NBSTSA CERTIFICATION EXAM/CERTIFICATION EXAM NBSTSA 1000 QUESTIONS 2022-2023 ORIGINAL VERSION WITH RATIONALES

What structure is located in the alveolar processes?
teeth

Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

A) clean
B) contaminated
C) dirty and infected
D) clean contaminated
Clean-contaminated procedures include those when the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes. The procedure is considered clean, not sterile.

The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is?
alpha-chymotrypsin
Alpha-chymotrypsin is a solution used to soften the zonules holding the lens before cataract surgery to ease extraction of the lens.

How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?
enter head first, exit feet first
The patient should be placed in the elevator entering head first and exit feet first when being transported to the OR on the stretcher.

What is the curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
Pfannenstiel
Pfannenstiel’s incision is a curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen and used frequently in gynecologic surgery.

When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned?
flat
Metal trays that are perforated or have a mesh bottom should be placed on the sterilizing cart flat.

Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of?
Potassium
Potassium plays four important roles: influences the electrical excitability of cells; the amount of potassium in cells affects cell volume; potassium balance is important in maintaining the acid-base balance; the amount of potassium in cells affects cell metabolism. Hyperkalemia, an abnormal level of potassium, can be life threatening, causing cardiac irregularities.

Which tissue is cut using curved Mayo scissors?
fascia
Curved Mayo scissors are large scissors, with thick blades used to cut tough tissue, such as fascia, tendons, and muscle.

What laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
Argon
The argon laser beam can travel through clear fluids and tissues.

Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an?
informed consent
Informed consent must be obtained from the patient before any invasive procedure can be performed. it protects the patient because it verifies that he/she understands the condition to be treated and the intervention to be performed.

Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
cardia
The cardia is the portion of the stomach that surrounds the superior opening of the stomach.

Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy what?
spores
Low level disinfectants kill most types of bacteria and some fungi and viruses, but do not kill spores and M.tuberculosis

Syndactyly refers to?
webbed fingers

The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the?
backtable

The islets of Langerhans secrete?
insulin
The islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide.

What type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth?
Extractions
The removal of a tooth or teeth is an extraction procedure. The resection of the soft tissue and excision of the bone surrounding the tooth prior to the removal is called odontectomy.

Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
Escherichia Coli
Escherichia coli is a gram negative rod that is part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract of humans and is also an opportunistic bacteria.

Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site?
same side as surgeon
When using four towels for squaring off the incision site, the first towel will be passed when standing on the same side as the surgeon.

A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin?
surgically clean

Where do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
Ampulla of Vater

What identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
Name, DOB, and physician

What are spiral shaped bacteria called?
spirilli

The primary function of the gallbladder is to?
store bile
The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed in the small intestine.

Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
A) surgeon
B) circulator
C) surgical assistant
D) surgical technologist
circulator

Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room?
A) uses less space for opening
B) aid in controlling temperature
C) eliminate air turbulence
D) provides for thorough cleaning
aid in controlling temperature
Sliding doors are usually used in the OR because they eliminate air currents caused by swinging doors, but a disadvantage is they do not aid in controlling OR temperature.

What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
time, shielding, distance

Which is the first part of the small intestine?
duodenum
The duodenum starts at the pyloric sphincter of the stomach.

What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?
lateral
The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is the lateral position with the operative site exposed.

How are rickettsiae transmitted?
arthropod bites
Most rickettsiae are obligated intracellular parasites. They are usually transmitted by arthropod vectors.

Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
A) Colposcopy
B) Laparoscopy
C) Urethroscopy
D)Hysteroscopy
colposcopy
A binocular microscope is used during an examination of the vagina called a colposcopy. Colpo is a word root that means vagina.

Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called?
tamponade
Tamponade is the compression of the heart due to a collection of blood or fluid within the pericardium.

Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?
anesthesia provider

Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?
-centesis

To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
cecum

Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
gram stain
A gram stain determines the shape and grouping characteristics of bacteria

Medication used to dilate the pupil is called?
Mydriatics
Mydriatics are used to dilate the pupil for examination of the retina, refraction testing, or easier removal of the lens.

Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?
A) laparotomy
B) u-drape
C) transverse
D) craniotomy
U-drape
A u-drape is a type of nonfenestrated split sheet. The tails are created by a U-shape in the center of the drape.

Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient’s identification bracelet?
never until patient is discharged from facility

What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
supine

Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
Argon
The argon laser is used because the beam travels through clear tissues without heating it, making it ideal for use on retinal disorders.

Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?
A) clerical
B) mechanical
C) biological
D) chemical
biological
The biological indicator (BI) contains Bacillus stearothermophilus which is killed when exposed to steam sterilization conditions. The BI is the only test that guarantees sterility.

The apron like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the?
omentum
The greater omentum is an apron like structure that lies over the intestines.

Which microbes live without oxygen?
anaerobes

Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium lined surfaces that is open at both ends?
fistula
A fistula is an abnormal tract that is open at both ends; it most often develops after bladder, bowel and pelvic procedures.

What is the action of antagonist drugs?
counteract the action of another drug
An antagonist drug neutralizes or impedes the action of another drug, that is, reverses its effects.

Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?
circumferential

What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
If a tumor of an ovary is found to be malignant, the surgeon will excise both ovaries, both fallopian tubes, and the uterus to ensure that all cancer cells have been removed.

Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as “hunchback?”
kyphosis

What is the medical term for a bunion?
hallux valgus
Hallux valgus is the medical term for a bunion, which is a bony exostosis located on the medial side of the first metatarsal head of the big toe.

What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
Inguinal

The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?
Mesentery
The mesentery binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall.

What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?
commensalism

A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is?
Depo-Medrol
Methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol) is a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after opthalmic surgery.

