solved by attention to which of the following?
A. Patients
B. Relationships
C. Ethical principles
D. Code of ethics for nurses
B. Relationships
The foundation of the ethics of care is its attention to relationships, as distinguished from other more principal based philosophies.
In most ethical dilemmas in health care, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation among members of the health care team. Why is the nurse’s point of view valuable?
A. Nurses understand the principle of autonomy to guide respect for patient’s self-worth.
B. Nurses have a scope of practice that encourages their presence during ethical discussions.
C. Nurses develop a relationship to the patient that is unique among all professional health care providers.
D. The nurse’s code of ethics recommends that a nurse be present at any ethical discussion about patient care.
C. Nurses develop a relationship to the patient that is unique among all professional health care providers.
None of these options is wrong, but the point of the question is to build confidence and even pride in the value of the special body of knowledge that a nurse acquires about patients, the result of a unique relationship with them.
Ethical dilemmas often arise over a conflict of opinion. What is the critical first step in negotiating the difference of opinion?
A. Consult a professional ethicist to ensure that the steps of the process occur in full.
B. Gather all relevant information regarding the clinical, social, and spiritual aspects of the dilemma.
C. Ensure that the attending physician or health care provider has written an order for an ethics consultation to support the ethics process.
D. List the ethical principles that inform the dilemma so negotiations agree on the language of the discussion.
B. Gather all relevant information regarding the clinical, social, and spiritual aspects of the dilemma.
Before proceeding with discussion about any difficult situation, just as in the nursing process, participants take time to gather all relevant information as insurance for reliability and validity during the discussion.
The ANA code of nursing ethics articulates that the nurse “promotes, advocates for, and strives to protect the health, safety, and rights of the patient.” This includes the protection of patient privacy. On the basis of this principal, if you participate in a public online social network such as Facebook, could you post images of a patient’s x-ray film if you deleted all patient identifiers?
A. Yes because patient privacy would not be violated as long as the patient identifiers were removed
B. Yes because respect for autonomy implies that you have the autonomy to decide what constitutes privacy
C. No because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient based on other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
D. No because the principal of justice requires you to allocate resources fairly
C. No because, even though patient identifiers are removed, someone could identify the patient based on other comments that you make online about his or her condition and your place of work
Respect for patient privacy includes making the most conservative decisions possible regarding disclosure of personal health information.
When an ethical dilemma occurs on your unit, can you resolve the dilemma by taking a vote?
A. Yes because ethics is essentially a democratic process, with all participants sharing an equal voice
B. No because an ethical dilemma involves the resolution of conflicting values and principals rather than simply the identification of what people want to do
C. Yes because ethical dilemmas otherwise take up time and energy that is better spent at the bedside performing direct patient care
D. No because most ethical dilemmas are resolved by deferring to the medical director of the ethics department
B. No because an ethical dilemma involves the resolution of conflicting values and principals rather than simply the identification of what people want to do
Voting about an outcome implies that participants simply express an opinion without regard for negotiating differences. The real goal in processing ethical dilemmas is to resolve differences, not simply to express opinion.
Resolution of an ethical dilemma involves discussion with the patient, the patient’s family, and participants from all health care disciplines. Which of the following describes the role of the nurse in the resolution of ethical dilemmas?
A. To articulate his or her unique point of view, including knowledge based on clinical and psychosocial observations
B. To await new clinical orders from the physician
C. To limit discussions about ethical principals
D. To allow the patient and the physician to resolve the dilemma without regard to personally held values or opinions regarding the ethical issues
A. To articulate his or her unique point of view, including knowledge based on clinical and psychosocial observations
Nursing plays a unique and critical role in the resolution of difficult ethical situations. The nurse is often able to contribute information not available to others on the team, the result of the special relationship that nurses build with patients. In providing this information, it is important to remain aware of one’s own values and how they may differ from those of the patient and others on the health care team.
A precise definition for the word quality is difficult to articulate when it comes to quality of life. Why? (Select all that apply.)
A. Quality of life is measured by potential income, and average income varies in different regions of the country.
B. Community values are subject to change, and communities influence definitions of “quality.”
C. Individual experiences influence perceptions of quality in potentially different ways, making consensus difficult.
D. Placing measurable value on elusive elements such as cognitive skills, ability to perform meaningful work, and relationship to family is challenging.
B. Community values are subject to change, and communities influence definitions of “quality.”
C. Individual experiences influence perceptions of quality in potentially different ways, making consensus difficult.
D. Placing measurable value on elusive elements such as cognitive skills, ability to perform meaningful work, and relationship to family is challenging.
Definitions of quality depend on individual experience and value integrated into community standards, but value refers to elements beyond monetary value.
Which of the following explain how health care reform is an ethical issue? (Select all that apply.)
A. Access to care is an issue of beneficence, a fundamental principal in health care ethics.
B. Reforms promote the principle of beneficence, a hallmark of health care ethics.
C. Purchasing health care insurance may become an obligation rather than a choice, a potential conflict between autonomy and beneficence.
D. Lack of access to affordable health care causes harm, and nonmaleficence is a basic principal of health care ethics.
B. Reforms promote the principle of beneficence, a hallmark of health care ethics.
C. Purchasing health care insurance may become an obligation rather than a choice, a potential conflict between autonomy and beneficence.
D. Lack of access to affordable health care causes harm, and nonmaleficence is a basic principal of health care ethics.
Since health care reform focuses on the public good, discussions about it inevitably involve reference to all aspects of ethical discourse. Reference to ethical principles helps to shape the discussion, even when individual values differ. Access to care is an issue of justice.
Which is the best method of negotiating or processing difficult ethical situations?
A. Ethical issues arise between dissenting providers and can be best resolved by deference to an independent arbitrator such a chaplain.
B. Since ethical issues usually affect policy and procedure, a legal expert is the best consultant to help resolve disputes.
C. Institutional ethics committees help to ensure that all participants involved in the ethical dilemma get a fair hearing and an opportunity to express values, feelings, and opinions as a way to find consensus.
D. Medical experts are best able to resolve conflicts about outcome predictions.
C. Institutional ethics committees help to ensure that all participants involved in the ethical dilemma get a fair hearing and an opportunity to express values, feelings, and opinions as a way to find consensus.
Ethics is ultimately an activity of community, resolved successfully through institutional ethics committees and not easily resolved by deference to a single expert or leader.
The increasing number of ethnic groups in the United States has been influenced by what?
A. Communicable diseases in disadvantaged countries
B. Increasing immigration
C. Homelessness
D. Healthcare reform
B. Increasing immigration
Currently, emerging populations include ethnic minorities and persons who are homeless. Ethnic minority populations could include Asian Americans/Pacific Islanders, Blacks/African Americans, Latinos/Hispanic Americans, Native Americans, and Arab Americans. The increasing population of immigrants has been a significant contributor to the presence of increasing numbers of major ethnic groups in the United States.
The nurse recognizes that a minority group is perceived as:
A. capturing biological variations within human populations.
B. people who receive less than their share of wealth, power, or social status.
C. people set apart on the basis of cultural or national origin characteristics.
D. socially organized groups with salient differences with respect to other groups in society.
B. people who receive less than their share of wealth, power, or social status.
A minority group may be perceived as consisting of people who receive less than their share of the wealth, power, or social status The U.S Department of Health and Human Services and the Institute of Medicine have well documented that racial and ethnic minorities have less access to health care, receive lower-quality health care, and have higher rates of illness, injury, and premature death. Race has been viewed as capturing biological variations within human populations. It emphasizes the physical and biological heredity. An ethnic group is a group that is set apart by insiders or outsiders primarily on the basis of cultural or national origin characteristics subjectively selected. Ethnic groups are socially organized with salient differences compared with other groups in society.
Which of the following diseases are Arab Americans at the highest risk for?
A. colon cancer.
B. hypertension.
C. adult-onset diabetes.
D. end-stage renal disease.
C. adult-onset diabetes.
There is limited health information about Arab Americans who suffer from chronic health problems such as diabetes and coronary artery disease. Several factors put Arab Americans at high-risk for developing adult onset diabetes and cardiovascular disease including obesity, age, gender, and low employment rates. Health concerns on the rise for Arab Americans include mental illness and tobacco consumption among adolescents.
Priority nursing assessments of Asian Americans/Pacific Islanders should be on which disease process?
A. COPD
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Breast cancer
A. COPD
Asian Americans have a high prevalence and risk factors of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hepatitis B, HIV/AIDS, smoking, tuberculosis, and liver disease. Asian American/Pacific Islander women are less likely to die of breast cancer, and infant mortality rates are lower compared with other ethnic groups. They have lower rates of being overweight, lower rates of hypertension, and are less likely to be cigarette smokers.
Priority nursing assessments of Latino/Hispanic Americans should focus on what disease process, because of its higher incidence in this population?
A. Cancer
B. Stroke
C. Diabetes
D. Cardiovascular
D. Cardiovascular
Cardiovascular disease is the number one cause of morbidity and mortality among Latino/Hispanic Americans. Cancer is the second most prevalent cause of morbidity and mortality. Diabetes is twice as prevalent in Latino/Hispanics as in non-Hispanic White Americans.
What two groups comprise emerging populations in the United States? (select two that apply)
A. Older Americans
B. Ethnic minorities
C. Homeless
D. Baby boomers
B. Ethnic minorities
C. Homeless
Currently, emerging populations in the United States include ethnic minorities, and persons who are homeless. Ethnic minority populations could include Asian Americans/Pacific Islanders, Blacks/African Americans, Latinos/Hispanic Americans, Native Americans, and Arab Americans. The increasing population of immigrants has been a significant contributor of the presence of increasing populations of major ethnic groups in the United States. Older Americans and baby boomers do not comprise emerging populations in the United States.
Which of the following statements accurately describe race and ethnic categories in the United States as defined by the Office of Management and Budget? (select all that apply)
A. Race and ethnicity have the same definition.
B. Ethnicity is associated with power and indexes the history or ongoing imposition of one group’s authority above another.
C. Ethnicity focuses on differences in meaning, values, and ways of living.
D. Ethnicity refers to commonalities in language, history, nation, or region of origin.
E. A minority group consists of people living in society that is usually disadvantaged.
C. Ethnicity focuses on differences in meaning, values, and ways of living.
D. Ethnicity refers to commonalities in language, history, nation, or region of origin.
E. A minority group consists of people living in society that is usually disadvantaged.
Ethnicity focuses on differences in meaning, values, and ways of living. Ethnicity is defined as a dynamic set of historically derived and institutionalized ideas and practices that allows people to identify or be identified with groupings of people on the presumed basis of commonalities in language, history, nation or region of origin, customs, ways of being, religion, names, physical appearance, and/or genealogy or ancestry. A minority group consists of people who are living within a society which is usually disadvantaged in relation to power, control of their own lives, and wealth. Race and ethnicity are different but somewhat alike. Race is associated with power and indexes the history or ongoing imposition of one group’s authority above another.
Ethnicity is evident in customs of particular groups. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the definitions of culture, values and value orientation? (select all that apply)
A. Culture refers to patterns of human behavior that include language, communication, customs and beliefs.
B. Ethnicity is shaped by values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by members of the same group.
C. Health care beliefs and attitudes among ethnic groups are congruent with health care providers.
D. Values are beliefs about the worth of something and serve as standards that influence behavior.
E. Value orientations reflect the personality type of a particular society.
A. Culture refers to patterns of human behavior that include language, communication, customs and beliefs. D. Values are beliefs about the worth of something and serve as standards that influence behavior.
