CCS Exam prep Questions and Answers Latest Update 2023 (Verified Answers) (95 Questions)

Carcinoma in situ

Tumor cells that are undergoing malignant changes but are still confined to the point of origin without invasion of the surrounding normal tissue

Examples of carcinoma in situ

Intraepithelial infiltrating

The patient was admitted from the emergency department because of chest pain. Following blood work, it was determined that the patient had elevated CPKs and MB enzymes. The EKG shows nonspecific ST changes.

What type of diagnosis might this indicate?
a. Unstable angina
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Mitral valve stenosis

b
The CPK elevation with MB enzymes elevated and the EKG ST changes denote a possible Ml (Leon-Chisen 2013, 386-387).

A patient is admitted and diagnosed with fever and urinary burning. The discharge diagnosis· is Escherichia coli, urinary tract infection.

Which of the following represents the correct diagnoses and appropriate sequence of those conditions?
a. Fever, urinary burning, urosepsis
b. Fever, urinary burning, sepsis
c. Escherichia coli, urinary tract infection
d. Urinary tract infection, Escherichia coli

d
Symptoms are not coded when a definitive diagnosis is present on discharge. The patient discharge diagnosis of urinary tract infection. The organism (E. coli) is coded with a seco diagnosis code (B96.20) which is to be added as an additional code to identify the bacterial agent (HHS 2014, Section II.A., 98).

A patient was admitted with heart failure within one week of a heart transplant. Due to the timing, the coder thought that it may represent a postoperative transplant rejection following heart transplant.

What action(s) should the coding staff take?
a. Query the physician.
b. Assign the codes for the postoperative transplant rejection.
c. Assign only the code for the transplant rejection.
d. Assign only the code for heart failure.

a

When the documentation is not clear regarding a potential complication, it is appropriate query the physician (HHS 2014, Section I.B.16, 16; Leon-Chisen 2013, 43-44).

A patient is admitted to a psychiatric unit of an acute-care facility. The patient experienced the following symptoms almost every day for the last month: loss of interest or pleasure in most or all activities, which is a change from her prior level of functioning. She has also gained 15 lbs, has difficulty falling asleep, feels fatigued, and has difficulty making decisions.

What potential diagnosis most closely fits the patient’s overall symptoms?
a. Insomnia
b. Major depression
c. Reye’s syndrome
d. Bipolar disorder

b

The symptoms provided are indicative of a depressive disorder (Leon-Chisen 2013, 175).

Inpatient:
Admission for inguinal hernia repair. This 30-year-old patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) but is not symptomatic at this time due to medication regimen. The procedure performed was a right indirect inguinal herniorrhaphy via open approach.

ICD-10-CM: K40.90, B20,

ICD-10-PCS: OYQ50ZZ (Schraffenberger 2013, 82-84,252)

Inpatient:

A 75-year-old male patient was admitted from a nursing home with dehydration and dysphagia due to a previous stroke. During hospitalization the patient was rehydrated and transferred back to the nursing home.

ICD-10-CM: E86.0, I69.391

(Schraffenberger 2013, 131, 209-210).
Stroke= cerebral infarction

Inpatient:

A patient is admitted to an acute care facility for detoxification from alcohol and barbiturate intoxication with chronic alcoholism and barbiturate abuse. The patient also has cirrhosis of the liver due to alcoholism.

ICD-10-CM: F10.229, F13.129, K70.30,

(Schraffenberger 2013, 140-143.)

ICD-10-PCS HZ2ZZZZ

(Leon-Chisen 2014, 186).

Inpatient:

A 30-year-old patient was seen in the emergency department for recurrent epileptic seizures. The patient also had tic douloureux.

ICD-10-CM: G40.909, G50.0

(Schraffenberger 2013,158-159).

Inpatient:

A patient was admitted to an acute care facility with a temperature of 102 and atrial fibrillation. The chest x-ray reveals pneumonia with subsequent documentation by the physician of pneumonia in the progress notes and discharge summary. The patient was treated with oral antiarrhythmia medications and IV antibiotics.

ICD-10-CM: J18.9, 148.91-

In accordance with the UHDDS, both conditions are not equally treated. The pneumonia was treated with IV antibiotics. This diagnosis had greater utilization of resources of medications and staff time compared with the atrial fibrillation, which was treated with oral medication. Because of this, the pneumonia is sequenced first (HHS 2014, Section II, C).

Inpatient:

A patient with chronic cholecystitis and gallbladder stones underwent a laparoscopic cholecystectomy in an acute care facility. However, due to extensive gallbladder adhesions the procedure was converted to an open cholecystectomy.

ICD-10-CM: K80.10, K82.8 (Schraffenberger 2013, 249-250, 454); HHS 2011, Section I, 18. d, 14), ICD-10-PCS: OFT40ZZ, OFJ44ZZ (Leon-Chisen 2014, 250).

Inpatient:

A patient is admitted to the inpatient setting with hydronephrosis and a staghorn calculus of the right kidney. The patient underwent an uretetoscopy with placement of bilateral ureteral stents for dilation purposes and removal of calculus of right kidney.

ICD-10-CM: N13.2,
ICD-10-PCS: OT788DZ, OTC08ZZ

(Leon-Chisen 2013, 269).

Inpatient:

A 77-year-old nursing home patient was admitted to the acute care setting for excisional debridement of decubitus stage 3 ulcer of the right heel via surgical excision in the OR. The patient also has degenerative joint disease of both knees.

ICD-10-CM: L89.613, M17.0,
ICD-10-PCS: OJBQOZZ

(Schraffenberger 2013, 265-266, 278, 282-284).

Inpatient:

45-year-old woman was admitted to the inpatient setting for a displacement of a lumbar intervertebral disk. This was treated with a laminectomy and diskectomy.

ICD-10-CM: M51.26,
ICD-10-PCS: OSB20ZZ, OQBOOZZ

(Schraffenberger 2013,279, 282-284).

Inpatient:

A 34-year-old woman delivered a live born, term baby boy (39 weeks) with macrosomia. She had a hemorrhage following an episiotomy with a low forceps delivery but prior to expulsion of the placenta.

ICD-10-CM: 067.9, 033.7, Z37.0, Z3A.39, ICD-10-PCS: 10D07Z3, OW8NXZZ-

The patient had a hemorrhage that occurred after delivery but before the expulsion of the placenta. This hemorrhage, by definition, occurred in the third stage of labor (Schraffenberger 2013, 270, 278-283, 313).

Inpatient:

A single, newborn, term live-born baby boy, born in hospital via vaginal delivery.

ICD-10-CM: Z38.00

(Schraffenberger 2013, 340).

Inpatient:

Twin newborns, both born prematurely at 32 weeks via cesarean section, 1,002 g was the birth weight of the first twin, whose mate was stillborn. The baby was admitted to the nursery from the delivery room. The baby also was treated for jaundice due to ABO incompatibility.

ICD-10-CM: Z38.31, P07.14, P07.35, P55.1

(Schraffenberger 2013, 337).

Inpatient:

A patient is admitted to the acute care facility with chest pain. The patient was awakened from sleep; this was ;:he patient’s first experience with chest pain. The patient was given two nitroglycerin tablets in the emergency department. The chest pain was not relieved, resulting in the diagnosis of new onset unstable angina. Serial CPK was normal. Following a left cardiac catheterization with angiogram of multiple coronary arteries with low osmolar contrast, the patient is found to have arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease.