How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?
Patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies

What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
feet first, side rails up
The direction of the stretcher should be oriented feet first, side rails up when a patient is being transported to the OR on the stretcher.

Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
HCG
Blood or a urine sample should be given preoperatively by a premenopausal woman to check for human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which is an indicator for pregnancy.

Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?
A) outside closure ties
B) two inches below neckline to table level
C) upper arms, neckline and axillary region
D) sleeves; two inches above the elbows to the cuffs
upper arms, neckline and axillary region

What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?
coude

What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
reverse trendelenburg
The Reverse trendelenburg position provides good exposure of the operative site for a thyroidectomy and allows the viscera to fall away or toward the feet to provide better exposure of the gallbladder.

A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is?
patent ductus arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital defect when the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close.

Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?
formalin
Formalin is the most common preservative solution that tissue specimens are placed in.

What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
notify surgeon
The surgeon should be immediately notified and a recount completed.

The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
parotid
The parotid glands are located inferior and anterior to the ears between the skin and masseter muscle. The parotid glands are attacked by the mumps virus.

What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
incident report
An event/incident report is completed by members of the surgical team that are witness to any unusual or adverse event that affected the care provided to the surgical patient.

For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?
A) Cholecystectomy
B) Hysterectomy
C) Thyroidectomy
D) Acromioplasty
Hysterectomy
The Trendelenburg position is best used for pelvic and lower abdominal procedures, such as an abdominal hysterectomy. The position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head for better exposure of the operative site.

Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?
A) kling
B) adaptic
C) collodion
D) elastoplast
adaptic
Adaptic is a type of nonadherent dressing that can be used as the inner layer of a three layer dressing.

Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
A) incise
B) U-drape
C) Aperture
D) Half-sheet
Aperture
A fenestrated drape is a drape with an opening, such as an aperture drape commonly used to drape eyes.

Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach’s triangle?
direct
Hernias that occur within Hesselbach’s triangle and do not have a sac are a direct inguinal hernia.

Which of the following incisions is oblique?
A) Epigastric
B) Kocher
C) Paramedian
D) Pfannenstiel
Kocher
The kocher is a type of oblique incision used for exposing the biliary tract (right side) or spleen (left side).

Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
A) Pratt
B) Van Buren
C) Bakes
D) Hegar
bakes
Bakes common duct dilators are used to dilate the common bile duct during an exploration for gallstones.

Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
A) Laser
B) Ligature
C) Thrombin
D) Electrosurgery
ligature
Ligature, also called ties or stick ties when a needle is attached, are strands of suture material used to tie off a blood vessel to stop bleeding

The organ that is connected by a duct to to the duodenum is the?
pancreas
The pancreas lies posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach; its ducts join the CBD to form the ampulla of Vater.

A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the?
cerebellum
The functions of the cerebellum include regulating the initiation and termination of voluntary movements of the body, regulating the msucle tone that is necessary for body movements and controlling the subconscious contractions of skeletal muscles.

What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?
parasitism

What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?
acute

Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?
mitochondria
Mitochondria produce energy rich ATP

What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?
balanced
Balanced anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs. It is also known as neuroleptanesthesia.

Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?
surgeon

What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
supine
The most commonly used position for neurosurgical procedures is supine since it allows exposure to the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes.

The outer layer of the intestine is the?
serosa
The serosa is the outermost layer of most portions of the gastrointestinal tract.

Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split thickness skin graft?
Chlorhexidine
The donor site should be scrubbed with a colorless antiseptic solution, such as chlorhexidine gluconate, to allow the surgeon the ability to evaluate the vascularity of the graft postoperatively.

What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
transverse
When the patient is placed in the lateral position, and a flank incision is made, a transverse drape will be used.

Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?
A) below the knees
B) across the waist
C) over the thighs
D) across the abdomen
over the thighs

Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
A) hypospadias repair
B) epispadias repair
C) meatotomy
D) ureteroneocystostomy
epispadias repair
An epispadias repair is performed to correct the congenital absence of the anterior wall of the urethra and abnormal location of the urethral orifice on the dorsum of the penis.

Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?
A) laser
B) bipolar
C) harmonic
D) monopolar
laser
The laser provides an intense and concentrated beam of light.

What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
Hypertension

The larynx is located between the?
pharynx and trachea
The larynx is a small passageway between the pharynx and the trachea.

The most common cause of retinal detachment is?
A) aging
B) trauma
C) glaucoma
D) inflammation
trauma

What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?
urinary incontinence
Pulmonary embolism can be caused by fat which dislodges after fracture of a long bone or pelvis, or when performing a total hip arthroplasty.

Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
A) penrose
B) hemovac
C) pleur-evac
D) Jackson-Pratt
penrose
The penrose drain is a passive drain made from latex that relies on gravity for wound drainage.

The vocal cords are located in the?
larynx

What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
artificial active

When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
endotracheal intubation
Cricoid pressure occludes the esophagus to prevent regurgitation.

Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?
A) Trephine
B) Westcott
C) Oculotome
D) Phacoemulsifier
trephine

What is the required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
4

Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?
Standard Precautions
Standard Precautions, as defined by the CDC in 1996, are a combination of Universal Precautions and body substance isiolation rules that state all body fluids and blood should be considered infectious.

What is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients?
separation anxiety

Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
pharynx

Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?
ear

An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called?
A) iatrogenic
B) liability
C) battery
D) tort
Iatrogenic

The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the?
choroid
The choroid is highly vascularized and provides nutrients to the posterior surface of the retina.

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team’s abilities?
A) physiological
B) belonging
C) esteem
D) safety
safety

Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
abdominal aortic
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur chiefly below the renal arteries and between the renal and iliac arteries.