E. Value orientations reflect the personality type of a particular society.
Culture is an element of ethnicity that refers to patterns of human behavior that include the language, thoughts, communications, actions, customs, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial, ethnic, religious, or social groups. Values are beliefs about the worth of something and serve as standards that influence behavior. Value orientations reflect the personality type of a particular society. Culture is shaped by values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by members of the same cultural group. Ethnic groups have unique beliefs and attitudes about health and health care services. Beliefs are generally incongruent with health care providers and prove to be major barriers to improving the health status of ethnic group members.
Which of the following statements are true about cultural competency in health care? (select all that apply)
A. Recognizing and accepting cultural diversity achieves cultural competency.
B. Cultural competency is a major element in eliminating health disparities.
C. There is no association between the care recipient’s cultural background and the health care providers’ cultural beliefs.
D. Health care services are to be provided that are respectful of and responsive to the diverse health beliefs of the care recipient.
E. Health care providers must be aware of how people interpret their health issues or illnesses.
B. Cultural competency is a major element in eliminating health disparities.
D. Health care services are to be provided that are respectful of and responsive to the diverse health beliefs of the care recipient.
E. Health care providers must be aware of how people interpret their health issues or illnesses.
Cultural competency is one of the major elements in eliminating the health disparities and starts with an honest desire not to allow biases. Health care services should be provided that are respectful of and responsive to the diverse health beliefs of the client. It is very important for health care providers to be aware of how people interpret their health issues or illnesses and be capable to provide culturally competent care. Culture is an element of ethnicity that refers to patterns of human behavior that include the language, thoughts, communications, actions, customs, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial, ethnic, religious, or social groups. Values are beliefs about the worth of something and serve as standards that influence behavior. Value orientations reflect the personality type of a particular society. Culture is shaped by values, beliefs, norms, and practices that are shared by members of the same cultural group. Ethnic groups have unique beliefs and attitudes about health and health care services. Beliefs are generally incongruent with health care providers and prove to be major barriers to improving the health status of ethnic group members.
Nurses caring for the Black/African American population need to maintain an awareness of which of the following health-related cultural aspects of care? (select two that apply)
A. Severe high blood pressure is more common for African Americans.
B. Cancer and mortality rates for African Americans is higher than that for White Americans.
C. African Americans are less likely to be diagnosed with diabetes.
D. African Americans have the highest percentage of women with low or no prenatal care in the first trimester.
A. Severe high blood pressure is more common for African Americans.
B. Cancer and mortality rates for African Americans is higher than that for White Americans.
Severe high blood pressure is more common for African Americans in both men and women. African American adults are 40% more likely to have high blood pressure. The incidence of cancer and mortality rates for African Americans is higher than that for White Americans. African Americans are two times more likely to be diagnosed with diabetes than non-Hispanic whites, and they are more likely to suffer complications from diabetes. African Americans experience high infant and maternal mortality rates and they have the second-highest percentage of women who lack prenatal care in the first trimester of pregnancy.
Which nursing intervention would be based upon utilitarian theory?
A. Initiating resuscitation of a 20-week gestation newborn
B. Preparing a 52-year-old woman with uterine cancer for a hysterectomy
C. Placing a 92-year-old client with terminal congestive heart failure on a ventilator
D. Administering chemotherapy to a 17-year-old with leukemia who states that he wants everything terminated
B. Preparing a 52-year-old woman with uterine cancer for a hysterectomy
Utilitarian theory proposes that actions are good in so far as they are aimed at yielding the greatest amount of happiness or pleasure, or cause the least amount of harm or pain, to persons and overall within the society. Any decision making must take into account the consequences of the decision. The professional involved in the decision making must also possess the appropriate skills and knowledge to undertake actions that will promote a “good” for persons. The situations stated above require the nurse to determine which situation has the greatest amount of good for society and which causes the least amount of pain. The woman with the uterine cancer diagnosis preparing for surgery has the most promising outcome, and therefore should be selected as the priority intervention based on utilitarian theory. The 20-week gestation newborn has almost no chance of surviving outside of the mother’s womb. The adolescent with leukemia who has stated that he does not want the chemotherapy should be respected, even though his parents will make the final decision. Being placed on the ventilator will not cure the 92-year-old client with terminal congestive heart failure. Even with extraordinary interventions, the client with a terminal disease prognosis is one who will not be cured of that disease process.
The nurse recognizes that the American Nurses Association (ANA) Code of Ethics identifies expectations of ethical behavior through statements regarding:
A. the primary goals, values, and obligations of the profession.
B. specific standards of care for selected populations.
C. disciplinary actions for incompetent nursing practice.
D. legal standards of practice.
A. the primary goals, values, and obligations of the profession.
The ANA Code of Ethics identifies the primary goals, values, and obligations of the profession of nursing. The specific standards of care and practice are developed by professional organizations and the Nursing Practice Acts of each state based on evidence-based practice. The Board of Nurse Examiners for each state also has been charged with the disciplinary actions for incompetent nurses in the respective state.
Which statement supports the principle of beneficence that overrides a person’s autonomy?
A. The nurse presses the button to administer pain medication through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) infusion.
B. The nurse maintains confidentiality to an HIV-positive husband who does not want his wife informed of his HIV status.
C. The nurse instructs parents that their newborn must be placed in a car seat that faces the back of the seat in the back seat of the car.
D. The nurse counsels a 21-year-old woman delivering her third child that she should request a tubal ligation.
C. The nurse instructs parents that their newborn must be placed in a car seat that faces the back of the seat in the back seat of the car.
Beneficence means to do good. As a moral principle, beneficence presents us with the duty to maximize the benefits of actions while minimizing harm. When society formulates rules that are designed to protect persons against the negative effects of their own actions, these rules are considered “beneficent,” yet they override a person’s autonomy. One example of this is the use of safety restraints—car seats for children and seat belts for adults—when driving or riding in an automobile. It is inappropriate to consider beneficence as a moral principle when withholding confidential information that may harm another, as in the case of the HIV-positive husband. The client must control the PCA infusion and choice of when to administer additional pain medication. If the nurse presses the button to administer additional medication, the client may suffer adverse effects related to receiving too much medication, because the client is not determining pain medication needs. Counseling a client regarding when to request a tubal ligation is inappropriate based on the nurses’ cultural values. The client should be given information on the advantages and disadvantages of the surgical procedure and its consequences, and the client has the autonomy to make her decision.
Which of the following statements best supports the ethical principle of justice?
A. Access to health care should be provided for all people.
B. Dialysis should be available for clients who adhere to their prescribed dietary regimes.
C. Transplant organs should be allocated based on ability to pay for hospital costs.
D. Health-promotion interventions should be provided to those who agree to pay more for health services.
A. Access to health care should be provided for all people.
Justice is a major ethical principle of importance in health-promotion settings. Justice is involved with the fair distribution of “goods” such as health, education, food, and shelter. Justice is the equalizing of benefits across society regardless of merit. Evaluating the four options above, it is apparent that the first statement supports justice related to provision of health care to all people, without regard to ability for payment. The other options place conditions on receiving care and interventions based on ability to pay or maintain medical regimes, which does not support the concept of justice.
When a nurse utilizes aggressive action on behalf of a care recipient, he or she is considered to be practicing:
A. social justice.
B. advocacy.
C. moral agency.
D. assertiveness.
B. advocacy.
Advocacy, as an expectation of nurses, is strongly reinforced both in the Code of Ethics and in innumerable scholarly articles. In legal jurisprudence, advocacy is aggressive action taken on behalf of an individual, or perhaps a group viewed as an individual entity, to protect or secure that individual’s rights. Nurses and other health care professionals have a responsibility to speak up on behalf of people whose rights have been compromised or endangered. This is part of the nurse’s role because people may not recognize either what is needed to meet their needs or when the care they are receiving is substandard. Social justice is concerned with disparities in socioeconomic conditions leading to poor health and fairness in the distribution of goods such as health, education, food, and shelter. Moral agency on the part of a nurse requires action and motivation directed to some moral end that is enacted through relationships. Utilizing aggressive action on behalf of a care recipient is not defined as assertiveness.
In health promotion settings, individual autonomy may be limited by:
A. freedom of action.
B. freedom of speech.
C. the duty of protecting the health and safety of society.
D. public policy.
C. the duty of protecting the health and safety of society.
In health-promotion settings and endeavors the concept of autonomy can be understood from two different perspectives. From the vantage point of public health, the extent of individual autonomy, or freedom of action, may be limited by the duty of protecting the health and safety of the society. From this perspective there is an age-old struggle between civil rights and public safety. Moral questions ask to what degree society is justified in regulating the health and safety of society at large. There is an inevitable tension associated with curtailing civil liberties in the name of safety or health. Freedom of speech is not associated with individual autonomy as it relates to health promotion.
Which of the following statements accurately describe ethical theories? (Select all that apply)
A. Normative theories are concerned with ensuring good actions.
B. Descriptive theories tell us what actions to take.
C. Consequentialist theories hold that decisions should take into account all knowable potential consequences.
D. Religions and duty-based theories assert that certain duties will produce good outcomes.
E. Descriptive theories are directive.
A. Normative theories are concerned with ensuring good actions.
C. Consequentialist theories hold that decisions should take into account all knowable potential consequences.
D. Religions and duty-based theories assert that certain duties will produce good outcomes.
Descriptive theories do not tell us what actions we ought to take. They are not directive; they merely tell us how people act toward each other and their environments and what they seem to believe are good or moral actions. Normative theories, on the other hand, are concerned with ensuring good actions. The consequentialist theory holds that the consequences or intended consequences of actions matter. Therefore from the consequentialist perspective, any decision about intended actions or interventions must take into account all knowable potential consequences. Duty-based theories, such as that of Immanuel Kant (1724-1804) and those of various religions (Judaism, Christianity, Islam), depend more on adherence to duties than on good consequences. Individuals are viewed as having certain duties that cannot be circumvented, even if deliberately side-stepping the duty would result in good outcomes. For religions, these rules are imparted in some way by a divine being.
What are some of the definitions that support using the term profession to denote the status of nursing? (select all that apply)
A. Nursing is considered a profession because it provides a service to society.
B. Nursing is considered a profession because of the stable employment opportunities.
C. Nursing is self-governing.
D. Members of the nursing profession are accountable for their actions.
E. Members of a profession abide by a code of ethics.
A. Nursing is considered a profession because it provides a service to society.
C. Nursing is self-governing.
D. Members of the nursing profession are accountable for their actions.
E. Members of a profession abide by a code of ethics.
Using the term profession to denote the status of nursing and other disciplines is controversial. Nursing is a profession insofar as it provides a service to society, is self-governing, and its members are accountable for their actions (Grace, 2001). One important characteristic of professions, especially those that provide crucial services to society, is that they have codes of ethics that provide essential elements of their promises of service to society. A significant consequence of professional status is that members can be held accountable for their practice formally by professional licensure boards. More importantly, they are morally accountable for practicing according to their discipline’s implicit or explicit code of ethics. Codes of ethics provide a normative framework for professional actions. A professional implicitly accepts these codes on acquiring membership in the discipline.
