ASCP EXAM Newest 2024 REAL EXAM 200 Questions AND Correct Detailed Answers

ASCP EXAM Newest 2024 REAL EXAM 200 Questions AND Correct Detailed Answers

ASCP EXAM NEWEST 2025 REAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS |AGRADE PCR that is not a limitation of real-time PCR? Select one: a. Requirement of a large initial sample b. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only c. Ability to detect PCR product during the plateau stage – ANSWER- B. Inability to quantitate DNA product due to endpoint analysis only A patient has the following test results:ANA = positive 1:320RA = positiveComplement = decreasedThe above results would be seen in patients with: Select one: a. Rheumatic fever b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Lupus Erythematosus d. Glomerulonephritis – ANSWER- C. Lupus Erythmatosus A 40-year-old female receives two units of Red Blood Cells during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums, with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5X109/L (reference interval 150-400 X 109 /L). What is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) b. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) d. Allergic reaction – ANSWER- A. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) Approximately what percent of the overall population is Rh negative: Select one: a. 10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 35% – ANSWER- B. 15% Which one of the following statements concerning endocytosis is NOT TRUE?
Select one: a. Cells may employ endocytosis to ingest large polar molecules (macromolecules) from extracellular fluid. b. In endocytosis, the cell membrane often extends outward until it surrounds the material that will be ingested. c. Endocytosis is a natural process of intracellular digestion for nutrition. d. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside. – ANSWER- D. Endocytosis is the process by which phagosomes are released by the cell to expel the macromolecules inside Which of the following represents the approximate percentage of the population that is Rh positive: Select one: a. 35% b. 65% c. 85% d. 95% – ANSWER- C. 85% Which of these nitrogenous bases is present in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), but not in ribonucleic acid (RNA)? Select one: a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Adenine d. Thymine – ANSWER- D. Thymine Which real-time PCR quantification method is only effective if the amplification efficiency of both target and reference samples are equal? Select one: a. Standard Curve Method b. Comparative Threshold Method – ANSWER- B. Comparative Threshold Method Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg: negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. recovery d. immunization – ANSWER- C. Recovery
During routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation? Select one: a. the unit was frozen b. donor had DIC c. viral contamination d. bacterial contamination – ANSWER- D. Bacterial Contamination Given the following results, what is the immune status for the patient?HbsAg: positiveHbeAg: positiveAnti-HBc IgM: positiveAnti-HBs: negative Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. immunization d. susceptible – ANSWER- A. Acute infection Twelve weeks after onset of the disease, patients with uncomplicated acute hepatitis B usually will demonstrate which of the following in their serum? Select one: a. HBsAg b. Anti-HTLV c. Anti-HBe d. Anti-HIV – ANSWER- C. Anti-HBe While ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU are clinically significant, which of the following antibodies generally react at ONLY the Coombs phase (also knowns as Antihuman Globulin phase): Select one: a. Rh, Kell b. ABO c. Kell, Duffy, Kidd d. SsU, Kidd – ANSWER- C. Kell, Duffy, Kidd Platelets should be stored at what temperature: Select one: a. 1-6 degrees Celsius b. 10-16 degrees Celsius c. 20-24 degrees Celsius d. 34-37 degrees Celsius – ANSWER- C. 20-24 degrees Celsius
If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? Select one: a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae – ANSWER- C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies A delayed hemolytic reaction occurring a week later is MOST likely caused by: Select one: a. Volume overload b. Kidd system antibodies c. Iron overload d. ABO incompatibility – ANSWER- B. Kidd system antibodies It’s a busy Friday evening in the blood bank and you have been receiving a steady stream of Type & Screen specimens from the emergency room and several of them have positive antibody screens which require further workup. One of these patients is a 46-year-old male whose hemoglobin has dropped from 8.4 