ICD-10-CM: 125.110,

ICD-10-PCS: 4A023N7, B2111ZZ

(Schraffenberger 2013, 202-204).

Inpatient:

This is the first admission for a patient with adenocarcinoma of the right lower lung who was also found with metastasis to the brain. The patient underwent a right lower lung lobectomy via laparotomy.

ICD-10-CM: C34.31, C79.31,

ICD-10-PCS: OBTFOZZ

(Schraffenberger 2013, Chapter 5, 99).

Inpatient:

A patient has metastatic adenocarcinoma of bone.

ICD-10-CM: C80.1, C79.51

(Schraffenberger 2013, 99).

Inpatient:

A patient is admitted with metastatic carcinoma from breast to liver with previous bilateral mastectomy and no reoccurrence at the primary site.

ICD-10-CM: C78.7, Z85.3, Z90.13

(Schraffenberger 2013, 478).

Inpatient:

A young woman was admitted after a car hit her from behind while she waited for a bus on the sidewalk. She sustained a fractured fibula shaft and patella on the left leg with a break in the skin at the midcalf. The patient
required an open reduction of the left fibula fracture.

ICD-10-CM: S82.402A, S82.002A, T14.8, Y92.480, V03.10XA,

ICD-10-PCS: OQSKOZZ

(Schraffenberger 2013, 380-381, 443, 428).

Inpatient:

Syncope; bradycardia ruled out; due to taking Valium as prescribed by a physician. Patient also took an antihistamine as directed on the package without consulting a healthcare provider.

ICD-10-CM: T42.4X1A, T45.0X1A, R55-The patient took over-the-counter medications with a prescription medication without consulting the prescribing physician. This is a poisoning.

Per the Official ICD-10-CM Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, I.C.19.e.5.b.: Nonprescribed drug taken with correctly prescribed and properly administered drug: If a nonprescribed drug or medicinal agent was taken in combination jVith a correctly prescribed and properly administered drug, any drug toxicity or other reaction resulting from the interaction of the two drugs would be classified as a poisoning (HHS 2014, Section I, 19, e, Sa; Schraffenberger 2013, 406-407).

Inpatient:

Sepsis due to the presence of an indwelling urinary catheter with a positive blood culture reflected in the progress notes of Staphylococcus aureus sepsis.

ICD-10-CM: T83.51XA, A41.01


(Leon-Chisen 2013, 150, 154, 535).

Inpatient:

Respiratory distress syndrome, 26-day-old baby, temporary tracheostomy completed.

ICD-10-CM: P22.0,

ICD-10-PCS: OB110F4

(Schraffenberger 2013, 339; Coding Clinic 1986 Nov.-Dec., 6; 1″ Quarter 1989, 10)

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Noncardiac chest pain, esophageal acid reflux test.

ICD-10-CM: R07.89; CPT: 91034

(Schraffenberger 2013, 362-363; CPT Assistant May 2005,3)

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Annual screening mammogram.

ICD-10-CM: Z12.31
CPT:77057

(Schraffenberger 2013, 462; CPT Assistant March 2007, 7)

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Excision of basal cell carcinoma, 1.9-cm lesion left upper eyelid.

ICD-10-CM: C44.119;
CPT: 11642

(Schraffenberger 2013, 99-100; CPT Assistant Fa11199-. _ May 1996, 11; Feb. 2008, 8; Feb. 2010, 3; CPT Changes: An Insider’s View 2003).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Hallux valgus repair with resection of the joint with implant in the first left toe proximal phalanx.

CD-10-CM: M20.12;
CPT: 28293-TA
(Schraffenberger 2013, 305; CPT Assistant Dec. 1996. 6; CPT Assistant Jan. 2007, 31).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Metastatic ovarian cancer to the pleura. Thoracoscopic pleurodesis.

ICD-10-CM: C78.2, C56.9;
CPT: 32650

(Schraffenberger 2013, 100-101; CPT Assistant F 1994, 1, 6; CPT Changes: An Insider’s View 2002).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Symptomatic bradycardia due to sick sinus syndrome with replacement of dual chamber pacemaker generator with removal of old generator.

ICD-10-CM: 149.5; CPT: 33228 (Schraffenberger 2013, 206, 362-363; CPT Changes: An In-sider’s View 2003; CPT Assistant Summer 1994, 10, 19; CPT Assistant Nov. 1999, 16; CPT CHANGES 200,2013

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with sclerotherapy of esophageal varices.

ICD-10-CM: 185.00;

CPT: 43243

Leon-Chisen 2013, 246; Smith 2015, 115; CPT assistant Spring 1994, 4).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hypertrophy with electrocautery.

ICD-10-CM: N40.0;
CPT: 52601 (

Schraffenberger 2013, 294-295; Smith 2015, 134; CPT Assistant Nov. 1997, 20; CPT Assistant April2001, 4; CPT Assistant June 2003, 6).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Cryosurgical destruction of simple papilloma of the penis.

ICD-10-CM: D29.0;
CPT: 54056

(Schraffenberger 2013, 103; Smith 2015, 134).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding for which hysteroscopy with endometrial ablation was undertaken.

CD-10-CM: N93.8;
CPT: 58563

(Schraffenberger 2013, 296; CPT Assistant Nov. 1999,2 : March 2000, 10; March 2002, 11; CPT Changes: An Insider’s View 2000, 2002).

Ambulatory/Outpatient

Incompetent cervix in second trimester with removal of cervical cerclage under spinal anesthesia in a pregnant woman.

ICD-10-CM: 034.32;
CPT: 59871

(Leon-Chisen 2013, 343; CPT Assistant Nov. 1997, 2 CPT Assistant Nov. 2006, 21; CPT Assistant Feb. 2007, 10)

A patient is admitted to the hospital complaining of abdominal pain. Following evaluation, it was determined that the patient had an intestinal obstruction of the left colon due to adhesions from a prior abdominal surgery. The patient underwent an exploratory laparotomy with lysis of adhesions.

What conditions should be coded?

a. Abdominal pain, abdominal adhesions, abdominal obstruction, laparotomy, lysis of adhesions

b. Abdominal adhesions, abdominal obstruction, postoperative complications of the digestive system, laparotomy, lysis of adhesions

c. Abdominal adhesions with obstruction, lysis of adhesions

d. Abdominal adhesions and abdominal obstruction, postoperative complications of the digestive system, lysis of adhesions

c

The patient has abdominal adhesions with obstruction, and lysis of adhesions was performed. The abdominal pain is not coded as it is a symptom (HHS 2014, Section I.B.4, 13; Leon-Chisen 2013,140)

A patient has a principal diagnosis of pneumonia (118.9) (MS-DRG 195).