In health-promotion activities, which of the following statements is accurate regarding respect for autonomy? (select all that apply)
A. Individuals must be given the information they need to make choices.
B. Choices are autonomous when public policy dictates the action.
C. Autonomous choices are made when the person can understand the risks and benefits of the choices.
D. Autonomous choices are acceptable even when mental capacity is questionable.
E. Choices are considered autonomous in the absence of coercive influence.
A. Individuals must be given the information they need to make choices.
C. Autonomous choices are made when the person can understand the risks and benefits of the choices.
E. Choices are considered autonomous in the absence of coercive influence.
In health-promotion activities, respect for autonomy requires that individuals be given the information they need to make choices. Choices can be considered autonomous only if certain criteria are met. The criteria that determine whether or not a person is actually capable of autonomous (voluntary) choice include cognitive maturity, possession of appropriate information to permit decision-making, intact mental capacities (the ability to reason logically), the absence of internal or external coercive influences, and the ability to appreciate the risks and benefits of alternative choices.
The nurse participates in the process of ethical inquiry in health promotion to: (select all that apply)
A. facilitate in-depth data gathering.
B. resolve all ethical problems related to health promotion.
C. understand what is expected of the health-promotion agent viewed as a moral agent.
D. gain clarity on actual or potential issues regarding health-promotion endeavors.
E. foresee all possible consequences of ethical issues related to health promotion.
F. permit the uncovering of hidden agendas and interests.
G. focus on salient aspects of problems, thus enhancing professional judgment.
A. facilitate in-depth data gathering.
C. understand what is expected of the health-promotion agent viewed as a moral agent.
D. gain clarity on actual or potential issues regarding health-promotion endeavors.
F. permit the uncovering of hidden agendas and interests.
G. focus on salient aspects of problems, thus enhancing professional judgment.
The purpose of ethical inquiry in health promotion is to gain clarity on actual or potential moral issues arising in the context of health-promotion endeavors, and to understand what is expected of the health-promotion agent viewed as a moral agent. Ethical inquiry will not permit the resolution of all problems, mainly because the environments in which health-promotion efforts are conceptualized are incredibly complex. It is impossible to foresee all possible consequences of an action. But ethical reasoning can facilitate appropriate and in-depth data gathering, permit the uncovering of hidden agendas and interests, and focus on salient aspects of a particular problem, thus enhancing professional judgment.
a patient needs to learn to use a walker. Which domain is required for learning this skill?
a) affective domain
b) cognitive domain
c) attentional domain
d) psychomotor domain
d) psychomotor domain
the nurse is planning to teach a patient about the importance of exercise. when is the best time for teaching to occur? (Select all that apply)
a) when there are visitors in the room
b) when the patient’s pain medications are working
c) just before lunch, when the patient is most awake and alert
d) when the patient is talking about current stressors in his or her life
b) when the patient’s pain medications are working
c) just before lunch, when the patient is most awake and alert
a patient newly diagnosed with cervical cancer is going home. the patient is avoiding discussion of her illness and postoperative orders. what is the nurse’s best plan in teaching this patient?
a) teach the patient’s spouse
b) focus on knowledge the patient will need in a few weeks
c) provide only the information that the patient needs to go home
d) convince the patient that learning about her health is necessary
c) provide only the information that the patient needs to go home
The school nurse is about to teach a freshman-level high school health class about nutrition. What is the best instructional approach to ensure that the students meet the learning outcomes?
A) Provide information using a lecture
B) Use simple words to promote understanding
C) Develop topics for discussion that require problem solving
D) Complete an extensive literature search focusing on eating disorders
c) develop topics for discussion that require problem solving
A nurse is going to teach a patient how to perform breast self-examination. Which behavioral objective does the nurse set to best measure the patient’s ability to perform the examination?
A) The patient will verbalize the steps involved in breast self-examination within 1 week.
B) The nurse will explain the importance of performing breast self-examination once a month.
C) The patient will perform breast self-examination correctly on herself before the end of the teaching session.
D) The nurse will demonstrate breast self-examination on a breast model provided by the American Cancer Society.
C) The patient will perform breast self-examination correctly on herself before the end of the teaching session.
A patient with chest pain is having an emergency cardiac catheterization. Which teaching approach does the nurse use in this situation?
A) Telling approach
B) Selling approach
C) Entrusting approach
D) Participating approach
A) Telling approach
the nurse is teaching a parenting class to a group of pregnant adolescents. the nurse pretends to be the baby’s father, and the adolescent mother is asked to show how she would respond to the father if he gave her a can of beer. which teaching approach did the nurse use?
a) role play
b) discovery
c) an analogy
d) a demonstration
a) role play
an older adult is being started on a new antihypertensive medication. in teaching the patient about the medication, the nurse:
a) speaks loudly
b) presents the information once
c) expects the patient to understand the information quickly
d) allows the patient time to express himself or herself and ask questions
d) allows the patient time to express himself or herself and ask questions
A patient needs to learn how to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following reflects that the patient is ready to learn?
A) Describing difficulties a family member has had in taking insulin
B) Expressing the importance of learning the skill correctly
C) Being able to see and understand the markings on the syringe
D) Having the dexterity needed to prepare and inject the medication
B) Expressing the importance of learning the skill correctly
a patient who is hospitalized has just been diagnosed with diabetes. he is going to need to learn how to give himself injections. which teaching method does the nurse use?
a) simulation
b) demonstration
c) group instruction
d) one-on-one discussion
b) demonstration
When a nurse is teaching a patient about how to administer an epinephrine injection in case of a severe allergic reaction, he or she tells the patient to hold the injection like a dart. Which of the following instructional methods did the nurse use?
A. Telling
B. Analogy
C. Demonstration
D. Simulation
B. Analogy
a nurse needs to teach a young woman newly diagnosed with asthma how to manage her disease. which of the following topics does the nurse teach first?
a) how to use a inhaler during an asthma attack
b) the need to avoid people who smoke to prevent asthma attacks
c) where to purchase a medical alert bracelet that says she has asthma
d) the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and exercising regularly
a) how to use a inhaler during an asthma attack
a nurse is teaching a group of young college-age women the importance of using sunscreen when going out in the sun. what type of content is the nurse providing?
a) simulation
b) restoring health
c) coping with impaired function
d) health promotion and illness prevention
d) health promotion and illness prevention
a nurse is planning a teaching session about healthy nutrition with a group of children who are in the first grade. the nurse determines that after the teaching session the children will be able to name three examples of foods that are fruits. this is an example of:
a) a teaching plan
b) a learning objective
c) reinforcement of content
d) enhancing the children’s self-efficacy
b) a learning objective
a nurse is teaching a 27-year old gentleman how to adjust his insulin dosages based on his blood sugar results. what type of learning is this?
a) cognitive
b) affective
c) adaptation
d) psychomotor
a) cognitive
Any combination of planned experiences based on sound theories that provide individuals, groups, and communities the opportunity to acquire the information and skills needed to make quality health decisions is known as:
a) health promotion.
b) health counseling.
c) health education.
d) health knowledge.
c) health education.
Which of the following interventions can be appropriately applied by the nurse, after clarifying behaviors which the person is willing to change?
Select all that apply.
a) Motivate using personalized messages.
b) Assess and offer resources to decrease barriers to change.
c) Implement compliance as a condition of continued care.
d) Assess and increase self-efficacy.
e) Enlist persons from the same culture to apply pressure for healthy choices.
a) Motivate using personalized messages.
b) Assess and offer resources to decrease barriers to change.
d) Assess and increase self-efficacy.
Nurses play an active role in __ individuals to make their own informed decisions about health care.
a) empowering
b)coercing
c)persuading
d) directing
a) empowering
What are some of the components of the Health Belief Model that can assist nurses in determining the probability of an individual to make change?
Select all that apply.
a) External pressure to change
b) The value of health as determined by significant others
c) Perceived susceptibility to a health problem, disease, or complications
d) Perceived seriousness of disease
e) Risk factors of disease attributed to heredity, race, or culture
c) Perceived susceptibility to a health problem, disease, or complications
d) Perceived seriousness of disease
e) Risk factors of disease attributed to heredity, race, or culture
The communication of health information in a manner which is clear and understandable fosters which of the following?
a) Empowerment
b) Health literacy
c) Health disparities
d) Health education
b) Health literacy
Which of the following statements accurately describe one of the five stages of health-related behavior change according to the Transtheoretical Model (TTM)?
Select all that apply.
a) Sustained change over time occurs in the contemplation phase.
b) When a person is considering the adoption of a change within the next 6 months, she or he is said to be in the precontemplation phase.
c) Small, sporadic changes occur in the planning phase, as the individual is seriously thinking about making a change within the next month.
d) In the action phase, the person has made behavior change which has persisted for 30 days.
e) Maintenance begins 6 months after the action has started and continues indefinitely.
c) Small, sporadic changes occur in the planning phase, as the individual is seriously thinking about making a change within the next month.
e) Maintenance begins 6 months after the action has started and continues indefinitely.
A hospital creates a Facebook page for the bariatric surgery program. The owner of the site posts healthy recipes, lifestyle information, and information about upcoming workshops. This is an example of:
a) health literacy.
b) coercive advertising.
c) a teaching plan.
d) social marketing.
d) social marketing.
Working families with an income too low to purchase health insurance and too high to qualify for Medicaid would be an example of which of the following issues?
a) Low health literacy
b) Health disparity
c) Federally subsidized health care
d) Poor quality health care
b) Health disparity
The nurse incorporates cultural considerations into the health teaching plan by:
a) assessing a person’s beliefs.
b) using medical terminology.
c) presenting evidence-based information.
d) explaining that universal health practices are the best.
a) assessing a person’s beliefs.
Nurses provide health education to people to assist them in achieving a goal of:
Select all that apply.
a) enhanced wellness.
b) physician-directed care.
c) lifestyle behaviors to prevent chronic illness.
d) admission to tertiary-care facilities.
e) Improved health literacy.
f) patient empowerment.
a) enhanced wellness.
c) lifestyle behaviors to prevent chronic illness.
e) Improved health literacy.
f) patient empowerment.