g/dL to 4.6 g/dL in the previous 8 hours (normal Hgb for this patient demographic would be  14 g/dL).Your workup reveals a Type O patient with the following antibodies:Anti – K , anti Fya. The prevalence of K negative donors in your donor population is 91% while the prevalence of Fya negative donors is 37%. Two units of crossmatched RBCs are requested by the physician. How many units of group O RBC units should you phenotype, in order to fulfill the request for two cross matched units? Select one: a. 2 units of type O RBC units b. 3 units of type O RBC units c. 6 units of type O RBC units d. 12 units of type O RBC units – ANSWER- C. 6 units of Type O RBC units Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to serological testing: Select one: a. Presence of an antibody titer is generally diagnostic b. Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic c. Concentration of antibody is diagnostic
Select one: a. first trimester b. second trimester c. third trimester d. delivery e. eighth month – ANSWER- A. First trimester Given the following results, what is the immune status of the patient?HBsAg: negativeHBeAg: negativeAnti-HBc: positiveAnti-HBs: positive Select one: a. acute infection b. chronic infection c. recovery d. immunization – ANSWER- C. Recovery Which of the following is the “activation unit” in the classical complement pathway? Select one: a. C1 b. C2 c. C4, C2, C3 d. C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 e. C1, C2, C9 – ANSWER- C4,C2,C,3 The Hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during Orientation. Which type of immunity is expected and provide long-term protection? Select one: a. Active b. Passive c. Adoptive d. Innate – ANSWER- A. Active If an antinuclear antibody indirect immunofluorescence test shows a positive, speckled pattern, which would be the MOST appropriate additional test to perform? a. Anti-mitochondrial antibody b. Immunoglobulin quantitation c. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies
d. Anti-DNA antibody using C. luciliae – ANSWER- C. Screen for Sm and RNP antibodies Which method remains the “gold standard” for ANA detection? a. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) b. Lateral Flow Immunoassay c. Enzyme Immunoassay (ELISA) d. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme – ANSWER- D. Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme What is the most common combination of ANA patterns? a. Homogeneous and centromere b. Speckled and nucleolar c. Speckled and SSA/Ro d. Homogeneous and speckled – ANSWER- D. Homogenous and speckled Which two stages of cell division are the most important for reading ANAs? a. Prophase and metaphase b. Interphase and anaphase c. Anaphase and telophase d. Interphase and metaphase – ANSWER- D. Interphase and Metaphase Why are ANA positive samples titered? (Chose all that apply) -To determine just how ill the pt is – To determine how much antibody is present in the sample -To look for multiple ANA patterns – ANSWER- – To determine how much antibody is present in the sample. – to look for multiple ANA patterns What type of follow-up testing is recommended for a Speckled ANA pattern? a. None b. Testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) c. Testing for antibodies to dsDNA – ANSWER- B. Testing for antibodies to the extractable nuclear antigens (ENA) For the ANA test to be positive what must be present in the nucleus of the interphase cell? a. Strong staining b. Centromeres c. dsDNA
d. It can cause AIDS immediately upon entering the body. – ANSWER- B. RNA is used as the template for DNA synthesis An isolate of S. pneumoniae from a respiratory specimen gave a zone of inhibition of 18 mm around a 1 ug oxacillin using the disk diffusion test. What should the next step be? Select one: a. Report the isolate as penicillin sensitive b. Report the isolate as penicillin resistant c. Set up an MIC on the isolate d. Report the isolate as moderately susceptible – ANSWER- C. Set up MIC on the isolate The Mycobacterium species capable of growing on modified MacConkey agar (crystal violet removed from the formula), as illustrated in this photograph, is: Select one: a. Mycobacterium avium/intracellulare b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium marinum d. Mycobacterium fortuitum – ANSWER- D. Mycobacterium fortuitum The Quellung test is useful for which of the following: Select one: a. Differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus b. Serological typing of Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Isolation of various strains of Staphylococcus d. Isolation of various strains of Streptococcus – ANSWER- B. Serological typing of strep pneumo Which of the following test(s) that are the most useful in separating Listeria monocytogenesfrom Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae? Select one: a. Room temperature motility b. Catalase c. Esculin hydrolysis d. All of the above – ANSWER- D. All of the above A small gram-negative rod isolated from an eye grows on chocolate agar but NOT on sheep blood agar. It produces satellite growth around staphylococci on sheep blood agar, however. The organism requires:
Select one: a. X and V factor b. X factor only c. V factor only d. Neither X or V factor – ANSWER- A. X and V factor The lecithin hydrolysis, indicated by the tips of the arrows in this photograph of an egg yolk agar plate, may be produced by each of the following Bacillus species except: Select one: a. Bacillus cerebus b. Bacillus subtilis c. Bacillus mycoides d. Bacillus anthracis – ANSWER- B. Bacillus subtilis The increased resistance of MRSA strains to beta-lactam antibiotics is due to production of which of the following penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)? Select one: a. PBP 2 b. PBP 2a c. PBP 3 d. PBP 4 – ANSWER- B. PBP 2a Chlamydia trachomatis causes which of the following problems? Select one: a. Trachoma, a major cause of preventable blindness in the world b. Zoonosis in birds and the cause of parrot fever in humans c. A skin disease found predominantly in tropical areas. – ANSWER- A. Trachoma, major cause of preventable blindness is the world Which one of the following does NOT have capsular material as a defense mechanism? Select one: a. H. influenza b. K. pneumonia c. N. meningitides d. S. aureus e. S. pneumonia – ANSWER- D. S. auerus
a. Tofu b. Cola c. Alcohol – ANSWER- B. cola The infective stage for the majority of all intestinal amoebae is the: Select one: a. Trophozoite b. Cyst c. Larva d. Egg – ANSWER- B. cyst Each of the following characteristics will differentiate between Listeria monocytogenes and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiaeexcept: Select one: a. Hydrolsis of esculin b. Motility c. Catalase d. Fermentation of glucose – ANSWER- D. Fermentation of glucose ____ is predominantly associated with skin and soft tissue infections (SSTIs), such as abcesses, cellulitis, folliculitis and impetigo. Select one: a. Hospital-associated MRSA b. Community-associated MRSA – ANSWER- B. Community acquired MRSA T A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus was isolated from a throat culture. It gave the following biochemical reactions:· Bacitracin – Susceptible· Bile esculin – Negative· 6.5% NaCl – No growth· CAMP – Negative· SXT – ResistantWhat is the presumptive identification? Select one: a. Beta Streptococcus, group B b. Beta Streptococcus, not group A, B, or D c. Beta Streptococcus, group G d. Beta Streptococcus, group A – ANSWER- D. strep A Which is not positive for ALA? a. Haemophilus parainfluenzae b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Haemophilus parahaemolyticus
d. Haemophilus aphrophilus – ANSWER- B. H influenzae What is the MOST common infective agent to be transmitted through blood transfusion that results in morbidity and mortality? Select one: a. Bacteria b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) d. Malarial parasites – ANSWER- A. bacteria Thick Giemsa-stained smears are primarily used to screen for the presence of: Select one: a. Paragonimus westermani b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Plasmodium species d. Onchocerca volvulus – ANSWER- C. Plasmodium species Which of the following HPV types are most likely to be associated with cervical cancer? Select one: a. 6 and 11 b. 16 and 18 c. 42 and 43 d. 44 and 54 – ANSWER- b. 16 and 18 Surprise! Animals are not the only creatures with bacteria. The bacterial species causing onion rot is: Select one: a. Shewanella putrifaciens b. Burkholderia cepacia c. Pantoea agglomerans (Erwinia herbicola) d. Klebsiella planticola – ANSWER- B. Burkholderia cepacia Which of the following species of Mycobacteriummight be associated with contamination of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals? Select one: a. M. xenopi b. M. ulcerans c. M. marinum d. M. haemophilum