The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is?
Heparin
Heparinized saline is an irrigating solution used to flush the inside of an artery.

What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridgement?
A) vessel reanastomosis
B) nerve reanastomosis
C) bone to bone fixation
D) tendon to tendon fixation
bone to bone fixation
The bone to bone fixation is first accomplished followed by reanastomosis of blood vessels and nerves.

What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
full thickness

Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
skeletal
Skeletal muscle tissue is striated because the fibers contain alternating light and dark bands perpendicular to the long area of the fibers. it is considered voluntary, because it is controlled consciously.

Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
A) microtia
B) anophthalmia
C) cheiloschisis
D) ectrosyndactyly
microtia

What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
1 1/2 hours (90 minutes)
The tourniquet should be deflated every 1 1/2 hours to allow blood flow into the leg and transport oxygen to prevent tissue necrosis.

Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?
Acromioclavicular joing to iliac crest

Which organism causes gas gangrene?
clostridium perfringens

Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
stapes

What is another name for the Kraske position?
jackknife

What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
Kitner (peanut)

Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
A) kilner hook
B) bowman probe
C) kerrison rongeur
D) cottingham punch
cottingham punch
The Cottingham punch is used to create the correct size of the donor cornea during a keratoplasty.

A partially dislocated joint is called?
subluxation
A complete displacement of a joint or displacement of one articular surface from another is called a luxation, and a partial dislocation is called a subluxation.

What condition is characterized by buildup of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?
atherosclerosis
A disorder when fatty deposits form on the walls of arteries is known as atherosclerosis.

Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in?
lukewarm water
Plaster rolls used in casting should be submerged in slightly lukewarm water at approximately 70-75 degrees F

The avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the?
cornea

How often should surgical masks be changed?
after each case

Which term describes a rod shaped microorganism?
bacillus

When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?
85 degrees F
Gas sterilizers operate at a lower temperature as compared to steam sterilizers. The gas sterilizer operates between 85-145 degrees F. EtO sterilization is used for products that cannot withstand heat. An example of this is a catheter.

Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
A) cuffing the hands within the drape
B) sterile person reaching over sterile surface
C) repositioning penetrating towel clip
D) sterile surgical members passing face to face
Repositioning penetrating towel clip
If a towel penetrates a sterile drape, the tips of the clip must be considered contaminated, and it should not be removed until the end of the procedure.

Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?
A) Res ipsa loquitor
B) Respondeat superior
C) Bona fide
D) Assault
Res ipsa loquitor
Res ipsa loquitur means “the thing speaks for itself.” It refers to the harm to the patient resulting from a given act when the caregiver had sole control.

The space between the vocal cords is called the?
glottis

Which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?
Clostridium tetani

Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
A) taylor
B) love
C) cushing
D) meyerding
love

What is another name for the electrosurgical unit’s patient return electrode?
grounding pad

What size of Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
16 Fr

Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?
A) meningioma
B) astrocytoma
C) schwannoma
D) oligodendroglioma
meningioma
A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a meningioma.

The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the?
sclera

What is the term for thread like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
flagella

What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?
trendelenburg
The trendelenburg position allows the viscera to fall away or toward the head providing better exposure of the operative site when performing a lower abdominal or pelvic procedure.

How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?
10
Glutaraldehyde is a liquid disinfecting and sterilizing agent. To sterilize an item, it must be submersed for 10 hours

When a patient’s blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to?
systolic
Blood pressure is measured in 2 numbers, systolic over diastolic. The relaxation phase of the heart beat is called the diastolic blood pressure.

A term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is?
cerumen

Which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
A) pinna
B) incus
C) labyrinth
D) vestibule
incus

What is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet?
exsanguination

Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
A) sinus cavities
B) eustachian tube
C) nasolacrimal duct
D) tympanic membrane
nasolacrimal duct
The nasolacrimal duct carries the lacrimal fluid and tears into the nasal cavity. The duct can become obstructed in pediatric patients who experience chronic URIs.

Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?
surgical technologist

In what circumstances would cell saver transfusion be contraindicated?
A) anemic patients
B) diabetic patients
C) cancer procedures
D) orthopedic procedures
cancer procedures
Cell saver transfusion cannot be used in the presence of cancer cells, gross contamination or infections.

Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
A) Pancreatectomy
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Polypectomy
D) Sigmoidectomy
sigmoidectomy
Intraluminal staplers are used to anastomose tubular organs in the gastrointestinal tract. They are often used during resection and reanatomosis of the colon or rectum.

Satinsky, herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?
A) kidney pedicle
B) seminal vesicle
C) bladder neck
D) prostate gland
kidney pedicle

The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the?
septum

Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
A) Randall forceps
B) Wire snare
C) Ellik evacuator
D) Poole suction
Ellik evacuator
The Ellik evacuator is filled with irrigation solution by the first scrub surgical technologist. It is used by the surgeon for the irrigation/evacuation of the bladder to remove prostatic tissue during a TURP.

Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
Intraventricular
A subdural hematoma is a large, encapsulated collection of blood over one or both cerebral hemispheres that causes intracranial pressure.

In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
pressure

The Bowie-Dick test is performed how often?
daily
The Bowie Dick test is only used for prevacuum sterilizers to check for air entrapment and is conducted daily.

The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the?
cochlea

What is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas’s cul-de-sac?
Enterocele
An enterocele is a herniation of Douglas’s cul-de-sac that usually contains loops of the bowel.

What is the condition characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea?
pterygium

Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
A) pelvic exenteration
B) Cervical cerclage
C) Colporrhaphy
D) Myomectomy
myomectomy
A myomectomy is the procedure performed for the removal of fibromyomas or fibroid tumors from the uterine wall.