In demonstrating the method for deep breathing exercises, the nurse places his or her hands on the patient’s abdomen to explain diaphragmatic movements. This technique involves the use of which communication element?
a) referent
b) message
c) feedback
d) tactile channel
d) tactile channel
means of conveying and receiving messages through visual, auditory, and tactile senses
Which statement about nonverbal communication is correct?
a) the nurse’s verbal messages should be reinforced by nonverbal cues
b) it is easy for a nurse to judge the meaning of a patient’s facial expression
c) the physical appearance of the nurse rarely influences nurse-patient interaction
d) words convey meanings that are usually more significant than nonverbal communication
a) the nurse’s verbal messages should be reinforced by nonverbal cues
awareness of the tone of verbal response and the nonverbal behavior results in further exploration
the term referring to the sender’s attitude toward the self, the message, and the listener is:
a) denotative meaning
b) metacommunication
c) connotative meaning
d) nonverbal communication
c) connotative meaning
the connotative meaning of a word is influenced by the thoughts, feelings, or ideas people have about the word
the referent in the communication process is:
a) information shared by the sender
b) the means of conveying messages
c) that which motivates the communication
d) the person who initiates the communicaiton
c) that which motivates the communication
motivates one person to communicate with the other
a nurse is conducting an admission interview with a patient. to maintain the patient’s territoriality and maximize communication, the nurse should sit:
a) 4 to 12 feet from the patient
b) 0 to 18 inches from the patient
c) 12 feet or more from the patient
d) 18 inches to 4 feet form the patient
d) 18 inches to 4 feet from the patient
personal zone when taking a patient’s history
An internal impulse that causes a person to take action is:
- Anxiety
- Motivation
- Adaptation
- Compliance
- Motivation
demonstration of the principles of body mechanics used when transferring patients from bed to chair would be classified under which domain of learning?
a) social
b) affective
c) cognitive
d) psychomotor
d) psychomotor
which of the following patients is most ready to begin a patient-teaching session?
a) ms. hernandez, who is unwilling to accept that her back injury may result in permanent paralysis
b) mr. frank, who is newly diagnosed with diabetes, who is complaining that he was awake all night because of his noisy roommate
c) mrs. brown, a patient with irritable bowel syndrome, who has just returned from a morning of testing in the gastrointestinal laboratory
d) mr. jones a patient who had a heart attack 4 days ago and now seems somewhat anxious about how this will affect his future
d) mr. jones a patient who had a heart attack 4 days ago and now seems somewhat anxious about how this will affect his future
the nurse works with pediatric patients who have diabetes. which is the youngest age group to which the nurse can effectively teach psychomotor skills such as insulin administration?
a) toddler
b) preschool
c) school age
d) adolescent
c) school age
which of the following is an appropriately stated learning objective for mr. ryan, who is newly diagnosed with diabetes?
a) mr. ryan will understand diabetes
b) mr. ryan will be taught self-administration of insulin by 5/2
c) mr. ryan will know the signs and symptoms of low blood sugar by 5/5
d) mr. ryan will perform blood glucose monitoring with the EZ-check monitor by the time of discharge
d) mr. ryan will perform blood glucose monitoring with the EZ-check monitor by the time of discharge
the primary purpose of a patient’s medical record is to:
a) provide validation for hospital charges
b) satisfy requirements of accreditation agencies
c) provide the nurse with a defense against malpractice
d) communicate accurate, timely information about the patient
d) communicate accurate, timely information about the patient
the patients medical record should be the most current and accurate continuous source of information about the patients health care status
which of the following is correctly charted according to the six guidelines for quality recording?
a) was depressed today
b) respiration rapid; lungs sound clear
c) had a good day. up and about in room
d) crying. states she doesn’t want visitors to see her like this
d) crying. states she doesn’t want visitors to see her like this
during a change-of-shift report:
a) two or more nurses always visit all patients to review their plain of care
b) the nurse should identify nursing diagnoses and clarify patient priorities
c) nurses should exchange judgments they have made about patient attitudes
d) patient information is communicated from a nurse on a sending unit to a nurse on a receiving unit
b) the nurse should identify nursing diagnoses and clarify patient priorities
an incident report is:
a) a legal claim against a nurse for negligent nursing care
b) a summary report of all falls occurring on a nursing unit
c) a report of an event inconsistent with the routine care of a patient
d) a report of a nurse’s behavior submitted to the hospital administration
c) a report of an event inconsistent with the routine care of a patient
if an error is made while recording, the nurse should:
a) erase it or scratch it out
b) leave a blank space in the note
c) draw a single line through the error and initial it
d) obtain a new nurse’s note and rewrite the entries
c) draw a single line through the error and initial it
according to piaget, the school-age child is in the third stage of cognitive development, which is characterized by:
a) concrete operations
b) conventional thought
c) postconventional thought
d) identity vs. role-diffusion
a) concrete operations
children achieve the ability to perform mental operations
according to erikson, the developmental task of adolescence is:
a) industry vs. inferiority
b) identity vs. role confusion
c) autonomy vs. shame and doubt
d) role acceptance vs. role confusion
b) identity vs. role confusion
according to erikson’s developmental theory, the primary developmental task of the middle years is to:
a) achieve intimacy
b) achieve generativity
c) establish a set of personal values
d) establish a sense of personal identity
b) achieve generativity
according to kohlberg, children develop moral reasoning as they mature. which of the following is most characteristics of a preschoolers stage of moral development?
a) the rules of correct behavior are obeyed
b) behavior that pleases others is considered good
c) showing respect for authority is important behavior
d) actions are determined as good or bad in terms of their consequences
a) the rules of correct behavior are obeyed
to stimulate cognitive and psychosocial development of the toddler, it is important for parents to:
a) set firm and consistent limits
b) foster sharing of toys and playmates and siblings
c) provide clarification about what is right and wrong
d) limit confusion by restricting exploration of the environment
a) set firm and consistent limits
which of the following is true of the developmental behaviors of school-aged children?
a) fears center on the loss of self-control
b) positive feedback from parents and teachers is crucial to development
c) formal and informal peer group membership is the key in forming self-esteem
d) a full range of defense mechanisms is used, including rationalization and intellectualization
b) positive feedback from parents and teachers is crucial to development
the greatest cause of illness and death in the young adult population is:
a) violence
b) substance abuse
c) cardiovascular disease
d) sexually transmitted disease
a) violence
which physiological change would be a normal assessment finding in a middle adult?
a) increased breast size
b) reduced auditory acuity
c) thickening of the waistline
d) increased anteroposterior diameter of the thorax
c) thickening of the waistline
in planning patient education for mrs. smith, a 45-year-old woman who had an ovarian cyst removed, which of the following facts is true about the sexuality of middle-aged adults?
a) menstruation ceases after menopause
b) estrogen is produced after menopause
c) with removal of the ovarian cyst, pregnancy cannot occur
d) after reaching climacteric, a man is unable to father a child
a) menstruation ceases after menopause
which statement describing delirium is correct?
a) symptoms of delirium are irreversible
b) the onset of delirium is slow and insidious
c) symptoms of delirium are stable and unchanging
d) causes include electrolyte imbalances and cerebral anoxia
d) causes include electrolyte imbalances and cerebral anoxia
ms. dale states that she does not need the TV turned on because she cannot see very well. normal visual changes in older adults include all of the following except:
a) double vision
b) sensitivity to glare
c) decreased visual acuity
d) decreased accommodation to darkness
a) double vision
mr.delone states that he is worried about his parents plan to retire. all of the following would be appropriate responses regarding the retirement of older adults except:
a) retirement may affect an individual’s physical and psychological functioning
b) positive adjustment is often related to how much a person planned for the retirement
c) reactions to retirement are influenced by the importance that has been attached to the work role
d) retirement for most persons represents a sudden shock that is irreversibly damaging to self-image and self-esteem
d) retirement for most persons represents a sudden shock that is irreversibly damaging to self-image and self-esteem
an 18-month-old child is noted by the parents to be “angry” about any change in routine. the child’s temperament is most likely to be described as:
a) slow to warm up
b) difficult
c) hyperactive
d) easy
b) difficult
9-year-old brian has a difficult time making friends at school and being chosen to play on the team. he also has trouble completing his homework and, as a result, receives little positive feedback from his parents or teacher. according to erikson’s theory, failure at this stage of development results in:
a) a sense of guilt
b) a poor sense of self
c) feelings of inferiority
d) mistrust
c) feelings of inferiority
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the nurse teaches parents how to have their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. this would be during which of erickson’s stages of development?
a) trust versus mistrust
b) initiative versus guilt
c) industry versus inferiority
d) autonomy versus sense of shame and doubt
b) initiative versus guilt
when preparing a 4-year-old child for a procedure, which method is developmentally most appropriate for the nurse to use?
a) allowing the child to watch another child undergoing the same procedure
b) showing the child pictures of what he or she will experience
c) talking to the child in simple terms about what will happened
d) preparing the child through play with a doll and toy medical equipment
d) preparing the child through play with a doll and toy medical equipment
a 35-year-old woman is speaking with you about her recent diagnosis of a chronic illness. she is concerned about her treatment options in relation to her ability to continue to care for her family. as she considers the options and alternatives, she incorporates information, her values, and emotions to decide which plan will be the best fit for her. she is using which form of cognitive development?
a) conventional reasoning
b) formal operations
c) integrity versus despair
d) postformal thought
d) postformal thought
you are coming for a recently retired man who appears withdrawn and says he is “bored with life.” applying the work of havinghurst, you would help this individual find meaning in life by:
a) encouraging him to explore new roles
b) encouraging relocation to a new city
c) explaining the need to simplify life
d) encouraging him to adopt a new pet
a) encouraging him to explore new roles
place the following stages of freud’s psychosexual development in the proper order by age progression
a) oedipal
b) latency
c) oral
d) genital
e) anal
c) oral
e) anal
b) latency
a) oedipal
d) genital
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according to piaget’s cognitive theory, a 12-year-old child is most likely to engage in which of the following activities
a) using building blocks to determine how houses are constructed
b) writing a story about a clown who wants to leave the circus
c) drawing pictures of a family using stick figures
d) writing an essay about patriotism
b) writing a story about a clown who wants to leave the circus
allison, age 15 years, calls her best friend laura and is crying. she has a date with john, someone she has been hoping to date for months, but now she has a pimple on her forehead. laura firmly believes that john and everyone else will notice the blemish right away. this is an example of the:
a) imaginary audience
b) false-belief syndrome
c) personal fable
d) personal absorption syndrome
a) imaginary audience
Elizabeth, who is having unprotected sex with her boyfriend, comments to her friends, “Did you hear about Kathy? You know, she fools around so much; I heard she was pregnant. That would never happen to me!” This is an example of adolescent:
A) Imaginary audience.
B) False-belief syndrome.
C) Personal fable.
D) Sense of invulnerability
D) Sense of invulnerability
Teaching an older adult how to use e-mail to communicate with a grandchild who lives in another state is an example of __, which aids cognitive performance by using new approaches.
A) Cognitive development
B) Activity theory
C) Selective optimization with compensation
D) Formal operations
C) Selective optimization with compensation
Dave reports being happy and satisfied with his life. What do we know about Dave?
A) He is in one of the later developmental periods, concerned with reviewing his life.
B) He is atypical, since most people in any of the developmental stages report significant dissatisfaction with their lives.
C) He is in one of the earlier developmental periods, concerned with establishing a career and satisfying long-term relationships.
D) It is difficult to determine Dave’s developmental stage since most people report overall satisfaction with their lives in all stages
D) It is difficult to determine Dave’s developmental stage since most people report overall satisfaction with their lives in all stages
In an interview with a pregnant patient, the nurse discussed the three risk factors that have been cited as having a possible effect on prenatal development. They are:
A) Nutrition, stress, and mother’s age.
B) Prematurity, stress, and mother’s age.
C) Nutrition, mother’s age, and fetal infections.
D) Fetal infections, prematurity, and placenta previa.