Which of the following may legitimately change the coding of the pneumonia in accordance with the UHDDS and relevant clinical documentation?

a. Sputum culture reflects growth of normal flora.
b. Patient has a positive gram stain.
c. Patient is found to have dysphagia with aspiration.
d. Patient has nonproductive sputum.

c

Patient is found to have dysphagia with aspiration is the correct answer because it changes the coding to aspiration pneumonia and would result in MS-DRG 179 RESPIRATORY INFECTIONS & INFLAMMATIONS W/0 CC/MCC, which has a weight of 0.9718 (Medicare Grouper Version Used: 31). This is in comparison to MS-DRG 0195, SIMPLE PNEUMONIA & PLEURISY W/0 CC/MCC MDC: 04 which has a DRG weight of 0.6978 (Medicare Grouper Version Used: 31).

A patient is diagnosed with infertility due to endometriosis and undergoes an outpatient laparoscopic laser destruction of pelvic endometriosis.

In order to code this encounter accurately, what steps must the coder take?

a. Review the operative report to determine what procedure codes to use and also to determine the site or sites of endometriosis so codes with the highest specificity may be assigned, and use infertility as a principal diagnosis.

b. Review the operative report to determine where the laser was used in the pelvis so the site or sites of endometriosis can be specified, and assign a principal diagnosis of infertility.

c. Review the operative report to determine where the laser was used in the pelvis so the site or sites of endometriosis can be specified as principal, and assign a secondary diagnosis of infertility.

d. Review the operative report to determine what procedure codes to use and also to determine the site or sites of endometriosis so codes with the highest specificity may be assigned, and use the diagnosis of infertility as a secondary condition.

d


There may be endometrial implants throughout the pelvic cavity which may attach to various anatomic structures such as the fallopian tube, ovary, and omentum. These locations should be identified so that the appropriate diagnostic codes can be assigned and the appropriate procedure codes can be assigned based on the destruction of the endometrial implants. Therefore, the correct answer is to review the operative report to determine what procedure codes to use and determine the site or sites of endometriosis so that codes with the highest specificity may be assigned. Also, use the diagnosis of infertility as a secondary condition (Schraffenberger 2013, 296; Leon-Chisen 2013, 33, 271).

In order to establish the adequacy of documentation in the medical record the following must be reflected:

a. Decisions of patient’s caregivers

b. Quantitative analysis of the number of pages

c. Ancillary forms and consents

d. Care rendered to the patient and the patient’s response

d

The care rendered to the patient and the patient’s response must be documented in the medical record (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2013, 264; Sayles 2013, 70).

Authentication of health record entries means to:

a. Create facsimiles of documents

b. Prove authorship of documents

c. Develop documents

d. Use a rubber stamp on random sets of documents

b

Authentication is the act of verifying a claim of identity (Sayles 2013, 381). In order to prove authorship of documents they are required to be authenticated by a signature (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2013, 264).

The requirements for documentation and record completion (documents such as history and physicals, discharge summaries, and consultations) as well as penalties for non-adherence must be specified in:

a. Hospital rules and regulations

b. Conditions of nonparticipation

c. Medical staff bylaws

d. Nursing staff policies

c

The medical staff bylaws are required by accreditation and regulatory organizations to refer to the timeline required for completion (LaTour and Eichenwald Maki 2013, 240; Sayles 2014, 353).

A patient was admitted to the emergency department for abdominal pain with diarrhea and was diagnosed with infectious gastroenteritis. The patient also had angina and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

List the diagnoses that would be coded in the order of sequence.

a. Abdominal pain, infectious gastroenteritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, angina

b. Infectious gastroenteritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, angina

c. Gastroenteritis, abdominal pain, angina

d. Diarrhea, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, angina

b

The abdominal pain and diarrhea are not coded as they are symptoms integral to the diagnosis of infectious gastroenteritis. Review Coding Guideline II.A, 98 for additional information on coding of symptoms, signs, and ill-defined conditions.

A patient was admitted to the endoscopy unit for a screening colonoscopy. During the colonoscopy, polyps of the colon were found and a polypectomy was performed.

What diagnostic codes should be used and how should they be sequenced?

Z12.11 Encounter for screening for malignant neoplasm of colon

D12.6 Benign neoplasm of colon, unspecified

a. Z12.11

b. Dl2.6 Encounter for screening for malignant neoplasm of colon Benign neoplasm of colon, unspecified

c. Zl2.ll,Dl2.6

d. D12.6, Z12.11

c


The circumstances of the encounter are for a screening colonoscopy. Because of this the screening, colonoscopy is listed first, followed by a code for the polyps (HHS 2014, Section I.C.21.c.5, 88).

023-Other benign neoplasms of skin Includes: Benign neoplasm of hair follicles Benign neoplasm of sebaceous glands Benign neoplasm of sweat glands Excludes 1: benign lipomatous neoplasms of skin (017.0-017.3) melanocytic nevi (022.-)

When coding benign neoplasm of the skin, the section noted above directs the coder to:

a. Use category D23 for benign neoplasm of sweat glands

b. Use category D23 for melanocytic nevi

c. Use category D23 for benign lipomatous neoplasms of skin

d. Use category D23 for malignant neoplasm of the skin

a

Excludes note 1 is defined as never code here (HHS 2014, I.A.12.a, 10).

023-Other benign neoplasms of skin Includes: Benign neoplasm of hair follicles Benign neoplasm of sebaceous glands Benign neoplasm of sweat glands Excludes 1: benign lipomatous neoplasms of skin (017.0-017.3) melanocytic nevi (022.-)

When coding benign lipomatous neoplasms of skin, the section noted above directs the coder to:

a. Use category D23

b. Use a code from D17.0-D17.3

c. Use code E88.2

d. Use category D22

b

Excludes note 1 is defined as never code here (HHS 2014, I.A.12.a, 10).

A patient was discharged from the same-day-surgery unit with the following diagnoses: posterior subcapsular mature incipient senile cataract right eye, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and was treated for mild acute renal failure. Which codes are correct?

E11.9 -Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications
E11.29 -Type 2 diabetes mellitus with other diabetic kidney complication H25.9 -Unspecified age-related cataract
H25.21 -Age-related cataract, morgagnian type, right eye
H25.041 -Posterior subcapsular polar age-related cataract, right eye
I10-Essential hypertension
112.9 -Hypertensive chronic kidney disease with stage 1 through stage 4, or unspecified chronic kidney disease N17.9 -Acute kidney failure, unspecified

a. H25.21, E11.29, 112.9, N17.9

b. H25.041, E11.9, 110, N17.9

c. H25.9, E11.29, 112.9, N17.9

d. H25.041, E11.9, !12.9

b

The patient has posterior subcapsular mature incipient senile cataract right eye, diabetes mellitus (with no designated causal relationship to the cataracts), hypertension, acute renal failure. The hypertension is not related to the renal failure as it is acute and not chronic. Because of this, a combination code for hypertension and chronic renal failure is not coded (HHS 2014, Section I.B.9, 14).

d Acute exacerbation of COPD is coded as J44.1. The hypertension is present with the chronic renal disease. Because of this, a combination code for hypertension and chronic renal disease is coded. In addition, the stage of the kidney disease is also coded (HHS 2014, Section I.B.9, 14).

Image: d Acute exacerbation of COPD is coded as J44.1. The hypertension is present with the chronic renal disease. Because of this, a combination code for hypertension and chronic renal disease is coded. In addition, the stage of the kidney disease is also coded (HHS 2014, Section I.B.9, 14).