Where is a Baker’s cyst located?
popliteal fossa
Baker’s cysts affect the popliteal fossa.

Which of the following is a method of high level disinfection?
A) Peracetic acid for 30 minutes
B) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
C) Steam under pressure for 10 minutes
D) Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 minutes
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
2% glutaraldehyde is a type of high level disinfectant solution. The device must be completely submersed for 20 minutes at room temperature in order to be disinfected.

Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?
eardrum

What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
third
The skin, along with its epithelial structures and subcutaneous tissue, is destroyed in a third degree burn.

Which portion of the ear is affected by Menieres syndrome?
inner
Menieres syndrome involves an increased amount of endolymph that enlarges the membranous labyrinth, located in the inner ear.

The cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
vomer
The vomer forms the inferior and posterior parts of the nasal septum.

The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled used of biological indicators containing the organism?
Bacillus searothermophilus
B.stearothermophilus, in spore form, is highly resistant to destruction by steam sterilization, but does not cause disease in humans.

Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
A) Subdural hematoma
B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob
C) Spinal stenosis
D)Myelomeningocele
Spinal stenosis
A myelogram is a diagnostic procedure when radiopaque dye is injected into the spinal subarachnoid space through a lumbar puncture. The myelogram would diagnose spinal stenosis.

Which term means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?
cystocele
-cele means hernia. A cystocele is a herniation of the bladder that causes a downward bulge in the anterior vaginal wall, usually as a result of surgical trauma, age, or weakness of the supporting muscles of the bladder due to childbirth.

How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?
24 hours
The steam sterilization biological indicator must be incubated for 24 hours before the reading is recorded.

The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the?
ethmoid sinus

What is the definition of otosclerosis?
Otosclerosis is the formation and hardening of spongy bone in the ear.

Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
compound
A compound or open fracture is one when the bone has penetrated the skin layer and protrudes through the opening.

For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
A) appendectomy
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Herniorrhaphy
D) Gastrectomy
appendectomy
The McBurney incision is primarily used for removal of the appendix

What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
55-60 degrees Celsius

What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?
hysterectomy

Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments?
A) Ultrasonic washer
B) Manual cleaning
C) Washer-sterilizer
D) Enzymatic soak
Ultrasonic washer
The ultrasonic cleaner uses the process of cavitation to remove small organic particles and soil from the areas of instrumentation that can’t be accomplished through manual or mechanical cleaning.

What is the medical term for nosebleed?
epistaxis

What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
A) Lumen is dry
B) Distilled water in lumen
C) Stylet is left inside lumen
D) Disinfectant solution in lumen
distilled water in lumen
Air trapped in the lumen will prevent steam from contacting the inner surface of the lumen. A residual amount of distilled water should be left inside the lumen which will boil and turn to steam to displace the air.

What is the telescoping of the intestines in neonates that requires immediate surgical intervention?
Intussusception
Intussusception is the most common emergency surgery for neonates when the portion of the bowel slides into another segment and causes obstruction. The motion is like a telescope.

The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is?
270-276 degrees F

What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?
Hydrocelectomy
Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called a hydrocelectomy.

What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?
10
When immediate use sterilization (formerly called “flash sterilization”) is used to sterilize items with lumens in the gravity sterilizer, the items must be exposed to 270 degrees F for 10 minutes.