A) Nutrition, stress, and mother’s age
a parent has brought her 6-month-old infant in for a well-child check. which of her statements indicates a need for further teaching?
a) “I can start giving her whole milk at about 12 months.”
b) “i can continue to breastfeed for another 6 months.”
c) “I’ve started giving her plenty of fruit juice as a way to increase her vitamin intake.”
d) “i can start giving her solid food now.”
c) “I’ve started giving her plenty of fruit juice as a way to increase her vitamin intake.”
the type of injury a child is most vulnerable to at a specific age is most closely related to which of the following
a) provision of adult supervision
b) educational level of the patient
c) physical health of the child
d) developmental level of the child
d) developmental level of the child
which approach would be best for the nurse to use with a hospitalized toddler
a) always give several choices
b) set few limits to allow for open expression
c) use noninvasive methods when possible
d) gain cooperation before attempting treatment
d) gain cooperation before attempting treatment
the nurse is providing information on prevention of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) to the mother of a young infant. which of the following statements indicates that the mother has a good understanding?
(Select all that apply)
a) “i wont use pacifier to help my baby sleep.”
b) “i’ll be sure my baby does not spend any time on her abdomen.”
c) “i’ll place my baby on her back for sleep.”
d) “i’ll be sure to keep my baby’s room cold.”
c) “i’ll place my baby on her back for sleep.”
d) “i’ll be sure to keep my baby’s room cold.”
in evaluating the gross-motor development of a 5-month-old infant, which of the following would the nurse expect the infant to do?
a) roll from abdomen to back
b) move from prone to sitting unassisted
c) sit upright without support
d) turn completely over
a) roll from abdomen to back
Parents are concerned about their toddler’s negativism and ask the nurse for guidance. Which is the most appropriate recommendation?
A) Provide more attention.
B) Reduce opportunities for a “no” answer.
C) Be consistent with punishment.
D) Provide opportunities for the toddler to make decisions.
B) Reduce opportunities for a “no” answer.
When nurses are communicating with adolescents, they should:
A) Be alert to clues to their emotional state.
B) Ask closed-ended questions to get straight answers.
C) Avoid looking for meaning behind adolescents’ words or actions.
D) Avoid discussing sensitive issues such sex and drugs.
A) Be alert to clues to their emotional state.
which of the following statements is most descriptive of the psychosocial development of school-age children
a) boys and girls play equally with each other
b) peer influence is not yet an important factor to the child
c) they like to play games with rigid rules
d) children frequently have “best friends.”
d) children frequently have “best friends.”
with the exception of pregnant or lactating women, the young adult has usually completed physical growth by the age of:
a) 18
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30
b) 20
the nurse is completing an assessment on a male patient, age 24. following the assessment, the nurse notes that his physical and laboratory findings are within normal limits. because of these findings, nursing interventions are directed toward activities related to:
a) instructing him to return in 2 years
b) instructing him in secondary prevention
c) instructing him in health promotion activities
d) implementing primary prevention with vaccines
c) instructing him in health promotion activities
when determining the amount of information that a patient needs to make decisions about the prescribed course of therapy, many factors affect the patient’s compliance with the regimen, including educational level and socioeconomic factors. which additional factor affects compliance?
a) gender
b) lifestyle
c) motivation
d) family history
c) motivation
a patient is laboring with her firs tabby, which is coming 2 weeks early. her husband is in the military and might not get back in time, and both families are unable to be with her during labor. the doctor decides to call in which of the following people employed by the birthing area to be a support person to be present during labor:
a) nurse
b) midwife
c) assistant
d) lay doula
d) lay doula
a single young adult female interacts with a group of close friends from college and work. they celebrate birthdays and holidays together. in addition, they help one another through many stressors. she views these individuals as:
a) family
b) siblings
c) substitue parents
d) alternative family structure
a) family
Sharing eating utensils with a person who has a contagious illness increases the risk of illness. This type of health risk arises from:
A) Lifestyle.
B) Community.
C) Family history.
D) Personal hygiene habits.
D) Personal hygiene habits.
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a 50-year-old woman has elevated cholesterol profile values that increase her cardiovascular risk factor. one method to control this risk factor is to identify current diet trends and describe dietary changes to reduce the risk. this nursing activity is a form of:
a) referral
b) counseling
c) health education
d) stress management techniques
c) health education
a 50-year-old male patient is seen in the clinic. he tells the nurse that he has recently lost his job and his wife of 26 years has asked for a divorce. he has a flat affect. family history reveals that his father committed suicide at the age of 53. the nurse should assess for the following:
a) cardiovascular disease
b) depression
c) sexually transmitted suicide
d) iron deficiency anemia
b) depression
Middle-age adults frequently find themselves trying to balance responsibilities related to employment, family life, care of children, and care of aging parents. People finding themselves in this situation are frequently referred to as being a part of:
A) The sandwich generation.
B) The millennial generation.
C) Generation X.
D) Generation Y.
A) The sandwich generation.
intimate partner violence (IPV) is linked to which of the following factors? (select all that apply)
a) alcohol abuse
b) pregnancy
c) unemployment
d) drug use
a) alcohol abuse
b) pregnancy
c) unemployment
d) drug use
sexually transmitted infections (STIs) continue to be a major health problem in young adults. men ages 20 to 24 years have the highest rate of which STI
a) chlamydia
b) syphilis
c) gonorrhea
d) herpes zoster
a) chlamydia
Formation of positive health habits may prevent the development of chronic illness later in life. Which of the following are examples of positive health habits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Routine screening and diagnostic tests
B) Unprotected sexual activity
C) Regular exercise
D) Excess alcohol consumption
A) Routine screening and diagnostic tests
C) Regular exercise
chronic illness may affect a person’s roles and responsibilities during middle adulthood. when assessing the knowledge base of both the middle-age patient with a chronic illness and his family, the assessment should include which of the following
(Select all that apply)
a) the medical course of the illness
b) the prognosis for the patient
c) coping mechanisms of the patient and family
d) the need for community and social services
a) the medical course of the illness
b) the prognosis for the patient
c) coping mechanisms of the patient and family
a 45-year-old obese woman tells the nurse that she wants to lose weight. after conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse concludes that which of the following may be contributing factors to the woman’s obesity)
(Select all that apply)
a) the woman works in an executive position that is very demanding
b) the woman works out at the corporate gym at 5am two mornings per week
c) the woman says that she has little time to prepare meals at home and eats out at least four nights a week
d) the woman says that she tries to eat “low cholesterol” foods to help lose weight
a) the woman works in an executive position that is very demanding
c) the woman says that she has little time to prepare meals at home and eats out at least four nights a week
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a patient’s family member is considering having her mother placed in a nursing center. you have talked with the family before and know that this is a difficult decision. which of the following criteria would you recommend in choosing a nursing center
(Select all that apply)
a) the center should be clean, and rooms should look like a hospital room
b) there should be adequate staffing on all shifts
c) social activities should be available for all residents
d) three meals should be served daily with a set menu and serving schedule
e) family involvement in care planning and assisting with physical care is necessary
b) there should be adequate staffing on all shifts
c) social activities should be available for all residents
e) family involvement in care planning and assisting with physical care is necessary
a nurse has conducted an assessment of a new patient who has come to the medical clinic. the patient is 82 years old and has had osteoarthritis for 10 years and diabetes mellitus for 20 years. he is alert but becomes easily distracted during the nursing history. he recently moved to a new apartment, and his pet beagle died just 2 months ago. he is most likely experiencing:
a) dementia
b) depression
c) delirium
d) disengagement
b) depression
a major life event such as the death of a loved one, a move to a nursing home, or a cancer diagnosis could precipitate:
a)dementia
b) delirium
c) depression
d) stroke
c) depression
Sexuality is maintained throughout our lives. Which answer below best explains sexuality in an older adult?
A) When the sexual partner passes away, the survivor no longer feels sexual.
B) A decrease in an older adult’s libido occurs.
C) Any outward expression of sexuality suggests that the older adult is having a developmental problem.
D) All older adults, whether healthy or frail, need to express sexual feelings.
D) All older adults, whether healthy or frail, need to express sexual feelings.
Older adults experience a change in sexual activity. Which best explains this change?
A) The need to touch and be touched is decreased.
B) The sexual preferences of older adults are not as diverse.
C) Physical changes usually do not affect sexual functioning.
D) Frequency and opportunities for sexual activity may decline.
D) Frequency and opportunities for sexual activity may decline.
You see a 76-year-old woman in the outpatient clinic. Her chief complaint is vision. She states she has really noticed glare in the lights at home. Her vision is blurred; and she is unable to play cards with her friends, read, or do her needlework. You suspect that she may have:
A) Presbyopia.
B) Disengagement.
C) Cataract(s).
D) Depression.
C) Cataract(s).
a nurse is caring for a patient preparing for discharge from the hospital the next day. the patient does not read and has a hearing loss. his family caregiver will be visiting before discharge. what can you do to facilitate the patient’s understanding of his discharge instructions
(select all that apply)
a) speak loudly so the patient can hear you
b) sit facing the patient so he is able to watch your lip movements and facial expressions
c) present one idea or concept at a time
d) send a written copy of the instructions home with him and tell him to have the family review them
e) include the family caregiver in the teaching session
b) sit facing the patient so he is able to watch your lip movements and facial expressions
c) present one idea or concept at a time
e) include the family caregiver in the teaching session
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Taste buds atrophy and lose sensitivity, and appetite may decrease. As a result, the older adult is less able to discern:
A) Spicy and bland foods.
B) Salty, sour, and bitter tastes.
C) Hot and cold food temperatures.
D) Moist and dry food preparations.
B) Salty, sour, and bitter tastes.
kyphosis, a change in the musculoskeletal system, leads to:
a) decreased bone density in the vertebrae and hips
b) increased risk for pathological stress fractures in the hips
c) changes in the configuration of the spine that affect the lungs and thorax
d) calcification of the bony tissues of the long bones such as in the legs and arm
c) changes in the configuration of the spine that affect the lungs and thorax
a 63-year-old patient is retiring from his job at an accounting firm where he has a in a management role for the past 20 years. he has been with the same company for 42 years and was a dedicated employee. his wife is a homemaker. she raised their five children, babysits for her grandchildren as needed, and belongs to numerous church committees. what are your major concerns for this patient
(Select all that apply)
a) the loss of his work role
b) the risk of social isolation
c) a determination if the wife will need to start working
d) how the wife expects household tasks to be divided in the home in retirement
e) the age the patient chose to retire
a) the loss of his work role
d) how the wife expects household tasks to be
During a home health visit a nurse talks with a patient and his family caregiver about the patient’s medications. The patient has hypertension and renal disease. Which of the following findings places him at risk for an adverse drug event? (Select all that apply.)
A) Taking two medications for hypertension
B) Taking a total of eight different medications during the day.
C) Having one physician who reviews all medications
D) Patient’s health history
E) Involvement of the caregiver in assisting with medication administration
B) Taking a total of eight different medications during the day.
D) Patient’s health history
you are caring for an 80-year-old man who recently loss his wife. he shares with you that he has been drinking more than he ever did in the past and feels hopeless without his wife. he reports that he rarely sees his children and feels isolated and alone. this patient is at risk for
a) demntia
b) liver failure
c) dehydration
d) suicide
d) suicide
you are working with an older adult after an acute hospitalization. your goal is to help this person be more in touch with time, place, and person. what might you try
a) reminiscence
b) validation therapy
c) reality orientation
d) body image interventions
c) reality orientation
What are some ethical standards that nurses can utilize for interpersonal communications?
Select all that apply.
a) Communicate information accurately.
b) Take a laissez-faire approach to minimize conflict.
c) Change the subject when unsure of the correct answer.
d) Be sensitive to sex and cultural context.
e) Communicate verbal and nonverbal messages in a congruent manner
a) Communicate information accurately.
d) Be sensitive to sex and cultural context.
e) Communicate verbal and nonverbal messages in a congruent manner.