Which of the following would not indicate that RBC’s may be interfering with the platelet count? Select one: a. a low MCV and very high RDW b. a very high MPV c. schistocytes on the blood smear d. spherocytosis – ANSWER- D. Spherocytosis Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is present in: Select one: a. Precursor B and precursor T cells b. Mature B and T lymphocytes c. Precursor B cells and mature B lymphocytes d. Precursor T cells and mature lymphocytes – ANSWER- A. precursor B and T cells The total white blood cell count in an adult is 3.0 x 109/L with a differential of 20% segs, 5% bands, 67% lymphs and 8% monos. These values indicate the presence of: Select one: a. a shift to the left b. leukopenia and relative lymphocytosis c. absolute lymphocytosis and leukopenia d. shift to the right – ANSWER- B. Leukopenia and relative lymphocytosis What is the quality control term used to describe the reproducibility of a test? Select one: a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Standard Deviation d. Specificity – ANSWER- B. precision The following laboratory data are indicative of which of the disorders listed below:1. Marked hemolysis in the serum obtained from clotted blood incubated at 37oC (90.6oF) for one hour2. Hemolysis of erythrocytes in acidified serum3. Accelerated lysis after 48 hours with addition of sucrose4. Low erythrocytic cholinesterase activity5. Erythrocytes develop pits on their surface6. Strong Prussian blue reaction in the urinary sediment Select one: a. Organic phosphate poisoning
b. Lead poisoning c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria e. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency – ANSWER- C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria This state of the granulocytic series is characterized by the appearance of specific granules. Select one: a. Progranulocyte b. Myelocyte c. Metamyelocyte d. Band e. Monocyte – ANSWER- B. Myelocyte A peak or spike at the left end (2-3 fl area) of a platelet histogram may indicate interference by: Select one: a. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC’s b. Nucleated red blood cells c. Schistocytes d. Platelet clumps e. None of the above – ANSWER- A. Cytoplasmic fragments from WBC’s The globin component of hemoglobin F Select one: a. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains b. is composed of 4 epsilon chains c. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains d. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains – ANSWER- D. is composed of 2 alpha and 2 gamma chains Hemolysis produced by intravascular erythrocyte fragmentation is characterized by the appearance of: Select one: a. spherocytes b. acanthocytes c. schizocytes d. Heinz bodies – ANSWER- C. Shistocytes
Select one: a. Classic Hemophilia b. Thrombasthenia c. Blood vessel disease d. Von Willebrand’s disease – ANSWER- D. Von Willebrand’s disease Heparin inhibits clotting by: Select one: a. Chelating calcium ions b. Preventing activation of prothrombin c. Causing liver synthesis of non functional factors d. Enhancing the action of antithrombin – ANSWER- D. Enhancing the action of antithrombin In von Willebrand’s Disease, the APTT is often: Select one: a. Normal b. Prolonged c. Short – ANSWER- B. Prolonged A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the: Select one: a. Activated clotting time b. Stypven time c. Reptilase time d. Partial thromboplastin time – ANSWER- A. Activated clotting time The lupus anticoagulant is directed against: Select one: a. Factor VIII b. Factor X c. Factor IX d. Phospholipid – ANSWER- D. Phospholipid Platelet aggregation is enhanced by: Select one: a. Cyclooxygenase b. A rachidonic acid c. Prostacyclin d. Thromboxane A2 – ANSWER- D. Thromboxane A2
In specific factor assays: Select one: a. Only patients plasma is used b. Only reagent plasma is used c. The result is expressed as a percentage of normal d. The result is expressed as positive or negative – ANSWER- C. The result is expressed as a percentage of normal Patient screening tests had the following results:Prothrombin = –>11 secondsActivated Partial Thromboplastin Time = –>100 secondsThe patient’s plasma was mixed with fresh plasma and the APTT was repeated. The result was 95 seconds. Select one: a. This confirms that the patient has a plasma factor deficiency b. This suggests the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient’s plasma c. Platelets are either quantitatively or qualitatively affected d. The tech. must have erred in the repeat procedure – ANSWER- B. This suggest the presence of circulating anticoagulants in the patient’s plasma After coumadin or warfarin administration the prothrombin time: Select one: a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged – ANSWER- A. increases Which statement about the fibrin degradation product (FDP) test is false? Select one: a. Detects early degradation products b. Elevated in DIC c. Evaluates the fibrinolytic system d. Detects late degradation products – ANSWER- A. detects early degradation products The coagulation factors affected by coumarin-type drugs include: Select one: a. VIII, IX, and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX, and X d. II, V, and VII – ANSWER- C. II, VII, IX, X