  1. Which of the following structures if located in the alveolar processes?
    a. Teeth
    b. Villi
    c. Sinuses
    d. Tonsils
    Teeth
  2. Which of the following is the wound classification for bronchoscopy?
    a. Clean
    b. Contaminated
    c. Dirty and infected
    d. Clean-contaminated
    Clean-contaminated
  3. The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:
    a. Atropine sulfate
    b. Alpha-chymotrypsin
    c. Acetylcholine chloride
    d. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
    Alpha-chymotrypsin
  4. How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR?
    a. Place stretcher sideways in elevator
    b. Enter head first, exit feet first
    c. Position in elevator is irrelevant
    d. Enter feet first, exit head first
    Enter head first, exit feet first
  5. Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?
    a. Midline
    b. Paramedian
    c. McBurney’s
    d. Pfannenstiel
    Pfannenstiel
  6. When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned
    a. Flat
    b. Upside down
    c. Vertical
    d. Angled
    Flat
  7. Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of
    a. Calcium
    b. Nitrogen
    c. Potassium
    d. Albumin
    Potassium
  8. Which of the following tissues are cut using curved mayo scissors?
    a. Fascia
    b. Periosteum
    c. Dura mater
    d. Arterial wall
    Fascia
  9. Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?
    a. Argon
    b. Excimer
    c. Carbon Dioxide
    d. Neodymium YAG
    a. Argon
  10. Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of the risks is a/an
    a. Tort
    b. Malpractice
    c. Personal liability
    d. Informed consent
    Informed consent
  11. Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
    a. Cardia
    b. Fundus
    c. Pylorus
    d. Antrum
    Cardia
  12. Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy
    a. Viruses
    b. Bacteria
    c. Fungi
    d. Spores
    Spores
  13. Syndactyly refers to
    a. Cleft palate
    b. Webbed fingers
    c. Fused tarsals
    d. Torn ligaments
    Webbed fingers
  14. The Surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the
    a. Stretcher
    b. OR table
    c. Backtable
    d. Mayo stand
    Backtable
  15. The islets of langerhans secrete
    a. bile
    b. insulin
    c. intrinsic factor
    d. inhibiting hormones
    insulin
  16. what type of procedure would involve the removal of teeth
    a. cleft palate repair
    b. arch bar application
    c. extractions
    d. implants
    extractions
  17. Which organism is a normal resident flora of the intestinal tract?
    a. Escherichia coli
    b. Staphylococcus aureus
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Clostridium tetani
    Escherichia coli
  18. Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to swaure off an incision site?
    a. Opposite side from surgeon
    b. Same side as surgeon
    c. Foot of OR table
    d. Head of OR table
    Same side as surgeon
  19. A properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin
    a. Sterile
    b. Disinfected
    c. Surgically clean
    d. Moistened and dehydrated
    Surgically clean
  20. Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?
    a. Ampulla of vater
    b. Duct of Santorini
    c. Wirsung’s duct
    d. Sphincter of Oddi
    Ampulla of vater
  21. Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient of their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?
    a. Name, social security #, physician
    b. Name, medical record #, allergies
    c. Name, date of birth, diagnosis
    d. Name, date of birth, physician
    Name, date of birth, physician
  22. What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?
    a. Cocci
    b. Bacilli
    c. Spirilli
    d. Diplococci
    …c. Spirilli
  23. The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
    a. store bile
    b. produce bile
    c. emulsify fats
    d. metabolize fats
    …store bile
  24. Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
    a. Surgeon
    b. Circulator
    c. Surgical assistant
    d. Surgical Technologist
    …Circulator
  25. Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted slidigin doors for access to the operating room?
    a. Uses less space for opening
    b. Aid in controlling temperature
    c. Eliminate air turbulence
    d. Provides for through cleaning
    …Aid in controlling temperature
  26. What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
    a. Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose
    b. Exposure, frequency, concentration
    c. Time, shielding, distance
    d. Site, age, gender
    …Time, shielding, distance
  27. Which is the first part of the small intestine?
    a. Duodenum
    b. Jejunum
    c. Ileum
    d. Cecum
    …Duodenum
  28. What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?
    a. Prone
    b. Lateral
    c. Supine
    d. Lithotomy
    …Lateral
  29. How are rickettsiae transmitted?
    a. Arthropod bites
    b. Physical contact
    c. Blood exposure
    d. Airborne organisms
    …Arthropod bites
  30. Which of the following is examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?
    a. Colposcopy
    b. Laparascopy
    c. Urethroscopy
    d. Hysteroscopy
    …Colposcopy
  31. compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called:
    a. tamponade
    b. pericarditis
    c. infarction
    d. cardiomyopathy
    tamponade
  32. Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU
    a. Anesthesia provider
    b. Circulator
    c. Surgeon
    d. Surgical technologist
    …Anesthesia provider
  33. Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid
    a. -dynia
    b. -tomy
    c. -lysis
    d. -centesis
    …-centesis
  34. to which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
    a. Ascending
    b. Descending
    c. Cecum
    d. Sigmoid
    …Cecum
  35. Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
    a. Gram stain
    b. Manual count
    c. Prothrombin time
    d. Gel electrophoresis
    …Gram stain
  36. medication used to dilate the pupil is called:
    a. miotics
    b. myopics
    c. mydratics
    d. muscarinics
    …mydratics
  37. which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated
    a. laparotomy
    b. U-drape
    c. Transverse
    d. Craniotomy
    …U-drape
  38. Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient’s identification bracelet?
    a. During insertion of an IV catheter
    b. Never until patient is discharged from facility
    c. Postoperatively when taken to the nursing unit
    d. When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self
    …Never until patient is discharged from facility
  39. what is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
    a. Prone sims
    b. Sims
    c. Supin
    d. kraske
    …Supin
  40. Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
    a. Carbon dioxide
    b. Nd: YAG
    c. Excimer
    d. Argon
    …Argon
  41. Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?
    a. Clerical
    b. Mechanical
    c. Biological
    d. Chemical
    …Biological
  42. the apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the
    a. omentum
    b. mesentery
    c. ligamentum
    d. peritoneum
    …omentum
  43. Which microbes live without oxygen
    a. Aerobes
    b. Anaerobes
    c. Capnophiles
    d. Microaeorophiles
    …Anaerobes
  44. Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?
    a. Epitheliazation
    b. Fistula
    c. Herniation
    d. Sinus
    …Fistula
  45. What is the action of antagonist drugs?
    a. Inhibit the clotting process
    b. Achieve neuroleptanesthesia
    c. Increase the effects of opiates
    d. Counteract the action of another drug
    …Counteract the action of another drug
  46. Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?
    a. Spiral
    b. Horizontal
    c. Longitudinal
    d. Circumferential
    …Circumferential
  47. What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
    a. Bilateral ovaries only
    b. Bilateral fallopian tuebs and ovaries, uterus
    c. Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube
    d. Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus
    …Bilateral fallopian tuebs and ovaries, uterus
  48. Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as “hunchback”?
    a. Lordosis
    b. Scoliosis
    c. Kyphosis
    d. Alkalosis
    …Kyphosis
  49. What is the medical term for bunion?
    a. Talipes valgus
    b. Hallux valgus
    c. Hallux varus
    d. Talipes varus
    …Hallux valgus
  50. What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
    a. Inguinal
    b. Paramedian
    c. Infraumbilical
    d. thoracoabdominal