The nurse demonstrates empathy toward a crying mother whose baby was stillborn by stating:
a) “I know exactly how you feel; that happened to me once.”
b) “You are young and will be able to have another baby.”
c) “It was God’s will that your baby was taken to heaven with him.”
d) “Loss of a baby is truly a sad occurrence.”
d) “Loss of a baby is truly a sad occurrence.”
Health literacy is the capacity to read, comprehend, and follow through on health information and is a crucial component of health promotion. What are some of the techniques nurses can utilize to reduce low health literacy?
Select all that apply.
a) Communicate in a standing position to demonstrate authority.
b) Create a safe and comfortable environment.
c) Refer the client to websites for clarification of conditions and procedures.
d) Establish eye contact during communication.
e) Have the client teach back the information they have been provided to assess understanding.
b) Create a safe and comfortable environment.
d) Establish eye contact during communication.
e) Have the client teach back the information they have been provided to assess understanding.
Which question best assists the nurse who is helping a person to formulate the problem as a step in the problem-solving process?
a) “What pattern is there?”
b) “What do you want to see changed?”
c) “What would you do the next time?”
d) “What meaning does this have for you?”
b) “What do you want to see changed?”
A woman is scheduled for ambulation in the early morning of the first day after undergoing an abdominal hysterectomy. The nurse uses consensual validation of the individual’s understanding of the plan of care by stating:
a) “I will be back at 9 AM to take you on a walk.”
b) “The doctor wants you to walk one time this morning.”
c) “Tell me where you would like to walk this morning.”
d) “Walking soon after a surgical procedure prevents complications.”
c) “Tell me where you would like to walk this morning.”
Which of the following methods of communication are most appropriate for use with individuals who are deaf, hard of hearing, or have a language barrier?
Select all that apply.
a) Utilize written communication with someone who is deaf or hard of hearing.
b) Untrained personnel or relatives are acceptable interpreters as long as they are fluent in the language.
c) Nonverbal messages are universal.
d) Touch is an acceptable form of communication with the blind.
e) Braille is used in communication with the deaf and hard of hearing.
a) Utilize written communication with someone who is deaf or hard of hearing.
d) Touch is an acceptable form of communication with the blind.
In health promotion, the nurse-person relationship is the context for care. Which of the following elements of communication are important considerations?
Select all that apply.
a) Health promotion requires sensitivity to the goals and values of the nurse and the care recipient’s family.
b) Helping a person adopt health-promoting behaviors is a matter of providing education.
c) Successful health promotion involves interpersonal skills.
d) Health promotion requires communication skills.
e) Values clarification is an essential element of communication and health promotion.
c) Successful health promotion involves interpersonal skills.
d) Health promotion requires communication skills.
e) Values clarification is an essential element of communication and health promotion.
One concern that nurses have when using self-disclosure during therapeutic interactions is that:
a) revealing oneself assists in developing a helping relationship.
b) it may cross a boundary from a professional to a personal relationship.
c) care recipients value nurses who engage in interactions as real people.
d) it creates reciprocity involving a mutual exchange between the nurse and the care recipient.
b) it may cross a boundary from a professional to a personal relationship.
A nurse tells a childbirth education class consisting of pregnant women and their coaches that alcohol use poses serious risks to the fetus. After the class, one woman comments, “Do you really think that having a drink once in a while is bad for the baby? I’m sick of being told that I can’t do things because of the baby.” This is an example of:
a) self-concept.
b) bias.
c) values clarification.
d) empowering beliefs.
c) values clarification.
Effective nurse-patient communication would include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
a) Not being “too busy” to talk
b) Focusing on the nurse’s views
c) Developing mutual understanding
d) Emphasizing the technical aspects of care
e) Using a conversational interviewing style
f) Tuning in to the client’s preferences and style
a) Not being “too busy” to talk
c) Developing mutual understanding
e) Using a conversational interviewing style
f) Tuning in to the client’s preferences and style
Which entities recommend that health practitioners within the United States use growth charts for children from birth to 24 months?
Select all that apply.
a) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
b) World Health Organization
c) The Joint Commission
d) Healthy People 2020
e) American Hospital Association
a) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
b) World Health Organization
Which theorist developed his ideas based on interviews that focused on hypothetical moral dilemmas?
a) Gilligan
b) Kohlberg
c) Piaget
d) Erikson
b) Kohlberg
During a health screening of Hispanic children for lead poisoning, the initial question the nurse should ask is:
a) “How old is the house you are living in?”
b) “Do you eat canned foods from the United States only?”
c) “Are there any areas in your home where paint is chipping off?”
d) “Do you use ceramic containers made outside the United States for cooking?”
b) “Do you eat canned foods from the United States only?”
The nurse is teaching a class to students of pediatric nursing on comparing the concepts of growth and development. Which statement most accurately represents these concepts?
a) Growth patterns are qualitative changes.
b) Growth is from the head to toe or cephalocaudal.
c) Development reflects an increase in the number and size of cells.
d) Development is a gradual change that includes advances in skills.
d) Development is a gradual change that includes advances in skills.
The process of gaining specific knowledge or skills that result from exposure, experience, education, and evaluation is known as:
a) maturation.
b) growth.
c) development.
d) learning.
d) learning.
Piaget’s stage of cognitive development states that characteristics of the sensorimotor stage include:
a) development of egocentric animistic and magical thinking.
b) development of the concept of object permanence.
c) consideration of others’ points of view.
d) thought dominated by senses.
b) development of the concept of object
Which theory of development asserts that learning precedes development?
a) Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development
b) Piaget’s theory of cognitive development
c) Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development
d) Kohlberg’s theory of moral development
a) Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development
Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development identifies the toddler stage as:
a) trust vs mistrust.
b) initiative vs guilt.
c) industry vs inferiority.
d) autonomy vs shame and doubt.
d) autonomy vs shame and doubt.
Which of the following statements accurately describe biological growth?
Select all that apply.
a) Expected growth patterns exist in infants and children.
b) Growth is steady throughout life.
c) Extremely rapid growth occurs in the prenatal, infancy, and adolescent periods.
d) Slower rates of growth occur during the toddler, preschool, and school-age periods.
e) Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age.
c) Extremely rapid growth occurs in the prenatal, infancy, and adolescent periods.
d) Slower rates of growth occur during the toddler, preschool, and school-age periods.
e) Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age.
Which of the following are goals of Gilligan’s stages of moral development for women in the postconventional stage?
Select all that apply.
a) Agree upon rights
b) Principle of nonviolence
c) Justice
d) Personal moral standards
e) Do not hurt self or others
b) Principle of nonviolence
e) Do not hurt self or others
The nurse initiates teaching about breastfeeding for new mothers while they are in the hospital. Which of the following statements reflects correct teachings or nursing actions?
a) Supplemental water for the infant will prevent dehydration during hot weather.
b) Offer a pacifier after each feeding to satisfy infant’s sucking needs.
c) Scheduled feedings every 2 to 4 hours is preferable to feeding on demand to be certain of adequate caloric intake.
d) Help mother initiate breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth.
d) Help mother initiate breastfeeding within 30 minutes after birth.
A new mother asks the nurse when the baby’s anterior fontanel will close. The nurse explains that it will close at:
a) 2 months.
b) 6 months.
c) 12 months.
d) 18 months.
d) 18 months.
The nurse teaching a class to primiparas about risk factors associated with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following are risk factors associated with this disorder?
Select all that apply.
a) Prone sleeping position
b) Soft bedding
c) Large birth weight
d) Bottle feeding
e) More than 30 minutes per day of tummy time
a) Prone sleeping position
b) Soft bedding
d) Bottle feeding
During the 1-month well-baby visit, a pediatric nurse explains to the mother that she should expect to hear babbling in her infant by:
a) 2 months.
b) 4 months.
c) 6 months.
d) 9 months.
c) 6 months.
The nurse caring for the infant in the community setting observes for which of the following passive manifestations of abuse?
Select all that apply.
a) Poor nutrition
b) Neglected visits to primary care providers
c) Soft-tissue injuries
d) Fractures in varying stages of healing
e) Emotional neglect
a) Poor nutrition
b) Neglected visits to primary care providers
e) Emotional neglect
The nurse in the well-baby clinic informs the mother of a 6-month-old infant about introducing solid foods by instructing her to:
a) feed the baby solids before the milk.
b) make the baby’s solid foods smooth and runny.
c) introduce solid foods by adding it to the baby’s formula bottle.
d) mix a little honey in the fruit to stimulate the infant’s taste buds.
b) make the baby’s solid foods smooth and runny.
The nurse is teaching prenatal couples about the critical principles of attachment. Which of the following statements is correct about attachment?
a) Attachment is crucial for optimal emotional but not physical development.
b) Up to 10% of normal infants lack the ability to form attachment.
c) The infant’s behavior influences attachment.
d) Maternal attachment is also known as engrossment.
c) The infant’s behavior influences attachment.
The nurse suggests stimulating experiences for development of their infant to the parents of a 6-month-old infant. These experiences would include:
a) singing lullabies to the baby.
b) inviting another infant over to play.
c) keeping the top of the crib free of hanging mobiles.
d) providing a toy that emits animal sounds when the buttons are pushed.
a) singing lullabies to the baby
Which of the following techniques will help the infant succeed in the developmental task of trust vs mistrust?
Select all that apply.
a) Respond to the infant in a consistent manner.
b) Allow the infant to cry to avoid spoiling the child.
c) Respond to the infant in a prompt manner.
d) Short periods of hunger fosters self-reliance when the child grows older.
e) Provide the infant with predictable and organized routines.
a) Respond to the infant in a consistent manner.
c) Respond to the infant in a prompt manner.
e) Provide the infant with predictable and organized routines.
The time during which infants develop the coordination to master activities which allow them to interact with the environment is known as the:
a) reflexive period.
b) psychosocial period.
c) sensorimotor period.
d) immunological period.
c) sensorimotor period.
According to Erikson, what is the developmental task of toddlers?
a) Doubt
b) Shame
c) Autonomy
d) Preoperational
c) Autonomy
Nurses caring for the toddler population instruct parents that one of the leading causes of visits to health care providers is:
a) amblyopia.
b) otitis media.
c) burns.
d) neglect.
b) otitis media.
The nurse assessing a 24-month-old toddler expects expressive language to include:
a) repeats 2 digits from memory.
b) jargon and echolalia are predominately used.
c) talks in word phrases, and 2 to 3 word sentences.
d) average sentence length is approximately 2½ words.
c) talks in word phrases, and 2 to 3 word sentences.
The nurse offers interventions to parents to enhance toddlers’ nutritional pattern by telling the parents to:
Select all that apply.
a) avoid foods that may cause choking.
b) serve the toddlers’ favorite foods when he or she refuses to eat.
c) send the toddler to bed if he or she does not want to eat.
d) do not use food to bribe, reward, or punish the toddler.
e) serve small portions, and let the toddler ask for more.
f) serve single foods as mixtures of foods.
a) avoid foods that may cause choking.
d) do not use food to bribe, reward, or punish the toddler.
e) serve small portions, and let the toddler ask for more.