While in the hospital, an external, single read, EKG was performed on the patient. The root operation term used for this ICD-10-PCS code is:

Monitoring: determining the level of a physiological or physical function repetitively over a period of time

Performance: completely taking over a physiological function by extracorporeal means

Measurement: determining the level of a physiological or physical function at a point in time

Assistance: taking over a portion of a physiological function by extracorporeal means

Measurement: determining the level of a physiological or physical function at a point in time

Myringoplasty

69610

69420

69635

69620

69620-Myringoplasty (surgery confined to drumhead & donor area)

A patient is admitted with acute respiratory failure with hypercapnia due to chronic asthmatic bronchitis with acute exacerbation. Treatment consisted of IV steroids.

J96.02, J45.902

J45.901, J96.02

J44.1, J96.02

J44.9, J96.02

J44.1– Chronic asthmatic bronchitis with acute exacerbation

J96.02-Acute respiratory failure with hypercapnia

Randy has been home from Iraq for three months and comes in to see Dr. Jones for his weekly appointment. He has recurring flashbacks of his time in the war zone, and he is having difficulty sleeping. Dr. Jones is providing therapy for his on-going PTSD. The correct code is:

F43.10 Post-traumatic stress disorder, unspecified

F51.02 Adjustment insomnia

F43.11 Post-traumatic stress disorder acute

F43.12 Post-traumatic stress disorder chronic

A) F43.12

B) F43.10

C) F51.02

D) F43.11

F43.12 –Post-traumatic stress disorder chronic

Trauma patient is rushed to the operating room with multiple injuries. The patient had his spleen removed due to a massive rupture, with repair of the lacerated diaphragm.

38102, 39540

38115, 39501

38100, 39501

38120, 39599

38100-Splenectomy; total (separate procedure)

39501-Repair laceration of diaphragm any approach

A patient has malignant melanoma of the skin of the back, nose, and scalp. The patient will be scheduled to undergo a radical excision of the melanoma.

C44.300, C44.509

C4A.59, C4A.4

C43.59, C43.31, C43.4

C43.9

C43.59-Malignant melanoma of other part of trunk

C43.31-Malignant melanoma of nose

C43.4-Malignant melanoma of scalp & neck

Patient has been diagnosed with uterine fibroids and undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.

58200

58150

58262

58150, 58720

58150-Total abdominal hysterectomy (corpus & cervix) with or without removal of tubes, with or without removal of ovary(s).

In ICD-10-PCS, a PET imaging of the myocardium using Rubidium 82?

C23GQZZ

C25YYZZ

C22GYZZ

C03YYZZ

C23GQZZ

PET imaging, myocardium using Rubidium 82

1. Section = C (The Nuclear Medicine Section)

2. Body system = 2 (Heart)

3. Root operation = 3 (Positron Emission Tomographic —(PET) Imaging)

4. Body Part = G (Myocardium)

5. Radionuclide = Q (Rubidium 82)

6. Device = Z (None)

7. Qualifier = Z (None)

Injection of anesthesia for nerve block of the brachial plexus.

64530

64510

64413

64415

64415-Brachial plexus

A patient is admitted with a non-displaced fracture of the left medial malleolus, initial encounter. The fracture was treated with a cast.

S82.62xA

S82.63xA

S82.55xA

S82.52xB

S82.55XA-Non-displaced fracture of medial malleolus of left tibia, initial encounter

A preterm infant, 34 weeks gestation, is born via cesarean section and has severe birth asphyxia.

Z38.01, P84, R09.2, P07.37

Z38.01, P84, R09.01

Z38.01, P84, P07.37

Z38.01, P84, R09.02

Z38.01-Single live-born infant, delivered via cesarean 

P84-Severe birth asphyxia

P07.37-Preterm infant, 34 weeks

A woman has a vaginal delivery of a full-term live-born infant after 38 weeks gestation.

O80, Z37.0

O80, Z37.0, Z3A.38

Z3A.38, O80, Z37.0

Z37.0, Z3A.38, O80

O80-Vaginal, full-term live-born delivery

Z37.0-[Outcome of delivery] single live-born infant

Z3A.38-After 38-week gestation

A patient is admitted for control of exacerbation of chronic obstructive lung disease. The patient had stopped taking the prednisone as prescribed due to gaining weight, a known side effect for this drug.

T38.0x6A, J44.1, Z91.14

T38.0x6A, Z91.14, J44.0

J44.0, T38.0x6A, Z91.14

J44.1, T38.0x6A, Z91.128

J44.1-Chronic obstructive lung/pulmonary disease with exacerbation COPD

T38.0x6A-Under-dosing of prednisone (classified as glucocorticoid and synthetic analogue) initial encounter

Z91.128-Intentional under-dosing

A 32-year-old female patient presents with right arm (dominant) paralysis due to childhood poliomyelitis.

G83.21, B91

A80.39, G83.21

A80.39

A80.39

G83.21-Right arm [dominant] paralysis (monoplegia)

B91-Due to childhood [sequela] poliomyelitis Sequela=Poliomyelitis (acute)=B91

A patient is admitted with fever and severe headache. The physician’s diagnostic statement at discharge is: fever and severe headache possibly due to viral meningitis.

A87.9

A87.8

A87.8, R50.9, R51

A87.9, R50.9, R51

A87.9 – Viral meningitis, unspecified

Patient is admitted to the hospital with facial droop and left-sided paralysis. CT scan of the brain shows subdural hematoma. Burr holes were performed to evacuate the hematoma.

61314

61150

61156

61154

61154 -Burr holes with evacuation and/or drainage of hematoma extradural or subdural

Identify the correct root operation for the following:

Uterine dilation and curettage

dilation

destruction

extraction

excision

extraction

Patient comes in through the emergency room with a wound that was caused by an electric saw. Patient is taken to the operating room where two ulna nerves are sutured.

64836, 64837

64892, 69990

64837

64856, 64859

64836-Suture of distal nerve ulna motor

64837-Suture of each additional nerve hand or foot

Patient undergoes total thyroidectomy with parathyroid auto-transplantation.

60520, 60500

60260, 60512

60240, 60512

60650, 60500

60240-Thyroidectomy total or complete

60512-Parathyroid autotransplantation 

The baby was having trouble passing through the vaginal canal, so Dr. Jones use forceps to help him along. Baby Boy was born at 12:57 pm. The root operation term used for this ICD-10-PCS code is:

-Extraction: pulling or stripping out or off all or a portion of a body part by the use of force

-Delivery: assisting the passage of the products of conception from the genital canal

-Abortion: artificially terminating a pregnancy

-Drainage: taking or letting out fluids and/or gases from a body part

Extraction: pulling or stripping out or off all or a portion of a body part by the use of force

A patient is admitted for chemotherapy for treatment of liver metastasis from previous breast cancer. She had a mastectomy 4 months ago. Chemotherapy is given today.

Z51.11, C78.7, Z85.3

C78.7, C85.3, Z51.11

C85.3, C78.7, Z51.11

C78.7, Z85.3

Z51.11– Admitted for chemotherapy

C78.7– Metastasis [secondary] neoplasm of liver

Z85.3-[Personal history] breast cancer

Patient has a history of hiatal hernia for many years, which has progressively gotten worse. The decision to repair the hernia was made, and the patient was sent to the operating room where the repair took place via the thorax and abdomen.