    …Inguinal
  51. The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the?
    a. Mesentery
    b. Peritoneum
    c. Falciform ligament
    d. Lesser omentum
    …Mesentery
  52. What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?
    a. Commenalism
    b. Neutralism
    c. Mutualism
    d. Parasitism
    …Commenalism
  53. A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:
    a. Depo-medrol
    b. Miochol
    c. Healon
    d. Wydase
    …Depo-medrol
  54. How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?
    a. Authorized individual signs the patient’s name
    b. Patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
    c. RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent
    d. Surgeon and Risk Manager sign consent
    …Patient marks with an “X” and witness verifies
  55. What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
    a. Feet first, side rails up
    b. Feet first, side rails down
    c. Head first, side rails up
    d. Head first, side rails down
    Feet first, side rails up
  56. Which of the following routine preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
    a. HCG
    b. HBV
    c. HIV
    d. HDL
    …HCG
  57. Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?
    a. Outside closure ties
    b. Two inches below neckline to table level
    c. Upper arms, neckline and axillary region
    d. Sleeves; two inches above the elbows to the cuffs
    …Upper arms, neckline and axillary region
  58. What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?
    a. Iglesias
    b. Coude
    c. Pigtail
    d. Bonanno
    …Coude
  59. What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?
    a. Supine
    b. Fowler’s
    c. Reverse trendelenburg
    d. Lateral kidney
    …Reverse trendelenburg
  60. a congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does no close is:
    a. coarctation of the aorta
    b. patent ductus arteriosus
    c. tetraogy of fallot
    d. ventricular septal defect
    …patent ductus arteriosus
  61. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for the tissue specimens?
    a. Saline
    b. Formalin
    c. Ethyl alcohol
    d. Lugol’s solution
    …Formalin
  62. What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
    a. Notify surgeon
    b. X-ray patient
    c. Repeat count
    d. Complete incident report
    …Notify surgeon
  63. The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?
    a. Sublingual
    b. Thyrois
    c. Parotid
    d. Submandibular
    …Parotid
  64. What institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusal event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient?
    a. Incident report
    b. Operative record
    c. Deposition report
    d. Advance directive
    …Incident report
  65. For which procedure would trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?
    a. Cholecystectomy
    b. Hysterectomy
    c. Thyroidectomy
    d. Acromioplasty
    …Hysterectomy
  66. Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?
    a. Kling
    b. Adaptic
    c. Collodion
    d. Elastoplast
    …Adaptic
  67. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
    a. Incise
    b. U-drape
    c. Aperture
    d. Half-sheet
    …Aperture
  68. Which of the following terms decribes a hernia that occurs within hesselbach’s triangle?
    a. Direct
    b. Indirect
    c. Femoral
    d. Hiatal
    …Direct
  69. Which of the following incisions is oblique?
    a. Epigastric
    b. Kocher
    c. Paramedian
    d. Pfannesnstiel
    …Kocher
  70. Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
    a. Pratt
    b. Van buren
    c. Bakes
    d. Hegar
    …Bakes
  71. Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
    a. Laser
    b. Ligature
    c. Thrombin
    d. Electrosurgery
    …Ligature
  72. The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
    a. pancreas
    b. gallbladder
    c. stomach
    d. liver
    …pancreas
  73. A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the:
    a. diencephalon
    b. cerebellum
    c. medulla
    d. pons
    …cerebellum
  74. What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?
    a. Commensalism
    b. Neutralism
    c. Mutualism
    d. Parasitism
    …Parasitism
  75. What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?
    a. Acute
    b. Chronic
    c. Primary
    d. Asymptomatic
    …Acute
  76. Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy?
    a. Lysosomes
    b. Mitochondria
    c. Golgi complex
    d. Endoplasmic reticulum
    …Mitochondria
  77. What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?
    a. Spinal
    b. Sedation
    c. Regional
    d. Balanced
    …Balanced
  78. Who is ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent?
    a. Guardian
    b. Patient
    c. Surgeon
    d. Nurse
    …Surgeon
  79. What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
    a. Supin
    b. Semi-fowler’s
    c. Trendelenburg
    d. Lithotomy
    …Supin
  80. The outer layer of the intestine is the
    a. mucose
    b. seros
    c. muscilaris
    d. submucosa
    …seros
  81. Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?
    a. Lodophor
    b. Avagard
    c. Chlorhexidine
    d. Merthiolate
    …Chlorhexidine
  82. What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
    a. Transverse
    b. Extremity
    c. Aperture
    d. Perineal
    …Transverse
  83. Where should the safet strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?
    a. Below the knees
    b. Across the waist
    c. Over the thighs
    d. Across the abdomen
    …Over the thighs
  84. Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?
    a. Hypospadias repair
    b. Epispadias repair
    c. Meatotomy
    d. Ureteroneocystostomy
    …Epispadias repair
  85. Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?
    a. Laser
    b. Bipolar
    c. Hamonic
    d. Monopolar
    …Laser
  86. What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
    a. Hypotension
    b. Hypertension
    c. Meningioma
    d. Meningitis
    …Hypertension
  87. The larynx is located between the
    a. pharynx and trachea
    b. nasal cavity and pharynx
    c. trachea and bronchi
    d. nasal and oral cavities
    …pharynx and trachea
  88. The most common cause of retinal detachment is
    a. aging
    b. trauma
    c. glaucoma
    d. inflammation
    …trauma
  89. What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arhroplasty?
    a. Compartment syndrome
    b. Upper extremity weakness
    c. Urinary incontinence
    d. Pulmonary embolism
    …Pulmonary embolism
  90. Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
    a. Penrose
    b. Hemovac
    c. Pleur-evac
    d. Jackson-pratt
    …Penrose
  91. The vocal cords are located in the
    a. pharynx
    b. larynx
    c. trachea
    d. bronchus
    …larynx
  92. What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
    a. Artificial passive
    b. Artificial active
    c. Natural passive
    d. Natural active
    …Artificial active
  93. When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
    a. Bier block
    b. Epidural injection
    c. Endotracheal intubation
    d. Endotracheal extubation
    …Endotracheal intubation
  94. Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?
    a. Trephine
    b. Westcott
    c. Oculotome
    d. Phacoemulsifier
    …Trephine
  95. What is the required minimum number of individual to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher?
    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 5
    d. 6
    …4
  96. Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluid should be considered infectious?
    a. Body substance isolation rules
    b. Medical device safety act
    c. Postexposure prophylaxis
    d. Standard precautions
    …Standard precautions
  97. Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the operating room?
    a. Room temperature change
    b. Lack of communication
    c. Fear of anesthesia
    d. Separation anxiety
    …Separation anxiety
  98. Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
    a. Esophagus
    b. Trachea
    c. Pharynx
    d. Glottis
    …Pharynx
  99. otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?
    a. Mouth
    b. Nose
    c. Ear
    d. Eye
    …Ear
  100. An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called
    a. latrogenic
    b. liability
    c. battery
    d. tort
    …latrogenic
  101. The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the
    a. Sclera
    b. Iris
    c. Choroid
    d. Macua
    …Choroid
  102. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team’s abilities?
    a. Physiological
    b. Belonging
    c. Esteem
    d. Safety
