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ATI RN PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED 2023 FORM A
EXAM CONTAINS 60 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
- A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client who has gout. The nurse
discovers that an error was made during the previous shift and the client received
atenolol instead of allopurinol. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client’s blood pressure.
B. Contact the client’s provider.
C. Inform the charge nurse.
D. Complete an incident report.
A. Obtain the client’s blood pressure.
rationale: when using the nursing process, the first action the nurse should take to
prevent injury to the client is to assess the client for adverse effects of atenolol, such as
hypotension. - A nurse is teaching a client about cyclobenzaprine. Which of the following client
statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching is effective?
A. “I will have increased saliva production.”
B. “I will continue taking the medication until the rash disappears.”
C. “I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it.”
D. “I will report any urinary incontinence.”
C. “I will taper off the medication before discontinuing it.”
rationale: The client should taper off cyclobenzaprine before discontinuing to prevent
abstinence syndrome or rebound insomnia. - A nurse is assessing a client for 1 hr after administering morphine for pain. The nurse
should identify which of the following findings as the best indication that the morphine
has been effective?
A. The client’s vital signs are within normal limits.
B. the client has not requested additional medication.
C. The client is resting comfortably with eyes closed.
D. The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
D. The client rates pain as 3 on a scale from 0 to 10.
rationale: The client’s description of pain is the most accurate assessment of pain. - A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The
nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea. Which of the following
medications should the nurse administer first?
A. Diphenhydramine
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B. Albuterol inhaler
C. Epinephrine
D. Prednisone
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C. Epinephrine
rationale: according to evidence-based practice, the nurse should administer
epinephrine first to induce vasoconstriction and bronchodilation during anaphylaxis.
- A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking oxybutynin for urinary
incontinence. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the
teaching? SATA
A. Dry mouth
B. Tinnitus
C. Blurred vision
D. Bradycardia
E. Dry eyes
A. Dry mouth
C. Blurred vision
E. Dry eyes
rationale: oxybutynin is an anticholinergic agent that can cause dry mouth, blurred
vision due to an increase in intraocular pressure and dry eyes. - A nurse is preparing to administer PO sodium polystyrene sulfonate to a client who
has hyperkalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plant to take?
A. Hold the client’s oral medications for 8 hr post administration.
B. Inform the client that this medication can turn stool a light tan color.
C. Keep the client’s solution in the refrigerator for up to 72 hr.
D. Monitor the client for constipation.
D. Monitor the client for constipation.
rationale: the nurse should monitor the client for the adverse effect of constipation and
report it to the provider because this can lead to fecal impaction. - A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus.
B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
C. Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption.
D. Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.
A. Administer the medication outside the 5-cm (2-in) radius of the umbilicus
rationale: the nurse should administer the heparin by subcutaneous injection to the
abdomen in an area that is above the iliac crest and at least 5-cm (2-in) away from the
umbilicus.