43332

43336

39545

39503

43336-(repair, para esophageal hiatal hernia via thoracoabdominal incision)

Face-lift utilizing the superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) flap technique.

15829

15825

15788

15828

15829– Superficial musculoaponeurotic system (SMAS) flap

A patient is admitted with an exercise-induced bronchospasm.

J45.902

J45.901

J45.32

J45.990

J45.990-Exercised-induced bronchospasm

Patient with chronic otitis media requiring trans tympanic Eustachian tube catheterization.

69424

69420

69421

69799

69799-unlisted procedure, middle ear

A patient is admitted with anemia due to end-stage renal disease. The patient is treated for anemia.

N18.6, D63.8

D63.1

D63.1, N18.5

N18.6, D63.1

N18.6– End-stage renal disease

D63.1– Anemia

A patient admitted with gross hematuria and benign prostatic hypertrophy.

R31.0, N40.0

R31.0, N40.1

N40.1, R31.0

N40.0, R31.0

R31.0– Gross hematuria

N40.0-Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Patient has been on the bone marrow transplant recipient list for 3 months. A perfect match was made, and the patient came in and received a peripheral stem cell transplant.

38240

38230

38242

38241

38240-hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC) allogenic transplantation per donor

Patient presents to the hospital with ulcer of the right foot. Patient is taken to the operating room where a revision of the right metatarsal head is performed.

28111-RT

28104-RT

28288-RT

28899-RT

28899-RT-Unlisted procedure foot & toes (Right side)

Laparoscopic repair of umbilical hernia

49585

49580

49654

49652

49652-Laparoscopy surgical repair, ventral, umbilical, spigelian or epigastric hernia (includes mesh insertion when performed). reducible

Patient was admitted with hemoptysis and underwent a bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy. Following the bronchoscopy, the patient was taken to the operating room where a left lower lobe lobectomy was performed without complications. Pathology reported large cell carcinoma of the left lower lobe.

31628, 32480

32405, 32484

31625

32440

31628-Bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy single lobe. 

32480-Removal of lung, other than pneumonectomy, single lobe (lobectomy)

Patient comes into his physician’s office complaining of wrist pain. Physician gives the patient an injection and sends the patient to the hospital for an arthrography. Code the complete procedure.

73110

25246, 73115

73115

73100

25246-Injection procedure for wrist arthrography 

73115-Radiologic examination wrist arthrography radiological supervision & interpretation 

In ICD-10-PCS, after being in the Substance Abuse Rehabilitation Clinic for a week, the patient met with the physician to discuss the adjustment of the psychiatric medication being prescribed.

HZ86ZZZ

HZ99ZZZ

HZ88ZZZ

HZ98ZZZ

HZ88ZZZ-(Substance Abuse Treatment program, psychiatric medication evaluation)

1. Section = H (The Substance Abuse Treatment Section)

2. Body system = Z (None)

3. Root operation = 8 (Medication Management)

4. Qualifier = 8 (Psychiatric Medication)

5. Qualifier = Z (None)

6. Qualifier = Z (None)

7. Qualifier = Z (None)

Caloric vestibular test using air, monothermal

92537, 92700

92537

92537, 92537

92538

92538-caloric vestibular test with recording, bilateral; monothermal

Open I&D of a deep abscess of the cervical spine

22015

10140

22010

10060

22010-incision and drainage, open, of deep abscess, spine, cervical

Patient was admitted to the hospital for cosmetic surgery due to massive weight loss. Liposuction of the abdomen and bilateral thighs was performed.

15830

15839

15830, 15833, 15833

15877, 15879-50

15877-suction assisted lipectomy of trunk

15879-50-suction assisted lipectomy of lower extremity (thighs) Modifier 50 for bilateral procedure

Trauma patient was rushed to the operating room with multiple injuries. Open reduction with internal fixation of intertrochanteric femoral fracture and open reduction of the tibial and fibula shaft with internal fixation were performed.

27244, 27758

27245, 27759

27248, 27756

20690

27244-Treatment of intertrochanteric, peritrochanteric, or subtrochanteric femoral fracture with plate/screw type implant, with or without cerclage

27758- Open treatment of tibial shaft fracture with or without fibular fracture. With plate/screws with or without cerclage

A woman experienced third-degree burns to her left thigh and second-degree burns to her right and left foot, initial encounter. She stated that the burns were from an accidental spill of hot coffee at a nearby café.

T24.312A, T25.221A, T25.222A, X10.0xxA, Y92.511

T24.31xA, T24.331A, T24.332A

T24.719A, T25.222A, T25.221A

T24.319A, T25.229A, Y92.511

T24.312A– Third-degree burns, left thigh, initial encounter

T25.221A-Second-degree burns, right foot, initial encounter

T25.222A-Second-degree burns, left foot, initial encounter

X10.0XXA– Contact with hot liquid [hot coffee], initial encounter

Y92.511-Café [restaurant]

A 67-year-old man is admitted with acute dehydration secondary to lymphocytic colitis previously diagnosed as acute gastroenteritis. He is treated with IV fluids for the dehydration.

E86.0, E11.9, K52.832

E86.0, K52.832

E11.2, K52.9, E86.0

K52.9, E86.0

E86.0-Dehydration 

K52.832-Lymphocytic colitis

Dr. Smith replaced the patient’s L2 vertebra with a prosthetic vertebra during this open procedure. The ICD-10-PCS code to report is:(Check image at right)

0QR00JZ

0QR00KZ

0QR107Z

0QR03JZ

0QR00JZ-(Replacement of L2 vertebra, open)

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = Q (Lower bones)

3. Root operation = R (Replacement)

4. Body Part = 0 (Lumbar vertebra)

5. Approach = 0 (Open)

6. Device = J (Synthetic substitute)

7. Qualifier = Z (No qualifier)

Image: Dr. Smith replaced the patient's L2 vertebra with a prosthetic vertebra during this open procedure. The ICD-10-PCS code to report is:(Check image at right)
0QR00JZ
0QR00KZ
0QR107Z
0QR03JZ

Sophie came in to see her regular physician to ask him to complete the paperwork so Medicare will pay for her wheelchair. The code for this is:

Z00.00 Encounter for general adult medical examination without abnormal findings

Z02.79 Encounter for issue of other medical certificate

Z04.2 Encounter for examination and observation following work accident

Z07.1 Encounter for disability determination [Encounter for issue of medical certificate of incapacity]

A) Z04.2

B) Z07.1

C) Z00.00

D) Z02.79

Z07.1-Encounter for disability determination [Encounter for issue of medical certificate of incapacity]

A physician orders a lipid panel on a 54-year-old male with hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and a family history of heart disease. The lab employee in his office performs and reports the total cholesterol and HDL cholesterol only.

82465, 84478

82465, 83718

80061

80061-52

82465-Cholesterol, serum or whole blood total

83718-Lipoprotein direct measurement high density cholesterol, (HDL)

Patient undergoes enucleation of left eye, and muscles were reattached to an implant.

65730-LT

65103-LT

65105-LT

65135-LT

65105-LT enucleation of eye; with implant, muscles attached to implant.. A modifier of -LT should be added to this code to indicate it was the left eye.