Which physical growth and development change in toddlers places them at risk for airway obstruction?
a) The diameter of the upper respiratory tract is small.
b) The respiratory rate decreases to 25 breaths per minute.
c) All 20 primary or deciduous teeth erupt be the end of toddlerhood.
d) The swallowing pattern using the tongue is fully developed.
a) The diameter of the upper respiratory tract is small.
When the nurse is assessing a toddler for signs of child abuse, observations of parental behavior may include:
a) difficulty leaving the child.
b) parental delays in seeking help.
c) spontaneous reporting of the details of the injury.
d) parental questions about progress and discharge.
b) parental delays in seeking help.
Which of the following physical changes are expected during the toddler years?
Select all that apply.
a) Growth in height of 4 to 6 inches per year
b) Weight gain of 4 to 6 pounds per year
c) Urine specific gravity lower than that of an adult
d) Bowel control generally occurs before urinary control
e) Increase in heart rate because of increase in size
b) Weight gain of 4 to 6 pounds per year
d) Bowel control generally occurs before urinary control
The nurse is teaching a group of mothers about toddlers and their play activities by explaining that toddlers:
a) participate in parallel play.
b) demonstrate skill in sharing and cooperative play.
c) enjoy playing together with a group of toddlers.
d) learn best with intensive drill during play.
a) participate in parallel play.
Which statement, if made by a parent after attending a teaching session on initiating a toilet training program for toddlers, indicates a need for further teaching?
a) “I take my child to the potty after a meal.”
b) “I offer praise when my child uses the potty.”
c) “I require my child to sit on the potty until she goes.”
d) “I have given my child underpants as a reward for using the potty.”
c) “I require my child to sit on the potty until she goes.”
The nurse, presenting a class on strategies to prevent drowning in toddlers, instructs parents to:
a) teach their toddler how to swim.
b) place the toddler in the tub with 1 or 2 inches of water.
c) make sure pails of water are less than ½ full.
d) use personal flotation devices on the toddler when boating.
d) use personal flotation devices on the toddler when boating.
The nurse is teaching parents about typical sleep disturbances of the preschooler. Which recommendation would the nurse make to the parents?
a) Bedtime rituals of 1 hour or more should decrease sleep disturbances.
b) Nighttime wakening, frequently seen in toddlers, is uncommon in preschool years.
c) Parents should help the child differentiate between “pretend” and “real” occurrences.
d) When the child has night wakening events, reassurance occurs when the child is taken to the parent’s bed.
c) Parents should help the child differentiate between “pretend” and “real” occurrences.
The preoperative stage of thinking is displayed by the child as:
a) transductive reasoning.
b) the trait of irreversibility.
c) understanding the perspectives of others.
d) an ability to consider more than one factor when solving simple problems.
a) transductive reasoning.
The nurse is teaching parents about strategies concerning injury prevention for preschoolers. Instructions for parents would include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
a) Dress child only in flame-retardant clothing
b) Administer ipecac syrup immediately in event of any poison ingestion.
c) Use heat mist humidifier on sturdy tables.
d) Practice emergency escape plan from the home.
e) Obtain training in CPR and abdominal thrusts.
a) Dress child only in flame-retardant clothing
d) Practice emergency escape plan from the home.
e) Obtain training in CPR and abdominal thrusts.
The school nurse assesses preschoolers for genetic conditions such as:
a) Down syndrome.
b) congenital hypothyroidism.
c) sickle cell disease.
d) Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d) Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
The hallmark of the first substage of Piaget’s preoperational stage is the ability of the preschooler to function using:
a) abstract thinking.
b) concrete thinking.
c) auditory cues.
d) language.
d) language.
Which of the following physical activities are most appropriate for the preschool age group?
Select all that apply.
a) Ring around the Rosy
b) Watching television
c) Electronic video games
d) Tee ball (nonpitching vs of softball)
e) Paintball
a) Ring around the Rosy
d) Tee ball (nonpitching vs of softball)
When evaluating the health perception of a preschooler, the nurse understands that this age-group views pain or illness as:
a) punishment.
b) separation anxiety.
c) a result of their actions.
d) painful regardless of the intervention.
a) punishment.
The nurse assesses the preschooler’s coping mechanisms as being developmentally appropriate through observation of:
a) temper tantrums.
b) fantasy play.
c) separation anxiety.
d) flexible bedtime rituals.
b) fantasy play.
Which play activity would the nurse plan for a 4-year-old girl 2 days after undergoing an appendectomy?
a) Playing a game of Monopoly
b) Dressing up in a Cinderella gown
c) Participating in a game of hopscotch
d) Drawing pictures of her mother and father
d) Drawing pictures of her mother and father
The nurse working with the preschool age group educates parents about which of the following nutritional guidelines?
Select all that apply.
a) Preschool children should eat at least five servings of fruits and vegetables per day.
b) Children aged 3 to 5 should receive 1000 to 1200 calories per day.
c) Preschool children should consume approximately half of their diet in carbohydrates.
d) Fat requirements in preschool children are higher than those for older children.
e) Cholesterol is not an issue at for this age group.
a) Preschool children should eat at least five servings of fruits and vegetables per day.
c) Preschool children should consume approximately half of their diet in carbohydrates.
d) Fat requirements in preschool children are higher than those for older children.
Parents of a 7-year-old boy request a discussion with the school nurse on how they can resolve the child’s nighttime enuresis. The nurse advises that nighttime enuresis:
a) is an intentional act with a psychological basis.
b) should have consequences to eliminate the behavior.
c) is often treated with fluid restriction.
d) treatment might include an alarm and waking schedules.
d) treatment might include an alarm and waking schedules.
The most common childhood school-age cancer is:
a) retinoblastoma.
b) neuroblastoma.
c) Wilms’ tumor.
d) leukemia.
d) leukemia.
The school nurse teaches which of the following dietary guidelines to the parents of children and adolescents?
Select all that apply.
a) Children should consume at least 3 cups of fruits and vegetables per day.
b) Children require 4 cups of whole milk products per day.
c) Children should consume 5 ounces of steak daily.
d) Children should consume 5 ounces of lean meat or beans each day.
e) Children and adolescents should consume 4 to 6 ounces of grains each day.
a) Children should consume at least 3 cups of fruits and vegetables per day.
d) Children should consume 5 ounces of lean meat or beans each day.
e) Children and adolescents should consume 4 to 6 ounces of grains each day.
The nurse is teaching the parents of 8- and 9 year-old children about safe bicycling. The nurse emphasizes the principles of transportation safety, to include which of the following?
a) Riding on the side of the road traveling opposite to the traffic
b) Observing rules for pedestrians vs vehicular traffic
c) Wearing an approved helmet when bicycling
d) Encouraging a backpack for carrying objects to promote back and shoulder strength.
c) Wearing an approved helmet when bicycling
The nurse assessing conventional level moral development in 12-year-old children would expect to see which behaviors?
a) The child looks to others for approval.
b) The child views behavior as completely right or wrong.
c) The child behaves because there is a fear of punishment.
d) The child’s moral development is characterized by self-interest.
a) The child looks to others for approval.
Parents and caregivers who teach and model health-promotion concepts to school-age children can expect which of the following behaviors?
Select all that apply.
a) Children who develop good personal hygiene and dental care
b) Children who become passive health care consumers
c) Children who obey authority figures and do as they are told
d) Children who make a link between behavior and improved health
e) Children who develop health values as part of education
a) Children who develop good personal hygiene and dental care
d) Children who make a link between behavior and improved health
e) Children who develop health values as part of education
The nurse discusses discipline for school-age children with a group of parents at a parent-teacher association meeting. Principles include:
Select all that apply.
a) focusing on the misbehavior in an attempt to eliminate it.
b) using distraction or substitution to avoid a problem situation.
c) ignoring the child’s whining after a decision has been made.
d) using humor to decreases the intensity of the situation.
e) modeling appropriate behavior.
f) setting age-relevant limits.
b) using distraction or substitution to avoid a problem situation.
d) using humor to decreases the intensity of the situation.
e) modeling appropriate behavior.
f) setting age-relevant limits.
According to Piaget, which of the following operations are displayed as the child begins to add flexibility and control to their thinking?
a) Formal
b) Concrete
c) Abstract
d) Egocentric
b) Concrete
The school nurse is developing an information pamphlet on prevention of obesity in school-age children. Interventions stated on the pamphlet would include which of the following?
a) Encourage child to participate in food preparation.
b) Eating permitted in front of television but only for educational programs.
c) Serve healthy food at breakfast and dinner; child is unrestricted for lunch.
d) Reward the child with fast food but only for school achievement.
e) All of the above.
a) Encourage child to participate in food preparation.
The parents of a school-age child report that their 9-year-old son walks in his sleep almost every night. The school nurse includes which of the following elements of education?
Select all that apply.
a) Sleep disturbances are more common in the preschool and school-age years.
b) Sleep disturbances occur most often in the first 1 to 2 hours after going to sleep.
c) Girls are more prone to sleep disturbances than boys.
d) Problems may be influenced by fatigue and stress within the child.
e) Sleep disturbances are usually related to respiratory problems.
a) Sleep disturbances are more common in the preschool and school-age years.
b) Sleep disturbances occur most often in the first 1 to 2 hours after going to sleep.
d) Problems may be influenced by fatigue and stress within the child.
The nurse assesses the cognitive abilities of the adolescent according to Piaget’s stage of formal operations as:
a) accepting family beliefs and values.
b) developing extrovert behaviors.
c) having an intolerance of things as they are.
d) recognizing the importance of putting others’ needs ahead of one’s own.
c) having an intolerance of things as they are.
The nurse is assessing a 12-year-old female with an admission diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. The data collected that support this diagnosis should include:
Select all that apply.
a) binge eating followed by purging.
b) compulsive physical activity.
c) eating an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat.
d) preoccupation with food.
e) self-starvation with significant weight loss.
a) binge eating followed by purging.
d) preoccupation with food.
e) self-starvation with significant weight loss.
Research has documented what symptom one of the strongest predictors of adolescent obesity?
a) Depression
b) Excessive TV watching
c) Lack of physical activity
d) Meal skipping
a) Depression
The nurse provides educational information to a group of adolescents on decreasing the incidence of acne. Information presented includes which of the following?
a) “Decrease chocolate intake in your diet.”
b) “Expose your face to sunlight at least 2 hours per day.”
c) “Remove all pustules and papules with special instruments.”
d) “Wash your face with soap and water 2 times per day.”
d) “Wash your face with soap and water 2 times per day.”
To facilitate the adolescent’s need for controlling behaviors, the nurse implements an intervention that:
a) asks the adolescent how he or she would like to handle the situation.
b) consults with the parents regarding the adolescent’s health care needs.
c) gives specific, detailed instructions in writing.
d) partners with the adolescent to develop a plan.
d) partners with the adolescent to develop a plan.
The nurse emphasizes warning signs of suicidal risks in adolescents during a health-education class. These signs include:
Select all that apply.
a) difficulty concentrating.
b) increased accidents.
c) hyperactivity.
d) lethargy.
e) sleep disorders.
a) difficulty concentrating.
b) increased accidents.
e) sleep disorders.
The nurse facilitates the adolescent’s self-perception-self-concept development by:
a) complementing the adolescent for what is accomplished.
b) developing a plan for the adolescent’s future growth.
c) encouraging the adolescent to join in group activities.
d) praising the adolescent for who he or she is.
d) praising the adolescent for who he or she is.