    …Safety
  103. which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
    a. Ascending thoracic
    b. Aortic arch
    c. Descending thoracic
    d. Abdominal aortic
    …Abdominal aortic
  104. the agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is
    a. heparin
    b. thrombin
    c. protamine sulfate
    d. ringer’s lactate
    …heparin
  105. What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridment?
    a. Vessel reanastomosis
    b. Nerve reanastomosis
    c. Bone-to-bone fixation
    d. Tendon-to-tendon fixation
    …Bone-to-bone fixation
  106. What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
    a. Composite
    b. Split-thickness
    c. Pedicle
    d. Full-thickness
    …Full-thickness
  107. Which muscle type is striated and voluntary?
    a. Visceral
    b. Heart
    c. Skeletal
    d. Cardiac
    …Skeletal
  108. Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
    a. Microtia
    b. Anophthalmia
    c. Cheloschisis
    d. Ectrosyndactyly
    …Microtia
  109. What is the recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity?
    a. 30 minutes
    b. 60 minutes
    c. 1 ½ hours
    d. 2 ½ hours
    …1 ½ hours
  110. Which organism causes gas gangrene
    a. Clostridium perfingens
    b. Clostridium botulinum
    c. Staphylococcus aureus
    d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    …Clostridium perfingens
  111. Chest rolld should span the distance bilaterally between which two anatomical structures?
    a. Nipple to umbilicus
    b. Iliac crest to ileac cerst
    c. Scapula to gluteus maximus
    d. Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
    …Acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
  112. which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
    a. Malleus
    b. Incus
    c. Stapes
    d. Utricle
    …Stapes
  113. What is another name for the Kraske position?
    a. Dorsal recumbent
    b. Jackknife
    c. Trendelenburg
    d. Beach chair
    …Jackknife
  114. What type of sponge is tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
    a. Raytec
    b. Kitner
    c. Weck-cel
    d. Cottonoid
    …Kitner
  115. which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty
    a. kilner hook
    b. bowman probe
    c. kerrison rongeur
    d. cottingham punch
    …cottingham punch
  116. a partially dislocated joint is called:
    a. subluxation
    b. malrotation
    c. avulsion
    d. malunion
    …subluxation
  117. What condition is characterized by build-up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol
    a. Embolism
    b. Thrombosis
    c. Anteriospasm
    d. Atherosclerosis
    …Atherosclerosis
  118. Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?
    a. Lukewarm saline
    b. Lukewarm water
    c. Cold saline
    d. Cold water
    …Lukewarm water
  119. the avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris is the:
    a. cornea
    b. sclera
    c. pupil
    d. conjuctiva
    …cornea
  120. How often should surgical masks be changed?
    a. After lunch
    b. Twice-a-day
    c. After each case
    d. Every two hours
    …After each case
  121. Which term describes a rod-shaped microorganism?
    a. Coccus
    b. Bacillus
    c. Spirillum
    d. Helical
    …Bacillus
  122. When using the warm cycle of the EtO sterilizaer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit?
    a. 55
    b. 65
    c. 75
    d. 85
    …85
  123. Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
    a. Cuffing the hands within the drape
    b. Sterile person reaching over sterile surface
    c. Repositioning pentrating towel clip
    d. Sterile surgical members passing face-to-face
    …Repositioning pentrating towel clip
  124. Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic?
    a. Res ips loquitor
    b. Respondeat superior
    c. Bona fide
    d. Assault
    …Res ips loquitor
  125. the space between the vocal cords is called the:
    a. epiglottis
    b. glottis
    c. vocal fold
    d. cricold cartilage
    …glottis
  126. which bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail?
    a. Treponema pallidum
    b. Bacillus anthacis
    c. Clostridium tetani
    d. Helicobacter pylori
    ..Clostridium tetani.
  127. Which of the following retractors is used for spinal nerve roots?
    a. Taylor
    b. Love
    c. Cushing
    d. Meyerding
    …Love
  128. What is another name for the electrosurgical unit’s patient return electrode?
    a. Cautery
    b. Generator
    c. Foot pedal
    d. Grounding pad
    …Grounding pad
  129. What size of foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
    a. 8 Fr
    b. 12 Fr
    c. 16 Fr
    d. 24 Fr
    …16 Fr
  130. Which of the following tumors is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures?
    a. Meningioma
    b. Astrocytoma
    c. Schwannoma
    d. Oligodendroglioma
    …Meningioma
  131. The fibrous white layer that gives the eye its shape is the
    a. iris
    b. cornea
    c. sclera
    d. choroid
    …sclera
  132. What is the term for thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion?
    a. Flagella
    b. Fimbriae
    c. Mesosomes
    d. Mitochondria
    …Flagella
  133. What surgical position provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis?
    a. Fowler’s
    b. Reverse trendelenburg
    c. Trendelenburg
    d. Kraske
    …Trendelenburg
  134. how many hours must an item submerse in glutaralhyde to sterilize?
    a. 7
    b. 8
    c. 9
    d. 10
    …10
  135. When a patient’s blood pressure is 135/81, 135 refers to:
    a. Diastolic
    b. Systolic
    c. Pedal pulse
    d. Apical pressure
    …Systolic
  136. a term referring to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:
    a. mucous
    b. sputum
    c. cerumen
    d. perilymph
    …cerumen
  137. which of the following is an ossicle of the middle ear?
    a. Pinna
    b. Incus
    c. Labyrinth
    d. Vestibule
    …Incus
  138. what is the term for the process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating the pneumatic tourniquet
    a. exsanguination
    b. extravasation
    c. evisceration
    d. evacuation
    …exsanguination
  139. Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infections?
    a. Sinus cavities
    b. Eustachian tube
    c. Nasolacrimmal duct
    d. Tympanic membrane
    …Nasolacrimmal duct
  140. Which surgical team member is responsible for setting up the sterile field?
    a. Surgical first assistant
    b. Surgical technologist
    c. Circulating nurse
    d. Surgeon
    …Surgical technologist
  141. In what circumstances would cell-saver transfusion be contraindicated?
    a. Anemic patients
    b. Diabetic patients
    c. Cancer procedures
    d. Orthopedic procedures
    …Cancer procedures
  142. Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures?
    a. Pancreatectomy
    b. Cholecystectomy
    c. Polypectomy
    d. Sigmoidectomy
    …Sigmoidectomy
  143. Stainsky, Herrick, and Mayor clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures?
    a. Kidney pedicle
    b. Seminal vesicle
    c. Bladder neck
    d. Prostate gland
    …Kidney pedicle
  144. The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the:
    a. Ethmoid
    b. Septum
    c. Vomer
    d. Sphenoid
    …Septum
  145. Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
    a. Randall forceps
    b. Wire snare
    c. Ellik evacuator
    d. Poole suction
    …Ellik evacuator
  146. Which type of hematoma is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins?
    a. Subdural
    b. Epidural
    c. Intracerebral
    d. Intraventricular
    …Subdural
  147. In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
    a. Concentration
    b. Aeration
    c. Weight
    d. Pressure
    …Pressure
  148. The Bowie-Dick test is performed
    a. hourly
    b. daily
    c. weekly
    d. monthly
    …daily
  149. The spiral, conical structure of the inner ear is the
    a. Cochlea
    b. Stapes
    c. Vestibule
    d. Labyrinth
    …Cochlea
  150. what is the name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas’s cul-de-sac?
    a. Cystocele
    b. Rectocele
    c. Enterocele
    d. Omphalocele
    …Enterocele
  151. Which of these conditions is characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjuctiva onto the cornea?
    a. Chalazion
    b. Pterygium
    c. Strabismus
    d. Ecchymosis
    …Pterygium
  152. Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids?
    a. Pelvic exenteration
    b. Cervial cerclage
    c. Colporrhaphy
    d. Myomectomy
    …Myomectomy
  • Where is a Baker’s cyst located?
    o Olecranon process
    o Great tubercle
    o Popliteal fossa
    o Carpal tunnel
    …Popliteal fossa

Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?
Peracetic acid for 30 minutes
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
Steam under pressure for 10 minutes
Hydrogen peroxide gas plasma for 75 minutes
…2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes

Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:
Ear tube
Ear canal
Earlobe
Eardrum
…Eardrum

What is the burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
…Third

Which portion of the ear is affect by Meniere’s syndrome?
Inner
Middle
Eustachian tube
Auditory ossicles
…Inner

The Cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone?
Hyoid
Vomer
Mandible
Palatine
…Vomer

The most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizers is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism:
Bacillus Stearothemophilus
Clostridium Tetani
Bordetella Pertussis
Corynebacterium Diptheria
…Bacillus Stearothemophilus

Which neurosurgical pathology would a myelogram diagnose?
Subdural hematoma
Creutzfeldt-jakob
Spinal Stenosis
Myelomeningocele
…Spinal Stenosis

Which of the following terms means a prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall?
Rectocele
Cystocele
Enterocele
Herniation
…Cystocele

How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate?
6
12
18
24
…24

The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Maxillary
…Ethmoid

What is the definition of otosclerosis?
Earache
Tinnitus
Tearing of tympanic membrane
Bony overgrowth of stapes
…Bony overgrowth of stapes

Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
Comminuted
Compound
Simple
Closed
…Compound

For which of the following procedures would a McBurney incision be indicated?
Appendectomy
Cholecystectomy
Herniaorrhaphy
Gastrectomy
…Appendectomy

What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
43-48
49-54
55-60
61-66
… 55-60

What is the medical term for removal of the uterus?
Salpingectomy
Ooporectomy
Myomectomy
Hysterectomy
…Hysterectomy

Which of the following methods removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks?
Ultrasonic washer
Manual cleaning
Washer-sterilizer
Enzymatic soak
…Ultrasonic washer

What is the medical term for nosebleed
Rhinitis
Sinusitis
Epistaxis
Hemoptysis
…Epistaxis

What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
Lumen is dry
Distilled water in lumen
Stylet is left inside lumen
Disinfectant solution in lumen
…Distilled water in lumen

Which of the following is a telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention?
Intussusception
Pyloris stenosis
Tetralogy of fallot
Omphalocele
…Intussusception

The minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer is
249-255
256-262
263-269
270-276
…270-276

What is the name of the procedure for the excision of the tunica vaginalis?
Spermatocelectomy
Orchiectomy
Hydrocelectomy
Vasectomy
…Hydrocelectomy

What is the minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270 degrees F?
5
10
15
20
…10

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