In ICD-10-PCS, percutaneous radio frequency ablation of the left vocal cord

0C5V3ZZ

0CPS30Z

0CBV3ZZ

0CVC0ZZ

0C5V3ZZ– (Percutaneous radio-frequency ablation of the left vocal cord)

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = C (Mouth and Throat) (The vocal cords are in the throat .)

3. Root operation = 5 (Destruction) (Ablation = surgical destruction of a body part)

4. Body part = V (Vocal cord, left)

5. Approach = 3 (Percutaneous approach)

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

In ICD-10-PCS, percutaneous endoscopic clipping cerebral aneurysm

03VG4CZ

03LG0DZ

03CG0ZZ

03BG0ZZ

03VG4CZ-(Percutaneous endoscopic clipping cerebral aneurysm)

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = 3 (Upper arteries) Cerebral arteries are in the brain

3. Root operation = V (Restriction)

4. Body part = G (Intracranial artery)

5. Approach = 4 (Percutaneous endoscopic approach)

6. Device = C (Extraluminal device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

A patient is admitted with dermatitis due to prescription topical antibiotic cream used as directed by a physician, initial encounter.

T49.0x5, L25.1

L25.1, T49.0x5A

L08.89, T49.0x5

L02.91, T49.0x5

L25.1-Dermatitis due to drugs in contact with skin

T49.0x5A-Topical antibiotic cream causing an adverse effect, initial encounter

A patient is admitted with acute ST inferolateral wall myocardial infarction. Several days later during the same episode of care, the patient sustained a subsequent non-ST subendocardial myocardial infarction.

I21.19, I22.2

I21.09, I22.8

I22.2, I21.02

I21.02, I22.8

I21.19-ST elevation (STEMI) myocardial infarction involving other coronary artery of inferior wall

I22.2- Subsequent Non-ST elevation (NSTEMI) myocardial infarction

In ICD-10-PCS, EGD with removal FB from duodenum

0D898ZZ

0DC98ZZ

0DF98ZZ

0D798ZZ

0DC98ZZ-(EGD with removal FB from duodenum)

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = D (Gastrointestinal System) – An EGD (Esophogastroduodenoscopy)

3. Root operation = C (Extirpation) – Removal of the FB (foreign body)

4. Body part = 9 (Duodenum)

5. Approach = 8 (Via natural or artificial opening endoscopic approach)

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

In ICD-10-PCS, administration of a concentrated bone marrow aspirate, performed percutaneously in the muscle

XN54332

XK02303

XR2G021

XRGC092

XK02303- (Administration, concentrated bone marrow aspirate, percutaneously in muscle)

1. Section = X (The New Technology Section)

2. Body system = K (Muscles, Tendons, Bursae, and Ligaments)

3. Root operation = 0 (Introduction)

4. Body Part = 2 (Muscle)

5. Approach = 3 (Percutaneous)

6. Device/Substance/Technology = 0 (Concentrated bone marrow aspirate)

7. Qualifier = 3 (New Technology Group 3)

A D&C is performed for postpartum hemorrhage.

59160

58558

58578

58120

59160- Curettage, postpartum

Patient is admitted for a blepharoplasty of the left lower eyelid and a repair for a tarsal strip of the left upper lid.

67917-E1, 15822-E2

67917-E1, 15820-E2

67917-E1, 15823-E2

67917-E1

67917-E1-repair of the tarsal strip (ectropion). (E1 is a modifier meaning left upper eyelid).

15820-E2-Blepharoplasty, lower eyelid.(E2 is a modifier meaning lower left eyelid).

Creatinine clearance

82565

82575

82550

82585

82575 creatinine clearance.

Dr. Gastron fulgurated a rectal polyp of the patient. The root operation term used for this ICD-10-PCS code is:

A) Extraction: pulling or stripping out or off all or a portion of a body part by the use of force

B) Destruction: physical eradication of all or a portion of a body part by the direct use of energy, force, or a destructive agent

C) Extirpation: taking or cutting out solid matter from a body part

D) Removal: taking out or off a device from a body part

Destruction: physical eradication of all or a portion of a body part by the direct use of energy, force, or a destructive agent

The patient was brought into the ED with an embolism in her right pulmonary vein. Dr. Rogers brought her into the procedure room to fragment the clot. This is reported from the ______ Body System character of the ICD-10-PCS code.

Upper veins

Lower arteries

Upper arteries

Heart and great vessels

Heart and great vessels

A patient is admitted with withdrawal delirium tremens with alcohol dependence.

F10.229

F10.221

F10.121

F10.231

F10.231-Withdrawal delirium tremens with alcohol dependence

A male patient is admitted with gastrointestinal hemorrhage resulting in acute blood-loss anemia. A bleeding scan fails to reveal the source of the bleeding.

K92.2, D63.8

K92.0, D63.8

K92.2, D62

K92.1, D62

K92.2-Gastrointestinal hemorrhage

D62-Acute blood-loss anemia

In ICD-10-PCS, laparoscopic appendectomy

0DNJ4ZZ

0DTJ4ZZ

0DBJ4ZZ

0DTJ8ZZ

0DTJ4ZZ- (Laparoscopic appendectomy)

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = D (Gastrointestinal system) (The appendix is part of the lower gastrointestinal system.)

3. Root operation = T (Resection) (The entire appendix was removed, so it is resection

4. Body part = J (Appendix)

5. Approach = 4 (Percutaneous endoscopic approach)) Laparoscopy is a percutaneous endoscopic procedure

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

Patient presents to the operating room for excision of a 4.5 cm malignant melanoma of the left forearm. A 6 cm x 6 cm (36 sq cm) rotation flap was created for closure

14301

11606, 14020

14021

11606, 15100

14301- Adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement any area defect 30.1 sq cm to 60.0 sq cm

Patient has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. Patient arrived in the operating room where a therapeutic orchiectomy is performed.

54530

55899

54520

54560

54520 – orchiectomy, simple

Young child presents with cleft lip and cleft palate. This is the first attempt of repair, which includes major revision of the cleft palate and unilateral cleft lip repair.

42220, 40720

42225, 40700

42200, 40701

42215, 40700

42215 – Palatoplasty for cleft palate, major revision

40700- Plastic repair of cleft lip/nasal deformity, primary partial or complete unilateral

Chlamydia culture

87110

87109, 87168

87118

87106

87110 – culture, chlamydia

A 10 sq cm epidermal auto-graft to the face from the back

15110

15110, 15115

15115

15120

15115-Epidermal autograph, face, scalp, eyelids, mouth, neck, ears, orbits, genitalia, hands, feet, and/or multiple digits. First 100 sq cm or less, or 1% of body area of infants and children.

A woman has a Pap smear that detected cervical high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV). The DNA test was positive.

R87.811

R87.820

R87.810

R87.9

R87.810- Cervical Pap smear, DNA positive

A patient developed a malunion of the left medial condyle humeral fracture. The original injury occurred 4 months ago.