Which of the following diseases has recently increased among adolescents and subsequently resulted in a recommendation for routine administration of a preventive vaccine to adolescents?
a) Hepatitis B
b) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Meningococcal disease
d) Measles
c) Meningococcal disease
Which of the following statements is correct concerning scoliosis?
a) It is more common in adolescent boys than girls.
b) It involves excessive lordotic curvature to the spine.
c) There are conflicting recommendations for screening.
d) Curves greater than 12 degrees are abnormal and can progress during growth spurt.
c) There are conflicting recommendations for screening.
The nurse is preparing an educational activity for adolescents. The primary reason that emphasis is placed on teaching testicular self-examination is because:
a) adolescents are naturally interested in their developing bodies.
b) baseline assessment data is necessary for comparison in the future.
c) rapid anatomical changes are occurring in the testes.
d) testicular cancer is the number one cancer in the adolescent male.
d) testicular cancer is the number one cancer in the adolescent male.
According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the young adult is in the stage of formal operational thought and demonstrates abilities to:
a) analyze concepts.
b) manipulate concrete objects.
c) participate in cooperative interactions.
d) perceive specific examples.
a) analyze concepts.
Emphasis on disease prevention for the young adult, after age 25, is on modifying risk factors related to:
a) coronary artery disease.
b) cirrhosis of the liver.
c) cervical cancer.
d) colon cancer.
a) coronary artery disease.
What are the current recommendations of the US Preventive Services Task Force concerning breast cancer?
a) Screening mammograms beginning at age 30
b) Recommends against teaching breast self-examination
c) Breast ultrasound screening beginning at age 35
d) Mammogram every 2 years if on birth control pills from age 35
b) Recommends against teaching breast self-examination
Nurses caring for the young adult population maintain awareness about screening for hypertension. Which of the following statements are true about hypertension in young adults?
Select all that apply.
a) The Mexican American population has the lowest percentage of individuals with high blood pressure.
b) African Americans have the highest rates of high blood pressure.
c) Health insurance has a direct correlation with hypertension control.
d) Adopting healthy behaviors after being diagnosed with hypertension will not reduce the incidence.
e) The prevalence of treatment and control of hypertension is lowest in young adults.
c
a) The Mexican American population has the lowest percentage of individuals with high blood pressure.
b) African Americans have the highest rates of high blood pressure.
e) The prevalence of treatment and control of hypertension is lowest in young adults.
A target goal of Healthy People 2020 is to reduce the incidence of hepatitis C. The nurse focuses on individuals most at risk, which includes persons with:
a) hepatitis A.
b) Epstein-Barr virus.
c) human papilloma virus.
d) chronic renal disease on hemodialysis.
d) chronic renal disease on hemodialysis.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning intimate partner violence?
a) It occurs primarily in lower socioeconomic settings.
b) Physical assaults by intimate partners has increased in last decade.
c) The risk increases as age of first marriage increases.
d) It is the most underreported form of abuse.
d) It is the most underreported form of abuse.
Which of the following concepts are accurate regarding the biological changes in the young adult period?
Select all that apply.
a) Young adulthood sees the highest illness rate of any other age group.
b) Physical growth continues into the 30s.
c) Most concerns are related to ensuring optimal body functioning.
d) Physical abilities of the young adult are at their peak.
e) Illness compensatory mechanisms generally operate optimally.
c) Most concerns are related to ensuring optimal body functioning.
d) Physical abilities of the young adult are at their peak.
e) Illness compensatory mechanisms generally operate optimally.
The nurse is preparing a class on young adult risk factors for violence. The nurse includes content on which of the following?
Select all that apply.
a) Homicide is the second leading cause of death in young adults.
b) Alcohol but not drug abuse is frequently related to violence.
c) Homicide is the leading cause of death for black young men.
d) Firearms are involved in less than half of homicides.
e) The presence of firearms in the home is associated with the increased risk of firearm injury to children.
a) Homicide is the second leading cause of death in young adults.
c) Homicide is the leading cause of death for black young men.
e) The presence of firearms in the home is associated with the increased risk of firearm injury to children.
According to Healthy People 2020, the leading causes of death among children and young adults are due to injuries from which of the following?
a) Homicide
b) Suicide
c) Burns
d) Motor vehicle crashes
d) Motor vehicle crashes
Nutrition during pregnancy is important as it significantly impacts fetal health. With of the following nutrients should include supplementation in addition to dietary intake?
a) Vitamin C
b) Niacin
c) Folic acid
d) Magnesium
c) Folic acid
A condition of the bone that is the result of bone lysis exceeding the rate of bone matrix synthesis is called:
a) osteoarthritis.
b) kyphosis.
c) osteopenia.
d) osteoporosis.
c) osteopenia.
The nurse initiates an exercise program with middle-aged adults by:
a) planning physical activity for a minimum of 45 minutes.
b) considering activities that have the least potential for injury.
c) counseling the adult that exercise should be rigorous to produce results.
d) advising that the heart rate should double during exercise for cardiovascular benefits to be achieved.
b) considering activities that have the least potential for injury.
A 50-year-old man is initiating an exercise program to help improve his cardiovascular health. What are some of the recommended guidelines that the nurse should instruct him on?
Select all that apply.
a) Every adult over the age of 50 should start with a daily running program.
b) Overexertion should be avoided.
c) Increase fluid intake during periods of strenuous exercise in hot weather.
d) Adults over the age of 50 benefit from intense strength training.
e) Suggested activities include walking, jogging, swimming, and bicycling.
b) Overexertion should be avoided.
c) Increase fluid intake during periods of strenuous exercise in hot weather.
e) Suggested activities include walking, jogging, swimming, and bicycling.
The nurse provides anticipatory guidance to people during middle age to meet developmental tasks of:
Select all that apply.
a) helping children become responsible, happy adults.
b) rediscovering new satisfaction in the relationship with one’s spouse.
c) disassociating from one’s parents.
d) reaching the peak in one’s career.
e) passing on traditions and skills to grandchildren.
a) helping children become responsible, happy adults.
b) rediscovering new satisfaction in the relationship with one’s spouse.
d) reaching the peak in one’s career.
The leading causes of death in middle adulthood include:
a) heart disease.
b) kidney disease.
c) respiratory disease.
d) gastrointestinal disease.
a) heart disease.
The nurse, teaching a class on smoking cessation to a group of middle-age adults, presents the adverse effects of smoking, which include that nicotine:
a) acts to stimulate the heart.
b) calms the central nervous system.
c) assists in decreasing blood pressure.
d) causes a decrease in carbon monoxide.
a) acts to stimulate the heart.
During middle adulthood, physiological changes affect most bodily systems. These changes include:
a) increased cardiac output.
b) increased glomerular filtration rates.
c) thinning of the intervertebral disks.
d) stable bone density and mass until the mid-60s.
c) thinning of the intervertebral disks.
Common visual conditions which may occur in middle-aged adults include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
a) Presbyopia
b) Glaucoma
c) Cataracts
d) Macular degeneration
e) Presbycusis
a) Presbyopia
b) Glaucoma
c) Cataracts
d) Macular degeneration
Bloom (1984) has developed a hierarchy of cognitive levels in the adult learner. The analysis cognitive level for the adult learner would be:
a) recalling specific facts.
b) grasping the meaning of the communicated message.
c) becoming aware of the relationship and interaction of all the parts.
d) applying knowledge in the form of abstractions and ideas to concrete situations.
c) becoming aware of the relationship and interaction of all the parts
A 48-year-old woman complains to her nurse that she is experiencing frequent episodes of insomnia. What are some measures the nurse should educate her about?
Select all that apply.
a) Insomnia is common for this age group.
b) Engage in activity 1 to 2 hours before bed to encourage sleep.
c) Avoid or reduce the amount of caffeinated beverages that are consumed.
d) Napping should be encouraged.
e) Have a regular schedule for waking and sleep.
a) Insomnia is common for this age group.
c) Avoid or reduce the amount of caffeinated beverages that are consumed.
e) Have a regular schedule for waking and sleep.
Which of the following statements are correct concerning Alzheimer’s dementia?
Select all that apply.
a) It includes disturbances of the sleep-wake cycle.
b) It is the second most common form of dementia in the elderly.
c) The Mini-Mental Status Examination can be used as a screening tool.
d) The majority of patients are age 75 or older.
e) Currently, there are no medications to treat this disease.
a) It includes disturbances of the sleep-wake cycle.
c) The Mini-Mental Status Examination can be used as a screening tool.
d) The majority of patients are age 75 or older.
Characteristic behaviors of older adults who have successfully met Erikson’s ego integrity vs despair developmental task include:
a) fear of death.
b) feelings that life has been lived in vain.
c) identity is related to career and work only.
d) honest acceptance of the life that has passed.
d) honest acceptance of the life that has passed.
Independent seniors may experience which of the following barriers to obtaining adequate nutritional intake?
Select all that apply.
a) Transportation issues
b) Income
c) Socialization
d) Social support resources
e) Cultural food preferences
a) Transportation issues
b) Income
d) Social support resources
e) Cultural food preferences
Which of the following statements is correct concerning exercise and the older adult?
a) As people age, weight-bearing exercises can be hazardous.
b) Swimming should be avoided running for persons with arthritis.
c) After age 65, exercise should be limited to 3 times per week.
d) Walking is a popular and beneficial activity.
d) Walking is a popular and beneficial activity.
According to the National Resource Center on Nutrition, Physical Activity and Aging, it is estimated that between __ of older residents living in long-term care facilities are malnourished.
a) 10% and 15%
b) 20% and 25%
c) 35% and 50%
d) 55% and 70%
c) 35% and 50%
Which of the following disorders, affecting older adults, is characterized by loss of visual accommodation causing the inability to maintain focus on objects close to the eye?
a) Glaucoma
b) Sclerosis
c) Cataracts
d) Presbyopia
d) Presbyopia
The nurse is explaining services provided in assisted living to a couple considering a move to long-term housing for older adults. The nurse explains that assisted living includes:
a) 24-hour protective oversight.
b) medications administered by staff personnel.
c) client responsibility for preparation of own medications.
d) expectation that clients are independent in all care areas.
a) 24-hour protective oversight.
Which of the following statements are correct concerning biological agents and cancer in the context of the older adult?
Select all that apply.
a) The immune system becomes more efficient with aging.
b) Many older adults have not received primary tetanus and diphtheria immunizations.
c) Influenza has high mortality and morbidity in older adults.
d) Cancer disproportionately affects older adults.
e) Twenty-five (25) percent of all diagnosed cancers are found in older adults.
b) Many older adults have not received primary tetanus and diphtheria immunizations.
c) Influenza has high mortality and morbidity in older adults.
d) Cancer disproportionately affects older adults.
According to the US Census Bureau, the fastest-growing group within the older population is:
a) 65 to 70.
b) 70 to 75.
c) 75 to 80.
d) 85 and older.
d) 85 and older.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning sleep in the older adult?
a) 10% report difficulty sleeping.
b) Older adults are more likely to report daytime sleepiness.
c) Both alcohol and milk should be avoided before bedtime.
d) Meditation after 6 PM increases bedtime alertness.
b) Older adults are more likely to report daytime sleepiness.