S42.462D

S42.462P

S42.462G

S42.462K

S42.462P- Fracture, medial condyle humeral fracture, malunion, (P)=subsequent encounter

In the Medical Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, the second character position represents which of the following?

body part

approach

body system

qualifier

body system

Identify the correct root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS for the following:

A transfusion of whole blood was administered to the patient.

administration

transfusion

irrigation

introduction

transfusion

An established patient returns to the physician’s office for follow-up on his hypertension and diabetes. The physician takes the blood pressure and references the patient’s last three glucose tests. The patient is still running above-normal glucose levels, so the physician decides to adjust the patient’s insulin. An expanded history was taken, and a physical examination was performed.

99213

99202

99232

99214

99213-office visit for an already-established patient being seen for a follow-up visit. An expanded problem-focused history and medical decision making of low complexity

In the Medical Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, the fourth character position represents which of the following?

body part

approach

section

body system

body part

Patient has been followed by his primary care physician for elevated PSA. Patient underwent prostate needle biopsy in the physician’s office 2 weeks ago, and the final pathology was positive for carcinoma. Patient is admitted for prostatectomy. The frozen section of the prostate and one lymph node is positive for prostate cancer with metastatic disease to the lymph node. Prostatectomy became a radical perineal with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy.

55815

55815, 38562

38770

55845

55815- Prostatectomy with a radical perineal and bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy (prostatectomy, perineal radical; with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy). This code includes everything that was performed. No additional codes are needed

Patient presents to the operating room where a CABG x 3 is performed using the mammary artery and two sections of the saphenous vein.

33535

33534, 33518, 33511

33534, 33511

33533, 33518

33533– Coronary artery bypass using arterial graft(s) single 

33518– 2 venous grafts (list separately in addition to code for primary procedure) 

Laparoscopic retroperitoneal lymph node biopsy

38589

49323

38780

38570

38570- Laparoscopy with retroperitoneal lymph node biopsy

Laser destruction of extensive herpetic lesions of the vulva

56501

56515

17106

17004

56515– Destruction of lesions, vulva; extensive

Identify the correct approach term used in ICD-10-PCS for the following:

Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

percutaneous

open

percutaneous endoscopic

external

percutaneous endoscopic

In ICD-10-PCS, identify the approach for a needle biopsy.

percutaneous endoscopic

percutaneous

external

opening

percutaneous

A patient is admitted for rectal bleeding. The laboratory results reveal chronic blood-loss anemia. The CT and the bleeding scan results of the abdomen revealed that the rectal bleeding is due to Crohn’s disease of the descending colon.

K50.011, D62

K50.911, D50.0

K50.111, D50.0

K50.118, D50.0

K50.111– Crohn’s disease of large intestine with rectal bleeding.

D50.0– Iron deficiency anemia, secondary to blood loss (Chronic)

A patient is admitted for observation for a head injury. The patient was struck while playing football. The patient also suffered a minor laceration to the forehead. Head injury was ruled out.

S01.81xA

Z71.4

S01.81xA, Z71.4

Z04.3, S01.81xA

Z04.3 – Observation, head injury, ruled out

S01.81xA- Minor laceration, forehead, (A)= initial encounter

Services were provided to a patient in the emergency room after the patient twisted her ankle stepping down from a curb. The emergency room physician ordered X-rays of the ankle, which came back negative for a fracture. A problem-focused history/physical examination with straight forward decision making were performed, and ankle strapping was applied. A prescription for pain was given to the patient. Code the emergency room visit only.

99281

99282

99211

99201

99281 – physician completed a problem-focused history, problem-focused examination, and straightforward medical decision-making for an emergency department visit.

(Code 99201 should not be used since it is for an office or other outpatient visit for a new patient. Code 99211 should not be used since it is for an office or other outpatient visit for an established patient. Although code 99282 is for an emergency room visit, it should not be used because it requires 3 components: expanded problem-focused history, expanded problem-focused examination, and medical decision-making of low complexity).

Patient was involved in an accident and has been sent to the hospital. During transport, the patient develops breathing problems and, upon arrival at the hospital, an emergency transtracheal tracheostomy was performed. Following various X-rays, the patient was diagnosed with traumatic pneumothorax. A thoracentesis with insertion of tube was performed.

31610, 32555

31610, 32554

31603, 32554

31603, 31612

31603, 32554 (A code of 31603 is needed for the transtracheal tracheostomy procedure (tracheostomy, emergency procedure; transtracheal). An additional code of 32554 is needed for the thoracentesis procedure that was performed (thoracentesis, needle or catheter). Code 31610 should not be used since it is for tracheostomy, fenestration procedure with skin flaps. Code 32555 should not be used since it is for needle or catheter thoracentesis with aspiration of the pleural space with imaging guidance. Code 31612 should not be used since it is for percutaneous tracheal puncture with transtracheal aspiration and/or injection).

A patient is admitted for gestational diabetes, insulin-controlled, 28 weeks gestation.

O24.414, Z3A.28

O24.414

E11.69, O09.892

O24.419, Z3A.28

O24.414 – Gestational diabetes, insulin-controlled

Z3A.28– 28-week gestation

In ICD-10-PCS, left knee arthroscopy with reposition of the anterior horn medial meniscus

0MQP4ZZ

0SSC4ZZ

0MQP3ZZ

0SSP0ZZ

0SSC4ZZ- Left knee arthroscopy with reposition of the anterior horn medial meniscus

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = S (Lower Joints)

3. Root operation = S (Reposition)

4. Body part = D (Knee Joint, Left)

5. Approach = 4 (Percutaneous endoscopic approach)

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

In ICD-10-PCS, removal FB left cornea

08D8XZZ

08B8XZZ

0858XZZ

08C9XZZ

08C9XZZ – Removal FB left cornea

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = 8 (Eye) The cornea is a part of the eye

3. Root operation = C (Extirpation) removing a FB (foreign body)

4. Body part = 9 (Cornea, left)

5. Approach = X (External approach)

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

Patient arrives in the emergency room via a medical helicopter. The patient has sustained multiple life-threatening injuries due to a multiple-car accident. The patient goes into cardiac arrest 10 minutes after arrival. An hour and 30 minutes of critical care time is spent trying to stabilize the patient. Code only critical care.

99291, 99292

99285, 99288, 99291

99291, 99292, 99285

99282

99291, 99292

Code 99291 should be used for the first 74 minutes of critical care in the emergency department. An additional code 99292 should also be reported for the remaining 16 minutes of critical care given to the patient in the emergency department.Code 99282 and code 99285 should not be used since these are codes for emergency department visits, not specifically critical care.

Identify the correct root operation term, used in ICD-10-PCS, for the following:

Removal deep left vein thrombosis

excision

resection

removal

extirpation

Extirpation

(Excision: Cutting out or off, without replacement, a portion of a body part

Extirpation: Taking or cutting out solid matter from a body part

Removal: Taking out or off a device from a body part

Resection: Cutting out or off, without replacement, all of a body part)

Ureterolithotomy completed laparoscopically

50600

50945

52325

52352

50945 

(Since a ureterolithotomy was performed laparoscopically, it is important to capture CPT code 50945, which is ureterolithotomy that was completed by laparoscopy. Code 50600 should not be used since it is for ureterotomy with exploration or drainage. Code 52325 should not be used since it is for cystourethroscopy with fragmentation of ureteral calculus. Code 52352 should not be used since it is for cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy with removal or manipulation of calculus).

Patient presents to the hospital with right ureteral calculus. Patient is taken to the operating room where a cystoscopy with ureteroscopy is performed to remove the calculus.

52310-RT

52353-RT

52352-RT

51065-RT

52352-RT

A code of 52352 should be used for the cystoscopy with ureteroscopy in order to remove the patient’s calculus (cystourethroscopy, with ureteroscopy; with removal or manipulation of calculus). This code includes all three procedures, so no additional codes are needed.

After being brought back to his hospital room following chemotherapy, the patient developed epistaxis. Packing material was placed. The ICD-10-PCS code reported is _____.

2W41X5Z

2W11X6Z

2Y41X5Z

2Y01X5Z

2Y41X5Z

Packing for epistaxis

1. Section = 2 (The Placement Section)

2. Body system = Y (Anatomical Orifices)

3. Root operation = 4 (Packing)

4. Body Region = 1 (Nasal)

5. Approach = X (External)

6. Device = 5 (Packing material)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

Patient undergoes X-ray of the foot with three views.

73620

73630

27648, 73615

3610

73630 Radiologic examination; complete, minimum of 3 views. No additional codes are needed as this code is good for up to three views.

Radial keratotomy

65855

65771

65767

92071

65771 Radial keratotomy procedure.

(Code 65767 should not be used since it is for epikeratoplasty. Code 65855 should not be used since it is for trabeculoplasty by laser surgery. Code 92071 should not be used since it is for fitting of contact lenses for treatment of ocular surface disease).

In ICD-10-PCS, patient admitted after experiencing seizure. CT of brain, high osmolar contrast taken with and without contrast

BN070ZZ

B02000Z

B030Y0Z

B532Y0Z

B02000Z – CT scan of brain, high osmolar contrast taken with and without contrast

1. Section = B (The Imaging Section)

2. Body system = 0 (Central Nervous System) (Brain is part of the CNS.)

3. Root operation = 2 (Computerized Tomography, CT Scan)

4. Body Part = 0 (Brain)

5. Contrast = 0 (High Osmolar)

6. Qualifier = 0 (Unenhanced and Enhanced)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

A patient is admitted with a fracture to the L1 vertebrae secondary to postmenopausal senile osteoporosis, initial encounter.

M80.08xA

M80.88

M80.08

M80.88xA

M80.08xA

(Fracture, L1 [lumbar] vertebrae secondary to [caused by] postmenopausal senile osteoporosis = pathological fracture, initial encounter = M80.08xA)

Identify the correct root operation, used in ICD-10-PCS, for the following:

Excision gallbladder

removal

excision

incision

resection

Resection: Cutting out or off, without replacement, all of a body part

Patient underwent anoscopy followed by colonoscopy. The physician examined the colon to 60 cm.

45378

46600, 45378-59

45999

46600, 45378

45378 – colonoscopy, flexible; diagnostic, including collection of specimens. (A separate code is not needed for the anoscopy as the code for the colonoscopy includes an anoscopy. Code 46600 should not be used since it is for a diagnostic anoscopy with collection of specimens. Code 45999 should not be used since it is for an unlisted procedure of the colon because a more specific code exists).

The patient is on vacation and presents to a physician’s office with a lacerated finger. The physician repairs the laceration and gives a prescription for pain control and has the patient follow up with his primary physician when he returns home. The physician completes problem-focused history and physical examination with straightforward medical decision making. Also checked is a laceration repair for a 1.5 cm finger wound.

99201, 12001

99212, 13131

12001

99201-51

99201, 12001 – Since a new patient had an office visit for the simple repair of a laceration, code 99201 for the new patient office visit and 12001 for the simple repair of the 1.5 cm laceration.

Code 99212 should not be used since it is for an established patient office visit with a problem-focused history and examination and straightforward medical decision-making—the scenario was for a new patient, not an established patient. Code 13131 should not be used since it is for complex repair of the hands 1.1 cm to 2.5 cm—the scenario identified a simple repair, not a complex repair.

Identify the correct root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS for the following:

Endometrial ablation of cervical polyps

extraction

removal

excision

destruction

Destruction – Physical eradication of all or a portion of a body part by the direct use of energy, force, or a destructive agent. Ablation is the surgical destruction of a body part.

Patient with a traumatic rupture of the eardrum. Repaired with tympanoplasty with incision of the mastoid. Repair of ossicular chain not required.

69642

69646

69641

69635

69635 – Tympanoplasty with incision of the mastoid (tympanoplasty with mastoidotomy). This code includes the tympanoplasty as well as the mastoid incision. No additional codes are needed.

Code 69646 should not be used since it is for radical or complete tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction—it does not cover mastoidotomy. Code 69642 should not be used since it is for tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction—it does not cover mastoidotomy. Code 69641 should not be used since it is for tympanolasty with mastoidectomy without ossicular chain reconstruction—it does not cover mastoidotomy.

The patient had a calcification in his common bile duct. The procedure would be reported from the ______ Body System character of the ICD-10-PCS code.

Hepatobiliary system and pancreas

Endocrine system

Lymphatic and hemic systems

Gastrointestinal system

Hepatobiliary system and pancreas The common bile duct is part of the Hepatobiliary System and Pancreas.

Gastrointestinal system: While the liver and pancreas are accessory organs to the gastrointestinal system, the duct is considered part of the hepatobiliary system because it connects the liver (hepato-) to the gallbladder to carry the bile (-biliary).

Endocrine system: This system of hormones has no connection to the bile duct.

Lymphatic and hemic systems: The lymph node system or the blood (hemic) are related.

A patient is admitted with acute gastric ulcer with hemorrhage and perforation.

K25.6

K25.4, K25.6

K25.0, K25.1

K25.2

K25.2 –Acute gastric ulcer with hemorrhage and perforation.

This one combination code includes all of the key details.

Identify the correct root operation term used in ICD-10-PCS for the following:

Removal of cardiac pacemaker

change

revision

excision

removal

Removal: Taking out or off a device from a body part

In ICD-10-PCS, thoracentesis right pleural effusion

0W9C30Z

0W993ZZ

0W9C3ZZ

0W930ZZ

0W993ZZ – Thoracentesis, right pleural effusion

1. Section = 0 (The Surgery Section)

2. Body system = W (Anatomical Regions, General) The pleural cavity is the space between the lung and the chest wall. Plural effusion is a condition when this space accumulates too much fluid, preventing the lungs from expanding completely.

3. Root operation = 9 (Drainage) (The suffix “-centesis” means puncture.)

4. Body part = 9 (Pleural cavity, right))

5. Approach = 3 (Percutaneous approach) (The suffix “-centesis” means puncture.)

6. Device = Z (No device)

7. Qualifier = Z (No Qualifier)

Joan’s mother had breast cancer, so she is getting a mammogram. The code to report the medical necessity for this encounter is:

C50.919 Malignant neoplasm of unspecified site of unspecified female breast. 

Z12.31 Encounter for screening mammogram for malignant neoplasm of breast

Z80.3 Family history of malignant neoplasm of breast

Z85.3 Personal history of malignant neoplasm of breast

A) C50.919

B) Z80.3

C) Z85.3

D) Z12.31

Z80.3 – Family history, malignant neoplasm, breast

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